HM1 Advancement Study (The Ultimate Quiz)
When it comes to advancement exams some people have a hard time prepping for them. Are you in need of a Hm1 Advancement Study quiz to help you properly prepare for your tests? If so, then the quiz below is perfect for you, give it a try and see just how prepared you are and refresh your memory while you are at it.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time frame, regardless of the quantity requested or issued?
- A.
Frequency of Demand
- B.
Low Limit
- C.
Average Endurance Level
- D.
Demand
Correct Answer
A. Frequency of DemandExplanation
Frequency of Demand refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time frame, regardless of the quantity requested or issued. It measures how often a particular item is requested or demanded by customers or users. This metric helps in understanding the popularity or demand for a product or service, and can be used to determine inventory levels, production schedules, and resource allocation.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The blood of the average man contains approximately how many red blood cells per cubic millimeter?
- A.
5.0 million
- B.
4.0 million
- C.
4.5 million
- D.
3.5 million
Correct Answer
A. 5.0 millionExplanation
The average man's blood contains approximately 5.0 million red blood cells per cubic millimeter.Rate this question:
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- 3.
An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of what infection
- A.
Meningitis
- B.
Appendicitis
- C.
Pneumonia
- D.
Influenza
Correct Answer
B. AppendicitisExplanation
An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, a small pouch-like organ attached to the large intestine. When the appendix becomes infected, the body's immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the infection. This leads to an elevated white blood cell count, which is typically observed in cases of appendicitis. Meningitis, pneumonia, and influenza may also cause an increase in white blood cell count, but the specific range mentioned in the question is more indicative of appendicitis.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What nerve controls the diaphram?
- A.
Vagus Nerve
- B.
Intercostal nerve
- C.
Phrenic Nerve
- D.
Diaphratic Nerve
Correct Answer
C. Phrenic NerveExplanation
The phrenic nerve controls the diaphragm. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located below the lungs that plays a crucial role in the process of breathing. It contracts and relaxes to facilitate inhalation and exhalation. The phrenic nerve originates from the cervical spine and travels through the chest to innervate the diaphragm. It provides the necessary signals for the diaphragm to contract and initiate the inhalation process. Therefore, the phrenic nerve is responsible for controlling the diaphragm's movement and is essential for proper breathing.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the name of the largest white blood cell that destroys bacteria, foreign particles and protoza?
- A.
Monocyte
- B.
Basophil
- C.
Eosinphil
- D.
Lymphocyte
Correct Answer
A. MonocyteExplanation
Monocytes are the largest white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for engulfing and destroying bacteria, foreign particles, and protozoa through a process called phagocytosis. Monocytes are part of the innate immune response and are able to migrate to infected tissues where they differentiate into macrophages, enhancing their ability to eliminate pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When treating a victim for heat stroke, you should discontinue cooling when the rectal temp. reaches how many degrees Fahrenheit?
- A.
100
- B.
101
- C.
102
- D.
103
Correct Answer
C. 102Explanation
When treating a victim for heat stroke, it is recommended to discontinue cooling when the rectal temperature reaches 102 degrees Fahrenheit. This is because cooling should be stopped once the body temperature reaches a safe and stable level, and 102 degrees Fahrenheit is considered a safe temperature. Continuing to cool beyond this point may cause the body temperature to drop too low, leading to other complications.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What type of CBR agent leaves symptoms of lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching and headache?
- A.
Nerve agent
- B.
Blood agent
- C.
Choking agent
- D.
Vesicants
Correct Answer
D. VesicantsExplanation
Vesicants are chemical agents that cause blistering and severe irritation to the skin, eyes, and respiratory system. The symptoms mentioned in the question, such as lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching, and headache, are all consistent with the effects of vesicants. These agents can cause blistering of the skin, damage to the eyes, and respiratory distress. Examples of vesicants include sulfur mustard and Lewisite.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of whom?
- A.
SMO
- B.
CO
- C.
DCA
- D.
