Hm1 Advancement Study (the Ultimate Quiz)

100 Questions
Hm1 Advancement Study (the Ultimate Quiz)

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time frame, regardless of the quantity requested or issued?
    • A. 

      Frequency of Demand

    • B. 

      Low Limit

    • C. 

      Average Endurance Level

    • D. 

      Demand

  • 2. 
    The blood of the average man contains approximately how many red blood cells per cubic millimeter?
    • A. 

      5.0 million

    • B. 

      4.0 million

    • C. 

      4.5 million

    • D. 

      3.5 million

  • 3. 
    An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of what infection
    • A. 

      Meningitis

    • B. 

      Appendicitis

    • C. 

      Pneumonia

    • D. 

      Influenza

  • 4. 
    What nerve controls the diaphram?
    • A. 

      Vagus Nerve

    • B. 

      Intercostal nerve

    • C. 

      Phrenic Nerve

    • D. 

      Diaphratic Nerve

  • 5. 
    What is the name of the largest white blood cell that destroys bacteria, foreign particles and protoza?
    • A. 

      Monocyte

    • B. 

      Basophil

    • C. 

      Eosinphil

    • D. 

      Lymphocyte

  • 6. 
    When treating a victim for heat stroke, you should discontinue cooling when the rectal temp. reaches how many degrees Fahrenheit?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      101

    • C. 

      102

    • D. 

      103

  • 7. 
    What type of CBR agent leaves symptoms of lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching and headache?
    • A. 

      Nerve agent

    • B. 

      Blood agent

    • C. 

      Choking agent

    • D. 

      Vesicants

  • 8. 
    The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of whom?
    • A. 

      SMO

    • B. 

      CO

    • C. 

      DCA

    • D. 

      SupO

  • 9. 
    When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous interrupted simple sutures placed how far apart?
    • A. 

      1/16 inch

    • B. 

      1/8 inch

    • C. 

      1/4 inch

    • D. 

      1/2 inch

  • 10. 
    Routine QA program-related documentation must be maintained in a secure location for a period of how many years before disposal?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 11. 
    The CO of the DENBN will designate a dental officer and how many dental technicians?
    • A. 

      26

    • B. 

      27

    • C. 

      28

    • D. 

      29

  • 12. 
    An infection is considered nosocomial if it first became apparent within how many hours or more after admission?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 13. 
    All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and ?
    • A. 

      DD 2807

    • B. 

      DD 2808

    • C. 

      DD 2808-1

    • D. 

      DD 2909

  • 14. 
    Who has teh title " The dental Officer, U.S. Marine Corps, " and is the staff ddental officer to the Commandant of the Marine Corps.
    • A. 

      Director of Dental Programs

    • B. 

      Force Dental Officer

    • C. 

      FMF Dental Officer

    • D. 

      Director of Dental Services

  • 15. 
    In preventing radiation exposure, what is the most effective shielding material?
    • A. 

      Lead

    • B. 

      Wood

    • C. 

      Iron

    • D. 

      Concrete

  • 16. 
    Of the following, which information can a CO release to the public or press without the patient's or patient's NOK consent?
    • A. 

      Name

    • B. 

      Age and Sex

    • C. 

      Station

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 17. 
    What is the most commonly used measurement of supply levels?
    • A. 

      Numerical

    • B. 

      Months of usage

    • C. 

      Safety level

    • D. 

      Operating level

  • 18. 
    Item of packagin discrepancies attributalbe to the shipper should be reported using what form?
    • A. 

      SF 364

    • B. 

      SF 540

    • C. 

      DD 1149

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 19. 
    What is the most common factor that influences the amount of drug to be given?
    • A. 

      Age

    • B. 

      Weight

    • C. 

      Race

    • D. 

      Sex

  • 20. 
    In addition to the regular income tax you will have to pay on the money you withdrawal from TSP, you may also be subject to an early withdrawal penalty tax of how much?
    • A. 

      1%

    • B. 

      5%

    • C. 

      8%

    • D. 

      10%

  • 21. 
    What drug is used for shortterm treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers?
    • A. 