SupO
Correct Answer
C. DCAExplanation
The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of the DCA. The DCA, or Damage Control Assistant, is responsible for managing and maintaining the ship's damage control equipment and supplies. It is important to keep the supply cabinets locked to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the decontamination supplies. By entrusting the keys to the DCA, they can control who has access to the cabinets and ensure the proper handling and use of the supplies.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous interrupted simple sutures placed how far apart?
- A.
1/16 inch
- B.
1/8 inch
- C.
1/4 inch
- D.
1/2 inch
Correct Answer
B. 1/8 inchExplanation
When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous interrupted simple sutures placed 1/8 inch apart. This distance allows for even distribution of tension along the wound edges, reducing the risk of scarring and promoting optimal wound healing. Sutures placed too close together may cause tissue ischemia and necrosis, while sutures placed too far apart may result in wound dehiscence and poor cosmetic outcome. Therefore, placing sutures 1/8 inch apart is considered the ideal spacing for achieving the best cosmetic effect.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Routine QA program-related documentation must be maintained in a secure location for a period of how many years before disposal?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
D. 5Explanation
Routine QA program-related documentation must be maintained in a secure location for a period of 5 years before disposal. This is important because it allows for the proper record-keeping and documentation of the QA program activities. By keeping the documentation for this period of time, organizations can ensure that they have a historical record of their QA program, which can be useful for audits, investigations, or any other future reference. Additionally, it helps to maintain accountability and transparency in the QA process.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The CO of the DENBN will designate a dental officer and how many dental technicians?
- A.
26
- B.
27
- C.
28
- D.
29
Correct Answer
B. 27Explanation
The CO of the DENBN will designate a dental officer and 27 dental technicians.Rate this question:
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- 12.
An infection is considered nosocomial if it first became apparent within how many hours or more after admission?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
72
Correct Answer
D. 72Explanation
Nosocomial infections are those that are acquired in a healthcare setting, such as hospitals or nursing homes. These infections can be caused by various microorganisms and can occur due to factors like weakened immune systems, invasive procedures, or improper hygiene practices. The given answer, 72 hours, indicates that an infection is considered nosocomial if it first becomes apparent after 72 hours or more after admission to a healthcare facility. This time frame allows for the differentiation between infections that were present upon admission and those that were acquired during the hospital stay.Rate this question:
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- 13.
All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and ?
- A.
DD 2807
- B.
DD 2808
- C.
DD 2808-1
- D.
DD 2909
Correct Answer
B. DD 2808Explanation
All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and DD 2808. The DD 2808 is a form used for the Report of Medical Examination, which includes information about the individual's medical history, physical examination findings, and any medical conditions that may affect their ability to perform certain tasks. Therefore, it is necessary to include the DD 2808 form in a complete physical exam to ensure a thorough assessment of the individual's health status.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Who has teh title " The dental Officer, U.S. Marine Corps, " and is the staff ddental officer to the Commandant of the Marine Corps.
- A.
Director of Dental Programs
- B.
Force Dental Officer
- C.
FMF Dental Officer
- D.
Director of Dental Services
Correct Answer
A. Director of Dental ProgramsExplanation
The correct answer is "Director of Dental Programs." This individual holds the title "The dental Officer, U.S. Marine Corps" and serves as the staff dental officer to the Commandant of the Marine Corps. The title "Director of Dental Programs" aligns with the responsibilities and position described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In preventing radiation exposure, what is the most effective shielding material?
- A.
Lead
- B.
Wood
- C.
Iron
- D.
Concrete
Correct Answer
A. LeadExplanation
Lead is the most effective shielding material for preventing radiation exposure. Lead is a dense material that has a high atomic number, which means it can effectively absorb and block radiation. It is commonly used in medical facilities and nuclear power plants to shield against radiation. Wood, iron, and concrete are also used as shielding materials, but they are not as effective as lead in blocking radiation.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Of the following, which information can a CO release to the public or press without the patient's or patient's NOK consent?
- A.
Name
- B.
Age and Sex
- C.
Station
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
A CO can release all of the mentioned information (name, age and sex, station) to the public or press without the patient's or patient's NOK (Next of Kin) consent. This means that the CO is authorized to disclose the patient's identity, personal details, and the station they belong to without seeking permission from the patient or their NOK.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the most commonly used measurement of supply levels?
- A.
Numerical
- B.
Months of usage
- C.
Safety level
- D.
Operating level
Correct Answer
B. Months of usageExplanation
The most commonly used measurement of supply levels is "Months of usage". This measurement refers to the number of months that the current supply of a particular item is expected to last based on the average rate of consumption. It helps in determining when to reorder or replenish the supply to avoid shortages or disruptions in operations.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Item of packagin discrepancies attributalbe to the shipper should be reported using what form?
- A.
SF 364
- B.
SF 540
- C.
DD 1149
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. SF 364Explanation
The correct form to report packaging discrepancies attributable to the shipper is SF 364. This form is used to document and report any issues or discrepancies with packaging that can be attributed to the shipper. SF 540 and DD 1149 are not the correct forms for reporting packaging discrepancies.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the most common factor that influences the amount of drug to be given?
- A.
Age
- B.
Weight
- C.
Race
- D.
Sex
Correct Answer
A. AgeExplanation
The most common factor that influences the amount of drug to be given is age. This is because the metabolism and elimination of drugs can vary significantly depending on a person's age. Younger individuals may have faster drug metabolism, requiring higher doses, while older individuals may have slower metabolism and require lower doses. Age-related changes in organ function and body composition can also affect drug distribution and elimination. Therefore, considering a patient's age is crucial in determining the appropriate dosage of a drug.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In addition to the regular income tax you will have to pay on the money you withdrawal from TSP, you may also be subject to an early withdrawal penalty tax of how much?
- A.
1%
- B.
5%
- C.
8%
- D.
10%
Correct Answer
D. 10%Explanation
The correct answer is 10%. When withdrawing money from the TSP (Thrift Savings Plan), in addition to regular income tax, there is also a 10% early withdrawal penalty tax that may be imposed. This penalty is designed to discourage individuals from withdrawing money from their retirement accounts before reaching the eligible age of retirement.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What drug is used for shortterm treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers?
- A.
Cimetidine
- B.
Ranitidine
- C.
Antivort
- D.
Both A and B
Correct Answer
D. Both A and BExplanation
Both cimetidine and ranitidine are drugs that are used for the short-term treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers. They belong to a class of medications called H2 blockers, which work by reducing the production of stomach acid. By decreasing the amount of acid in the stomach, these drugs can help to heal and prevent the formation of ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A and B" as both cimetidine and ranitidine are used for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 22.
As a member of the uniformed services, what type of pay may you not elect to contribute to TSP?
- A.
Special Pay
- B.
Bonus Pay
- C.
Basic Allowance for Housing
- D.
Tax-exempt Pay
Correct Answer
C. Basic Allowance for HousingExplanation
Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) is a type of pay that covers housing expenses for members of the uniformed services. It is not eligible for contribution to the Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) because it is already provided to the service member to cover their housing costs. TSP contributions can only be made from other types of pay, such as special pay, bonus pay, and tax-exempt pay.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Who is reponsible for maintaing command retention statistics, monitoring attrition, and preparing reports?
- A.
CMC
- B.
CO
- C.
CTT
- D.
CCC
Correct Answer
D. CCCExplanation
The CCC (Command Career Counselor) is responsible for maintaining command retention statistics, monitoring attrition, and preparing reports. They are tasked with providing guidance and support to sailors in their career development, helping them make informed decisions about their future in the Navy. By tracking retention rates and analyzing attrition trends, the CCC can identify areas of concern and work towards implementing strategies to improve retention within the command. Their role is crucial in ensuring the Navy maintains a strong and motivated workforce.Rate this question:
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- 24.
On a Not Observed Evaluation, what block (s) must have enteries?
- A.
4-16
- B.
17-19
- C.
42-44
- D.
47
Correct Answer
A. 4-16Explanation
The block 4-16 must have entries on a Not Observed Evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What TSP fund is invested in a stock index fund that tracks the Standard & Poor's (S&P) 500 stock index?
- A.
C fund
- B.
I fund
- C.
L fund
- D.