      Cimetidine

    • B. 

      Ranitidine

    • C. 

      Antivort

    • D. 

      Both A and B

  • 22. 
    As a member of the uniformed services, what type of pay may you not elect to contribute to TSP?
    • A. 

      Special Pay

    • B. 

      Bonus Pay

    • C. 

      Basic Allowance for Housing

    • D. 

      Tax-exempt Pay

  • 23. 
    Who is reponsible for maintaing command retention statistics, monitoring attrition, and preparing reports?
    • A. 

      CMC

    • B. 

      CO

    • C. 

      CTT

    • D. 

      CCC

  • 24. 
    On a Not Observed Evaluation, what block (s) must have enteries?
    • A. 

      4-16

    • B. 

      17-19

    • C. 

      42-44

    • D. 

      47

  • 25. 
    What TSP fund is invested in a stock index fund that tracks the Standard & Poor's (S&P) 500 stock index?
    • A. 

      C fund

    • B. 

      I fund

    • C. 

      L fund

    • D. 

      S fund

  • 26. 
    Of the following TSP funds, which can you safely contribute into without the risk of investment loss?
    • A. 

      F fund

    • B. 

      G fund

    • C. 

      L fund

    • D. 

      C fund

  • 27. 
    For personnel that have access to classified information, how often should refresher briefings be conducted?
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Bi-Annually

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Every 2 years

  • 28. 
    If you elect to being, stop or change your TSP contribution, what paper would you use?
    • A. 

      TSP-U

    • B. 

      TSP-U-1

    • C. 

      TSP-U-2

    • D. 

      TSP-U-3

  • 29. 
    Of the followin, who would not sit on a career development board?
    • A. 

      CMC

    • B. 

      ESO

    • C. 

      CCC

    • D. 

      CO

  • 30. 
    A  sponsor shoud be assigned within how many days of the receipt of orders or the sponsor's request?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      14

  • 31. 
    What web-based application allows you to send your request for a sponsor directly to your new command via the internet?
    • A. 

      Sponsor Coordinator Update

    • B. 

      Sponsor Assignment Aid

    • C. 

      Sponsor Selection Aid

    • D. 

      Welcome Aboard Tool

  • 32. 
    What is th emax amount of E-6s a CO may CAP if the total number of enlisted billets is between 1,001-2,000 sailors?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 33. 
    If a member is pregnant and cannot be measure for the PRT, what body assessment code would you annotate in block 20?
    • A. 

      MW

    • B. 

      N/A

    • C. 

      XX

  • 34. 
    What force protection condition (FPCON), is applied when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting againist personnel or facilities is likely?
    • A. 

      Alpha

    • B. 

      Bravo

    • C. 

      Charlie

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 35. 
    Who is the principal Federal official for domestic incident management?
    • A. 

      Secretary of Homeland Security

    • B. 

      Secretary of Defense

    • C. 

      Secretary of State

    • D. 

      Central Intelligence Agency

  • 36. 
    If you are on a lookout watch, your reports over sound powered phones will go over what circuit to the bridge?
    • A. 

      JA

    • B. 

      JC

    • C. 

      JZ

    • D. 

      JL

  • 37. 
    Who monitors all service, national and theater intelligence traffic and products to identify specific threate to navy Marine Corps personnel and resources?
    • A. 

      NSA

    • B. 

      MTAC

    • C. 

      NCIS

    • D. 

      CIA

  • 38. 
    What subsitute pennant is flown when the CO is absent?
    • A. 

      1st

    • B. 

      2nd

    • C. 

      3rd

    • D. 

      4th

  • 39. 
    What General Order of a Sentry states, "To salute all officers and all colors and standards not caes?"
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 40. 
    What type of actions are considered to violate the Navy's fraternization policy?
    • A. 

      Dating

    • B. 

      Shared living accommodations

    • C. 

      Private business partnerships

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 41. 
    When talking on an intercom, what do you look for to assume that the line is clear for your message?
    • A. 

      A blinking red light

    • B. 

      A steady red light

    • C. 