S fund
Correct Answer
A. C fundExplanation
The C fund is invested in a stock index fund that tracks the Standard & Poor's (S&P) 500 stock index. This means that the C fund's investments mirror the performance of the S&P 500 index, which includes the top 500 publicly traded companies in the United States. By investing in the C fund, individuals can gain exposure to a diversified portfolio of large-cap U.S. stocks and potentially benefit from the overall performance of the stock market.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Of the following TSP funds, which can you safely contribute into without the risk of investment loss?
- A.
F fund
- B.
G fund
- C.
L fund
- D.
C fund
Correct Answer
B. G fundExplanation
The G fund is the correct answer because it is the only TSP fund that guarantees the principal and interest of the investment. This means that there is no risk of investment loss when contributing to the G fund. The F fund, L fund, and C fund do not provide this guarantee and are subject to market fluctuations and potential investment losses.Rate this question:
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- 27.
For personnel that have access to classified information, how often should refresher briefings be conducted?
- A.
Quarterly
- B.
Bi-Annually
- C.
Annually
- D.
Every 2 years
Correct Answer
C. AnnuallyExplanation
Refresher briefings should be conducted annually for personnel with access to classified information. This ensures that individuals stay updated on the latest protocols, procedures, and any changes in security measures. Conducting these briefings annually helps to reinforce the importance of handling classified information properly and mitigates the risk of any potential security breaches.Rate this question:
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- 28.
If you elect to being, stop or change your TSP contribution, what paper would you use?
- A.
TSP-U
- B.
TSP-U-1
- C.
TSP-U-2
- D.
TSP-U-3
Correct Answer
B. TSP-U-1Explanation
The correct answer is TSP-U-1. TSP-U-1 is the form that should be used if you want to begin, stop, or change your TSP contribution. This form is specifically designed for these purposes and ensures that the necessary information is provided to the Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) administrators.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Of the followin, who would not sit on a career development board?
- A.
CMC
- B.
ESO
- C.
CCC
- D.
CO
Correct Answer
D. COExplanation
The CO (Commanding Officer) would not sit on a career development board because they are the highest-ranking officer in a military unit and are responsible for overall command and decision-making. Career development boards typically consist of senior officers and enlisted personnel who review and make recommendations for career progression and development of individuals within the organization. The CO's role is to provide guidance and leadership to the unit as a whole, rather than being involved in individual career development decisions.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A sponsor shoud be assigned within how many days of the receipt of orders or the sponsor's request?
- A.
5
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
14
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
A sponsor should be assigned within 5 days of the receipt of orders or the sponsor's request. This suggests that there is a time constraint for assigning a sponsor, indicating the importance of prompt action in the sponsorship process.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What web-based application allows you to send your request for a sponsor directly to your new command via the internet?
- A.
Sponsor Coordinator Update
- B.
Sponsor Assignment Aid
- C.
Sponsor Selection Aid
- D.
Welcome Aboard Tool
Correct Answer
B. Sponsor Assignment AidExplanation
Sponsor Assignment Aid is a web-based application that allows users to send their request for a sponsor directly to their new command via the internet. This application assists in assigning sponsors to individuals and facilitates communication between the new command and the sponsor.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is th emax amount of E-6s a CO may CAP if the total number of enlisted billets is between 1,001-2,000 sailors?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
A commanding officer (CO) may CAP a maximum of 2 E-6s if the total number of enlisted billets is between 1,001-2,000 sailors. This means that out of all the enlisted positions available, the CO is allowed to assign two individuals with the rank of E-6. The CAP (Command Advancement Program) allows COs to promote deserving sailors to the next higher rank based on their performance and qualifications. In this scenario, the CO has the authority to promote up to 2 E-6s based on the available billets.Rate this question:
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- 33.
If a member is pregnant and cannot be measure for the PRT, what body assessment code would you annotate in block 20?
- A.
MW
- B.
N/A
- C.
XX
Correct Answer
C. XXExplanation
If a member is pregnant and cannot be measured for the PRT, the body assessment code that would be annotated in block 20 is XX. This code indicates that the member's body assessment is not applicable due to their pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What force protection condition (FPCON), is applied when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting againist personnel or facilities is likely?
- A.
Alpha
- B.
Bravo
- C.
Charlie
- D.
Delta
Correct Answer
C. CharlieExplanation
When an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating a likely terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities, the force protection condition (FPCON) that is applied is Charlie. This level indicates that there is a potential threat and enhanced security measures need to be implemented to protect personnel and facilities from potential terrorist attacks.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who is the principal Federal official for domestic incident management?
- A.
Secretary of Homeland Security
- B.
Secretary of Defense
- C.
Secretary of State
- D.
Central Intelligence Agency
Correct Answer
A. Secretary of Homeland SecurityExplanation
The principal Federal official for domestic incident management is the Secretary of Homeland Security. This individual is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the nation's efforts to respond to and recover from domestic incidents, such as natural disasters or terrorist attacks. The Secretary of Homeland Security plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the United States and its citizens during times of crisis.Rate this question:
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- 36.
If you are on a lookout watch, your reports over sound powered phones will go over what circuit to the bridge?
- A.
JA
- B.
JC
- C.
JZ
- D.
JL
Correct Answer
D. JLExplanation
If you are on a lookout watch, your reports over sound powered phones will go over the JL circuit to the bridge.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Who monitors all service, national and theater intelligence traffic and products to identify specific threate to navy Marine Corps personnel and resources?
- A.
NSA
- B.
MTAC
- C.
NCIS
- D.
CIA
Correct Answer
B. MTACExplanation
MTAC stands for Maritime Tactical Command and Control, which is responsible for monitoring all service, national, and theater intelligence traffic and products to identify specific threats to navy Marine Corps personnel and resources. This means that MTAC is the correct answer for the question.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What subsitute pennant is flown when the CO is absent?
- A.
1st
- B.
2nd
- C.
3rd
- D.
4th
Correct Answer
C. 3rdExplanation
The correct answer is 3rd. When the commanding officer (CO) is absent, the substitute pennant that is flown is the 3rd pennant. This indicates that someone else is temporarily in command in the CO's absence.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What General Order of a Sentry states, "To salute all officers and all colors and standards not caes?"
- A.
2
- B.
5
- C.
7
- D.
10
Correct Answer
D. 10Explanation
The General Order of a Sentry that states "To salute all officers and all colors and standards not caes" is the 10th General Order. This order emphasizes the importance of saluting officers and showing respect to all colors and standards. By following this order, a sentry demonstrates their discipline and adherence to military protocol.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What type of actions are considered to violate the Navy's fraternization policy?
- A.
Dating
- B.
Shared living accommodations
- C.
Private business partnerships
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The Navy's fraternization policy prohibits dating, shared living accommodations, and private business partnerships between certain ranks or positions within the Navy. These actions are considered to violate the policy because they can create conflicts of interest, favoritism, or the perception of impropriety. By including all of the options mentioned, the answer accurately reflects the comprehensive nature of the Navy's fraternization policy and the types of actions that are prohibited.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When talking on an intercom, what do you look for to assume that the line is clear for your message?
- A.
A blinking red light
- B.
A steady red light
- C.
A blinking green light
- D.
A steady green light
Correct Answer
B. A steady red lightExplanation
A steady red light indicates that the line is clear for your message when talking on an intercom. This is because a steady red light typically signifies that the intercom is in use or currently connected to another party. Therefore, when the light is steady, it suggests that the line is not busy or occupied, allowing you to proceed with your message without interruption.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What battle during WWII was fought entirely from aircraft launched from US and Japanese carriers?
- A.
Battle of Coral Sea
- B.
Battle of Midway
- C.
Battle of the Philippine Sea
- D.
Battle of Guadalcanal
Correct Answer
A. Battle of Coral SeaExplanation
The Battle of Coral Sea was fought entirely from aircraft launched from US and Japanese carriers. This battle, which took place in May 1942, was a significant turning point in the Pacific theater of World War II. It was the first naval battle in history where the opposing fleets never came into direct contact, as the entire engagement was conducted by aircraft. The battle resulted in a strategic victory for the Allies, as they were able to halt the Japanese advance towards Australia.Rate this question:
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- 43.
In an enlisted E1-E6 seabag, how many cotton/nylon, black socks should there be?
- A.
4
- B.
5
- C.
6
- D.
7
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
In an enlisted E1-E6 seabag, there should be 6 cotton/nylon, black socks.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Service members, E4 and below, will not be approved for overseas orders if their debt to Income Ratio exceeds what %?
- A.
30
- B.
25
- C.
20
- D.
15
Correct Answer
A. 30Explanation
Service members, E4 and below, will not be approved for overseas orders if their debt to income ratio exceeds 30%. This means that if their debt payments (such as credit card bills, loans, etc.) exceed 30% of their income, they will not be allowed to take overseas assignments. This is likely because a high debt to income ratio can indicate financial instability and the military wants to ensure that their service members are financially responsible and able to meet their financial obligations while stationed overseas.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps are appointed each year by the Sec. of the Navy to attend the Naval Academy in Annapolis?
- A.
80
- B.
85
- C.
90
- D.
95
Correct Answer
B. 85Explanation
The correct answer is 85. This suggests that each year, the Secretary of the Navy appoints 85 enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps to attend the Naval Academy in Annapolis.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How long must a service member have left at a command upon completion of command financial specialist training to be designated as a command CSF?
- A.
6 months
- B.
12 months
- C.
18 months
- D.
24 months
Correct Answer
B. 12 monthsExplanation
To be designated as a command CSF (Command Financial Specialist), a service member must have at least 12 months left at a command upon completion of command financial specialist training. This is likely because it takes time for the service member to apply their newly acquired skills and knowledge in a practical setting and provide effective financial counseling and guidance to their fellow service members. Having a minimum of 12 months left at the command ensures that they have sufficient time to fulfill their duties and responsibilities as a command CSF.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the most commone cause of dental caries?
- A.
Bacterial plaque
- B.
Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitus (NUG)
- C.
Acute pulpitis
- D.
Periodontitis
Correct Answer
A. Bacterial plaqueExplanation
Bacterial plaque is the most common cause of dental caries. Plaque is a sticky film that forms on teeth and contains bacteria. These bacteria produce acids that erode the tooth enamel, leading to cavities. Regular brushing and flossing help remove plaque, preventing the development of dental caries. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG), Acute pulpitis, and Periodontitis are all dental conditions that can result from untreated dental caries but are not the primary cause.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How many baby teeth are there?
- A.
20
- B.
23
- C.
25
- D.
32
Correct Answer
A. 20Explanation
There are 20 baby teeth in total. Baby teeth, also known as primary teeth, are the first set of teeth that erupt in a child's mouth. They begin to appear around 6 months of age and are usually fully developed by the age of 3. These primary teeth eventually fall out to make way for the permanent teeth.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who was the only Navy Admiral to be appointed "Admiral of the Navy", by authorization of the President?
- A.
John Paul Jones
- B.
George Dewey
- C.
David Glasgow Farragut
- D.
Chester W. Nimitz
Correct Answer
B. George DeweyExplanation
George Dewey was the only Navy Admiral to be appointed "Admiral of the Navy" by the President. This title was created specifically for him in 1903, as a special honor for his exceptional service during the Spanish-American War. Dewey's victory at the Battle of Manila Bay in 1898 was a significant turning point in the war, and his leadership and strategic skills were highly praised. As a result, President Theodore Roosevelt authorized the appointment of Dewey as "Admiral of the Navy," making him the highest-ranking officer in the United States Navy's history.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the most frequent cause of sever tooth pain?
- A.
ANUG
- B.
Bacterial plaque
- C.
Acute pulpitis
- D.
Periodontitis
Correct Answer
C. Acute pulpitisExplanation
Acute pulpitis is the most frequent cause of severe tooth pain. Acute pulpitis refers to inflammation of the dental pulp, which is the innermost part of the tooth containing nerves and blood vessels. When the pulp becomes inflamed, it can cause intense pain. This can occur due to factors such as dental decay, trauma, or infection. Bacterial plaque, ANUG (Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis), and periodontitis can also cause tooth pain, but acute pulpitis is the most common cause.Rate this question:
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