      A blinking green light

    • D. 

      A steady green light

  • 42. 
    What battle during WWII was fought entirely from aircraft launched from US and Japanese carriers?
    • A. 

      Battle of Coral Sea

    • B. 

      Battle of Midway

    • C. 

      Battle of the Philippine Sea

    • D. 

      Battle of Guadalcanal

  • 43. 
    In an enlisted E1-E6 seabag, how many cotton/nylon, black socks should there be?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 44. 
    Service members, E4 and below, will not be approved for overseas orders if their debt to Income Ratio exceeds what %?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      15

  • 45. 
    How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps are appointed each year by the Sec. of the Navy to attend the Naval Academy in Annapolis?
    • A. 

      80

    • B. 

      85

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      95

  • 46. 
    How long must a service member have left at a command upon completion of command financial specialist training to be designated as a command CSF?
    • A. 

      6 months

    • B. 

      12 months

    • C. 

      18 months

    • D. 

      24 months

  • 47. 
    What is the most commone cause of dental caries?
    • A. 

      Bacterial plaque

    • B. 

      Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitus (NUG)

    • C. 

      Acute pulpitis

    • D. 

      Periodontitis

  • 48. 
    How many baby teeth are there?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      23

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      32

  • 49. 
    Who was the only Navy Admiral to be appointed "Admiral of the Navy", by authorization of the President?
    • A. 

      John Paul Jones

    • B. 

      George Dewey

    • C. 

      David Glasgow Farragut

    • D. 

      Chester W. Nimitz

  • 50. 
    What is the most frequent cause of sever tooth pain?
    • A. 

      ANUG

    • B. 

      Bacterial plaque

    • C. 

      Acute pulpitis

    • D. 

      Periodontitis

  • 51. 
    What type of pest is not directly a vector of pathogenic organisms and is among the most adaptable?
    • A. 

      Mosquitoes

    • B. 

      Rats

    • C. 

      Cockroach

    • D. 

      Bacteria

  • 52. 
    What is the MAX amount of atropine that can be adminstered by non-medical personnel?
    • A. 

      2 mg

    • B. 

      4 mg

    • C. 

      6 mg

    • D. 

      No max amount

  • 53. 
    What is the max amount of amyl nitrate that may be given to a blood gas victim?
    • A. 

      6 ampules

    • B. 

      8 ampules

    • C. 

      10 ampules

    • D. 

      No limit

  • 54. 
    The normal hematocrit for females is approximately?
    • A. 

      40%-48%

    • B. 

      50%-58%

    • C. 

      60%-80%

    • D. 

      70%-78%

  • 55. 
    Which of the following bacteria is present in an individual with Gonorrhea?
    • A. 

      Gram negative bacilli

    • B. 

      Gram positive bacilli

    • C. 

      Gram negative cocci

    • D. 

      Gram positive cocci

  • 56. 
    Flash blindness from a nuclear explosing normal persist for?
    • A. 

      5-15minutes

    • B. 

      20-30 minutes

    • C. 

      30-45 minutes

    • D. 

      45-60 minutes

  • 57. 
    What is given to a nerve gas casualty for the regeneration of blocked cholinesterase?
    • A. 

      2-PAM Chloride

    • B. 

      Sodium Thiosulfate

    • C. 

      Copper Sulfate

    • D. 

      Oxygen

  • 58. 
    What rodent prefers fruits & vegetables for food?
    • A. 

      Norway rat

    • B. 

      Black Roof rat

    • C. 

      Brown Roof rat

    • D. 

      House mouse

  • 59. 
    What is the most desirable method of cleaning the operating room?
    • A. 

      Wet vacuum

    • B. 

      Mopping

    • C. 

      Dusting with antiseptic germicide

    • D. 

      Both A & B

  • 60. 
    How many months supply of forms shall be maintain by all ships?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      12

  • 61. 
    What is used as the chemoprophylaxis in the prevention of Tuberculosis?
    • A. 

      Gamma Globulin

    • B. 

      Isoniazid (INH)

    • C. 

      Chloroquine - Primaquine

    • D. 

      Chest X-ray

  • 62. 
    What type of malaria is only found in West Africa?
    • A. 

      P. Vivax

    • B. 

      P. Falciparum

    • C. 

      Ovale

    • D. 

      Malignant Tertian

  • 63. 
    The Health record is closed except on which of the following occasions?
    • A. 

      Release to inactive duty

    • B. 

      M.I.A.

    • C. 

      Discharge

    • D. 

      Commissioning of an enlisted member

  • 64. 
    What form shall be prepared and filled out on the left side of the health record to display lab reports?
    • A. 

      SF 519

    • B. 

      SF 545

    • C. 

      OPNAV 5211/9

    • D. 

      NAVMED 6150/2

  • 65. 
    Sutures in the face should remain in place for how many days?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 66. 
    A loss of how many pounds per week is the medically acceptable limit for weight reduction?
    • A. 

      1 lbs

    • B. 

      1-2 lbs

    • C. 

      2-3 lbs

    • D. 

      3-4 lbs

  • 67. 
    What water-soluble vitamin is used in the treatment of periphereal neuritis?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      E

    • C. 

      K

    • D. 

      B

  • 68. 
    An important step in the control of communicable disease is the expeditious preparation and submission of what?
    • A. 

      Personnel Casualty Report

    • B. 

      Food Inspection Report

    • C. 

      Medical Event Report

    • D. 

      Communicable Disease Report

  • 69. 
    What establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply departments and activities?
    • A. 

      NAVSUP P-409

    • B. 

      NAVSUP P-437

    • C. 

      NAVSUP P-485

    • D. 

      NAVSUP P-400

  • 70. 
    Any member of the armed forces who, without authority fails to go to his or her appointed place of duty at the time prescribed can be charged under what UCMJ article?
    • A. 

      13

    • B. 

      37

    • C. 

      86

    • D. 

      102

  • 71. 
    What part of the DOD Prescription, DD 1289,lists the names and quantities of the ingredients to be used and must be checked carefully for spelling errors?
    • A. 

      Superscription

    • B. 

      Inscription

    • C. 

      Subscription

    • D. 

      Signa

  • 72. 
    What schedule of drugs includes cocaine, heroine, and marijuana?
    • A. 

      Schedule I

    • B. 

      Schedule III

    • C. 

      Schedule IV

    • D. 

      Schedule V

  • 73. 
    What form is used to give your detailer information on where you would like to be stationed?
    • A. 

      NAVPERS 1306/63

    • B. 

      NAVPERS 1070/602W

    • C. 

      NAVPERS 1070/604

    • D. 

      NAVPERS 1070/605

  • 74. 
    How many permament teeth are there?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      23

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      32

  • 75. 
    When does dental development of the fetus begin?
    • A. 

      5th week of prenatal life

    • B. 

      8th week of prenatal life

    • C. 

      13th week of prenatal life

    • D. 

      3rd week of prenatal life

  • 76. 
    How many bones of the skull are there?
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      7

  • 77. 
    How many pints of saliva does a person produce daily?
    • A. 

      1 pint

    • B. 

      2 pints

    • C. 

      3 pints

    • D. 

      5 pints

  • 78. 
    Which of the publications below contain the Navy''s policy on Sexual harrassment?
    • A. 

      OPNAVINST 5354.1E

    • B. 

      U.S. Navy Regulations 1990

    • C. 

      OPNAVINST 5370.2C

    • D. 

      SECNAVINST 5300.26D

  • 79. 
    What pest ranks first in the importance among those that transmit disease to man?
    • A. 

      Mosquitoes

    • B. 

      Rats

    • C. 

      Cockroaches

    • D. 

      Bacteria

  • 80. 
    Maintains medical equipment, centralized acquistion, storing and stocks rotation, constructs medical supply assets and line items in support of HSS units based on specific mission needs:
    • A. 

      Medical Battalion

    • B. 

      CTRS

    • C. 

      Supply Company

    • D. 

      Medical Logistics Company

  • 81. 
    Which of the following pests prefer meat and fish?
    • A. 

      Black Roof rat

    • B. 

      Oriental cockroach

    • C. 

      Norway rat

    • D. 

      Bed bugs

  • 82. 
    What SSIC code deal with ordance?
    • A. 

      1000 series

    • B. 

      4000 series

    • C. 

      8000 series

    • D. 

      6000 series

  • 83. 
    Which shipping code lets shipper know that item will be damaged if it becomes frozen?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      F

    • C. 

      R

    • D. 

      W

  • 84. 
    Continued shift to the left with a falling total WBC count indicates?
    • A. 

      Progress toward recovery

    • B. 

      Decrease in immature neutrophilis

    • C. 

      Decrease in allergenic conditions

    • D. 

      Breakdown of body's defenses and poor prognosis

  • 85. 
    What instruction in the Navy pertains to disease alert reports?
    • A. 

      NAVMEDCOMINST 6220.2

    • B. 

      BUMEDINST 6220.3

    • C. 

      NAVMEDCOMINST 6230.1

    • D. 

      BUMEDINST 6250.13A

  • 86. 
    What is the most dependable and exonomical method of sterilization?
    • A. 

      Ethylene Oxide

    • B. 

      Chemical

    • C. 

      Steam Under pressure

    • D. 

      Dry Heat

  • 87. 
    Who has developed standards that addresses both the rights and responsibilities of patients?
    • A. 

      JCAHO

    • B. 

      NLN

    • C. 

      AMA

    • D. 

      AHA

  • 88. 
    Wha tis the handling code for controlled substances?
    • A. 

      P & W

    • B. 

      P & I

    • C. 

      Q & R

    • D. 

      D & G

  • 89. 
    What is used as a charge out control of the Military Health (Dental) treatment record?
    • A. 

      Optional form 24

    • B. 

      Blank 3x5 inch index card

    • C. 

      NAVMED 6150/7

    • D. 

      Either A or B is acceptable

  • 90. 
    Unless specifically requested by the NOK, remains will not be shipped to arrive at destination on?
    • A. 

      Veteran's Day

    • B. 

      Independence Day

    • C. 

      Armed Forces DAy

    • D. 

      Thanksgiving Day, New Years Day, 22-26 December

  • 91. 
    How many signed copies of the certificate of death (overseas) DD - 2064 must accompany the remains to another overseas area or a port of arrival in CONUS?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 92. 
    What is the most widely abused drug to date?
    • A. 

      Cannabis

    • B. 

      Alcohol

    • C. 

      Heroin

    • D. 

      Cocaine

  • 93. 
    The violen shaped marking is characterized in the identification of what?
    • A. 

      Scorpion

    • B. 

      Female black widow spider

    • C. 

      Brown recluse spider

    • D. 

      Centruriodes sculpturarus

  • 94. 
    What is the most serious type of epileptic seizure?
    • A. 

      Grand Mal

    • B. 

      Petit Mal

    • C. 

      Tepid Mal

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 95. 
    What stage of anesthesia is used for all operations?
    • A. 

      1st- Induction

    • B. 

      2nd - Excitement

    • C. 

      3rd - Operative

    • D. 

      4th Danger - Falling B.P.

  • 96. 
    What tmep should moist hot, soaks/dressings be when applied to an abcess for 40 min. 3x daily?
    • A. 

      100F

    • B. 

      105F

    • C. 

      110F

    • D. 

      120F

  • 97. 
    What is the max time food can be held if not kept below 40F or above 140F?
    • A. 

      1 hour

    • B. 

      2 hours

    • C. 

      3 hours

    • D. 

      4 hours

  • 98. 
    What is the max amount of time a sandwich may remain in the freezer?
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days

    • D. 

      60 days

  • 99. 
    What type of injury is caused by over stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon?
    • A. 

      Sprain

    • B. 

      Strain

    • C. 

      Dislocation

    • D. 

      Contusion

  • 100. 
    What class of frozen sandwich is produced in a commercial frozen food operation in which a central kitchen is designed specifially for mass-sandwich production?
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV