HM1 Advancement Study (The Ultimate Quiz)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What type of actions are considered to violate the Navy's fraternization policy?

    • Dating
    • Shared living accommodations
    • Private business partnerships
    • All of the above
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About This Quiz

When it comes to advancement exams some people have a hard time prepping for them. Are you in need of a Hm1 Advancement Study quiz to help you properly prepare for your tests? If so, then the quiz below is perfect for you, give it a try and see just how prepared you are and refresh your memory while you are at it.

HM1 Advancement Study (The Ultimate Quiz) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many permament teeth are there?

    • 20

    • 23

    • 25

    • 32

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    There are 32 permanent teeth in the adult human mouth. This includes 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars (including 4 wisdom teeth).

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  • 3. 

    What is the most widely abused drug to date?

    • Cannabis

    • Alcohol

    • Heroin

    • Cocaine

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol
    Explanation
    Alcohol is considered the most widely abused drug to date due to its legal status and widespread availability. It is socially accepted and commonly consumed, which increases the likelihood of abuse. Alcohol abuse can lead to various health issues, addiction, impaired judgment, and negative social consequences. Its accessibility and cultural acceptance contribute to its high abuse rate compared to other drugs like cannabis, heroin, and cocaine.

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  • 4. 

    Who has developed standards that addresses both the rights and responsibilities of patients?

    • JCAHO

    • NLN

    • AMA

    • AHA

    Correct Answer
    A. JCAHO
    Explanation
    JCAHO, also known as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, has developed standards that address both the rights and responsibilities of patients. The JCAHO is an independent, non-profit organization that sets the standards for healthcare organizations in the United States. They aim to improve the quality and safety of healthcare through their accreditation process. By developing standards that address the rights and responsibilities of patients, JCAHO ensures that healthcare organizations provide patient-centered care and respect the rights and dignity of individuals seeking medical treatment.

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  • 5. 

    Unless specifically requested by the NOK, remains will not be shipped to arrive at destination on?

    • Veteran's Day

    • Independence Day

    • Armed Forces DAy

    • Thanksgiving Day, New Years Day, 22-26 December

    Correct Answer
    A. Thanksgiving Day, New Years Day, 22-26 December
    Explanation
    Remains will not be shipped to arrive at the destination on Thanksgiving Day, New Years Day, and 22-26 December. This is likely because these days are national holidays in the United States, and shipping services may be limited or unavailable during these times. It is important to respect these holidays and make alternative arrangements for shipping remains if necessary.

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  • 6. 

    All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and ?

    • DD 2807

    • DD 2808

    • DD 2808-1

    • DD 2909

    Correct Answer
    A. DD 2808
    Explanation
    All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and DD 2808. The DD 2808 is a form used for the Report of Medical Examination, which includes information about the individual's medical history, physical examination findings, and any medical conditions that may affect their ability to perform certain tasks. Therefore, it is necessary to include the DD 2808 form in a complete physical exam to ensure a thorough assessment of the individual's health status.

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  • 7. 

    Of the following TSP funds, which can you safely contribute into without the risk of investment loss?

    • F fund

    • G fund

    • L fund

    • C fund

    Correct Answer
    A. G fund
    Explanation
    The G fund is the correct answer because it is the only TSP fund that guarantees the principal and interest of the investment. This means that there is no risk of investment loss when contributing to the G fund. The F fund, L fund, and C fund do not provide this guarantee and are subject to market fluctuations and potential investment losses.

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  • 8. 

    What is used as the chemoprophylaxis in the prevention of Tuberculosis?

    • Gamma Globulin

    • Isoniazid (INH)

    • Chloroquine - Primaquine

    • Chest X-ray

    Correct Answer
    A. Isoniazid (INH)
    Explanation
    Isoniazid (INH) is used as chemoprophylaxis in the prevention of Tuberculosis. INH is a medication that is effective in treating and preventing tuberculosis. It is often given to individuals who have been exposed to someone with active tuberculosis or who have a positive skin test for tuberculosis. INH works by killing the bacteria that cause tuberculosis and helps prevent the disease from developing in individuals who are at high risk. It is an important component of tuberculosis control programs worldwide.

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  • 9. 

    What pest ranks first in the importance among those that transmit disease to man?

    • Mosquitoes

    • Rats

    • Cockroaches

    • Bacteria

    Correct Answer
    A. Mosquitoes
    Explanation
    Mosquitoes are considered the most important pest in transmitting diseases to humans. They are known vectors for various diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, Zika virus, and West Nile virus. Mosquitoes are capable of transmitting these diseases through their bites, as they feed on the blood of infected individuals and then transmit the pathogens to healthy individuals. Their ability to transmit diseases to a large number of people, combined with their widespread distribution, makes mosquitoes the top-ranked pest in terms of disease transmission to humans.

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  • 10. 

    Maintains medical equipment, centralized acquistion, storing and stocks rotation, constructs medical supply assets and line items in support of HSS units based on specific mission needs:

    • Medical Battalion

    • CTRS

    • Supply Company

    • Medical Logistics Company

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical Logistics Company
    Explanation
    The Medical Logistics Company is responsible for maintaining medical equipment, acquiring and storing supplies, and ensuring that stocks are rotated properly. They also construct medical supply assets and line items based on the specific needs of the healthcare support system (HSS) units. This suggests that the Medical Logistics Company plays a crucial role in managing and providing medical resources for the HSS units.

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  • 11. 

    What is the most dependable and exonomical method of sterilization?

    • Ethylene Oxide

    • Chemical

    • Steam Under pressure

    • Dry Heat

    Correct Answer
    A. Steam Under pressure
    Explanation
    Steam under pressure is considered the most dependable and economical method of sterilization because it is able to penetrate and effectively kill microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and spores, in a relatively short period of time. The high temperature and pressure created by steam under pressure ensure that all areas of the sterilization chamber are reached, providing a thorough sterilization process. Additionally, steam under pressure is cost-effective as it does not require the use of expensive chemicals or gases.

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  • 12. 

    What type of injury is caused by over stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon?

    • Sprain

    • Strain

    • Dislocation

    • Contusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Strain
    Explanation
    A strain is an injury caused by overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon. When a muscle or tendon is stretched beyond its normal range of motion or is subjected to excessive force, it can result in a strain. This can happen during physical activities or sports that involve sudden movements, improper technique, or overexertion. Symptoms of a strain may include pain, swelling, limited range of motion, and muscle weakness. Treatment typically involves rest, ice, compression, and elevation, along with pain management and rehabilitation exercises.

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  • 13. 

    What drug is used for shortterm treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers?

    • Cimetidine

    • Ranitidine

    • Antivort

    • Both A and B

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A and B
    Explanation
    Both cimetidine and ranitidine are drugs that are used for the short-term treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers. They belong to a class of medications called H2 blockers, which work by reducing the production of stomach acid. By decreasing the amount of acid in the stomach, these drugs can help to heal and prevent the formation of ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A and B" as both cimetidine and ranitidine are used for this purpose.

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  • 14. 

    Who is reponsible for maintaing command retention statistics, monitoring attrition, and preparing reports?

    • CMC

    • CO

    • CTT

    • CCC

    Correct Answer
    A. CCC
    Explanation
    The CCC (Command Career Counselor) is responsible for maintaining command retention statistics, monitoring attrition, and preparing reports. They are tasked with providing guidance and support to sailors in their career development, helping them make informed decisions about their future in the Navy. By tracking retention rates and analyzing attrition trends, the CCC can identify areas of concern and work towards implementing strategies to improve retention within the command. Their role is crucial in ensuring the Navy maintains a strong and motivated workforce.

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  • 15. 

    What is used as a charge out control of the Military Health (Dental) treatment record?

    • Optional form 24

    • Blank 3x5 inch index card

    • NAVMED 6150/7

    • Either A or B is acceptable

    Correct Answer
    A. NAVMED 6150/7
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NAVMED 6150/7. This form is used as a charge out control of the Military Health (Dental) treatment record. It is specifically designed for dental treatment and serves as a record of the patient's dental history, treatments, and charges. This form helps to keep track of the patient's dental records and ensures accurate billing and accountability. Optional form 24 and a blank 3x5 inch index card are not specifically designed for dental treatment records and may not provide the necessary information and control needed for charge out purposes.

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  • 16. 

    What is the name of the largest white blood cell that destroys bacteria, foreign particles and protoza?

    • Monocyte

    • Basophil

    • Eosinphil

    • Lymphocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Monocyte
    Explanation
    Monocytes are the largest white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for engulfing and destroying bacteria, foreign particles, and protozoa through a process called phagocytosis. Monocytes are part of the innate immune response and are able to migrate to infected tissues where they differentiate into macrophages, enhancing their ability to eliminate pathogens.

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  • 17. 

    On a Not Observed Evaluation, what block (s) must have enteries?

    • 4-16

    • 17-19

    • 42-44

    • 47

    Correct Answer
    A. 4-16
    Explanation
    The block 4-16 must have entries on a Not Observed Evaluation.

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  • 18. 

    What force protection condition (FPCON), is applied when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting againist personnel or facilities is likely?

    • Alpha

    • Bravo

    • Charlie

    • Delta

    Correct Answer
    A. Charlie
    Explanation
    When an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating a likely terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities, the force protection condition (FPCON) that is applied is Charlie. This level indicates that there is a potential threat and enhanced security measures need to be implemented to protect personnel and facilities from potential terrorist attacks.

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  • 19. 

    An important step in the control of communicable disease is the expeditious preparation and submission of what?

    • Personnel Casualty Report

    • Food Inspection Report

    • Medical Event Report

    • Communicable Disease Report

    Correct Answer
    A. Communicable Disease Report
    Explanation
    An important step in the control of communicable disease is the expeditious preparation and submission of a communicable disease report. This report provides crucial information about the disease, including its spread, symptoms, and affected individuals. It helps public health authorities to track and monitor the disease, implement necessary control measures, and prevent further transmission. It also aids in identifying potential outbreaks and implementing appropriate interventions to protect public health.

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  • 20. 

    What type of CBR agent leaves symptoms of lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching and headache?

    • Nerve agent

    • Blood agent

    • Choking agent

    • Vesicants

    Correct Answer
    A. Vesicants
    Explanation
    Vesicants are chemical agents that cause blistering and severe irritation to the skin, eyes, and respiratory system. The symptoms mentioned in the question, such as lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching, and headache, are all consistent with the effects of vesicants. These agents can cause blistering of the skin, damage to the eyes, and respiratory distress. Examples of vesicants include sulfur mustard and Lewisite.

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  • 21. 

    What is the most serious type of epileptic seizure?

    • Grand Mal

    • Petit Mal

    • Tepid Mal

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Grand Mal
    Explanation
    The most serious type of epileptic seizure is a Grand Mal seizure. This type of seizure involves a loss of consciousness, violent muscle contractions, and can last for several minutes. It is characterized by the person falling to the ground, experiencing convulsions, and potentially losing control of their bladder or bowels. Grand Mal seizures can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention. Petit Mal seizures, on the other hand, are milder and involve a brief loss of consciousness without convulsions. Tepid Mal is not a recognized term in relation to epileptic seizures.

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  • 22. 

    What is the most commone cause of dental caries?

    • Bacterial plaque

    • Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitus (NUG)

    • Acute pulpitis

    • Periodontitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial plaque
    Explanation
    Bacterial plaque is the most common cause of dental caries. Plaque is a sticky film that forms on teeth and contains bacteria. These bacteria produce acids that erode the tooth enamel, leading to cavities. Regular brushing and flossing help remove plaque, preventing the development of dental caries. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG), Acute pulpitis, and Periodontitis are all dental conditions that can result from untreated dental caries but are not the primary cause.

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  • 23. 

    What type of pest is not directly a vector of pathogenic organisms and is among the most adaptable?

    • Mosquitoes

    • Rats

    • Cockroach

    • Bacteria

    Correct Answer
    A. Cockroach
    Explanation
    Cockroaches are not directly vectors of pathogenic organisms, meaning they do not transmit diseases directly to humans. However, they are among the most adaptable pests, able to survive in various environments and feed on a wide range of food sources. While they may not directly carry diseases, cockroaches can indirectly contribute to the spread of pathogens by contaminating food and surfaces with their feces and body parts, making them a nuisance and potential health hazard.

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  • 24. 

    The normal hematocrit for females is approximately?

    • 40%-48%

    • 50%-58%

    • 60%-80%

    • 70%-78%

    Correct Answer
    A. 40%-48%
    Explanation
    The normal hematocrit for females is approximately 40%-48%. Hematocrit refers to the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. This range is considered normal for females and indicates the proportion of red blood cells in their blood. Hematocrit levels outside of this range may suggest certain medical conditions such as anemia or dehydration.

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  • 25. 

    The Health record is closed except on which of the following occasions?

    • Release to inactive duty

    • M.I.A.

    • Discharge

    • Commissioning of an enlisted member

    Correct Answer
    A. Commissioning of an enlisted member
    Explanation
    The health record is closed except when an enlisted member is commissioned. This means that when a member of the military is promoted from enlisted rank to an officer rank, their health record is closed. This could be because their medical needs and responsibilities may change significantly after they become an officer, and a new health record may need to be created to reflect their new role and requirements.

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  • 26. 

    Continued shift to the left with a falling total WBC count indicates?

    • Progress toward recovery

    • Decrease in immature neutrophilis

    • Decrease in allergenic conditions

    • Breakdown of body's defenses and poor prognosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Breakdown of body's defenses and poor prognosis
    Explanation
    A continued shift to the left with a falling total WBC count indicates a breakdown of the body's defenses and poor prognosis. The term "shift to the left" refers to an increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood, which is usually a sign of an ongoing infection or inflammation. A falling total WBC count suggests that the body's immune system is unable to produce enough white blood cells to fight off the infection or illness. This combination of factors indicates a weakening of the body's defenses and a poor outlook for recovery.

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  • 27. 

    An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of what infection

    • Meningitis

    • Appendicitis

    • Pneumonia

    • Influenza

    Correct Answer
    A. Appendicitis
    Explanation
    An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, a small pouch-like organ attached to the large intestine. When the appendix becomes infected, the body's immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the infection. This leads to an elevated white blood cell count, which is typically observed in cases of appendicitis. Meningitis, pneumonia, and influenza may also cause an increase in white blood cell count, but the specific range mentioned in the question is more indicative of appendicitis.

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  • 28. 

    The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of whom?

    • SMO

    • CO

    • DCA

    • SupO

    Correct Answer
    A. DCA
    Explanation
    The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of the DCA. The DCA, or Damage Control Assistant, is responsible for managing and maintaining the ship's damage control equipment and supplies. It is important to keep the supply cabinets locked to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the decontamination supplies. By entrusting the keys to the DCA, they can control who has access to the cabinets and ensure the proper handling and use of the supplies.

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  • 29. 

    What is th emax amount of E-6s a CO may CAP if the total number of enlisted billets is between 1,001-2,000 sailors?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A commanding officer (CO) may CAP a maximum of 2 E-6s if the total number of enlisted billets is between 1,001-2,000 sailors. This means that out of all the enlisted positions available, the CO is allowed to assign two individuals with the rank of E-6. The CAP (Command Advancement Program) allows COs to promote deserving sailors to the next higher rank based on their performance and qualifications. In this scenario, the CO has the authority to promote up to 2 E-6s based on the available billets.

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  • 30. 

    How many baby teeth are there?

    • 20

    • 23

    • 25

    • 32

    Correct Answer
    A. 20
    Explanation
    There are 20 baby teeth in total. Baby teeth, also known as primary teeth, are the first set of teeth that erupt in a child's mouth. They begin to appear around 6 months of age and are usually fully developed by the age of 3. These primary teeth eventually fall out to make way for the permanent teeth.

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  • 31. 

    What is the most frequent cause of sever tooth pain?

    • ANUG

    • Bacterial plaque

    • Acute pulpitis

    • Periodontitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute pulpitis
    Explanation
    Acute pulpitis is the most frequent cause of severe tooth pain. Acute pulpitis refers to inflammation of the dental pulp, which is the innermost part of the tooth containing nerves and blood vessels. When the pulp becomes inflamed, it can cause intense pain. This can occur due to factors such as dental decay, trauma, or infection. Bacterial plaque, ANUG (Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis), and periodontitis can also cause tooth pain, but acute pulpitis is the most common cause.

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  • 32. 

    Flash blindness from a nuclear explosing normal persist for?

    • 5-15minutes

    • 20-30 minutes

    • 30-45 minutes

    • 45-60 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 20-30 minutes
    Explanation
    Flash blindness from a nuclear explosion can cause temporary vision loss due to the intense light emitted during the explosion. This phenomenon occurs when the bright light overwhelms the retina, causing a temporary disruption in vision. The duration of flash blindness can vary depending on the intensity of the light exposure. In the case of a nuclear explosion, the flash blindness typically lasts for about 20-30 minutes before the vision gradually returns to normal.

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  • 33. 

    The violen shaped marking is characterized in the identification of what?

    • Scorpion

    • Female black widow spider

    • Brown recluse spider

    • Centruriodes sculpturarus

    Correct Answer
    A. Brown recluse spider
    Explanation
    The violin-shaped marking is a characteristic feature of the brown recluse spider. This marking, also known as a "fiddleback" or "violin" pattern, is found on the cephalothorax (the front part of the spider's body). It consists of a dark brown or black marking that resembles the shape of a violin, with the neck of the violin pointing towards the spider's abdomen. This marking helps in identifying the brown recluse spider, which is known for its venomous bite and is found in certain regions of the United States.

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  • 34. 

    In addition to the regular income tax you will have to pay on the money you withdrawal from TSP, you may also be subject to an early withdrawal penalty tax of how much?

    • 1%

    • 5%

    • 8%

    • 10%

    Correct Answer
    A. 10%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10%. When withdrawing money from the TSP (Thrift Savings Plan), in addition to regular income tax, there is also a 10% early withdrawal penalty tax that may be imposed. This penalty is designed to discourage individuals from withdrawing money from their retirement accounts before reaching the eligible age of retirement.

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  • 35. 

    What establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply departments and activities?

    • NAVSUP P-409

    • NAVSUP P-437

    • NAVSUP P-485

    • NAVSUP P-400

    Correct Answer
    A. NAVSUP P-485
    Explanation
    NAVSUP P-485 establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply departments and activities. This publication provides guidance on supply chain management, inventory control, procurement, and other logistical functions for naval supply operations at sea. It outlines the procedures and responsibilities for ensuring the availability and accountability of supplies and equipment onboard Navy vessels. By following the guidelines outlined in NAVSUP P-485, afloat supply departments and activities can effectively manage their resources and support the mission requirements of the Navy.

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  • 36. 

    What subsitute pennant is flown when the CO is absent?

    • 1st

    • 2nd

    • 3rd

    • 4th

    Correct Answer
    A. 3rd
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3rd. When the commanding officer (CO) is absent, the substitute pennant that is flown is the 3rd pennant. This indicates that someone else is temporarily in command in the CO's absence.

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  • 37. 

    When talking on an intercom, what do you look for to assume that the line is clear for your message?

    • A blinking red light

    • A steady red light

    • A blinking green light

    • A steady green light

    Correct Answer
    A. A steady red light
    Explanation
    A steady red light indicates that the line is clear for your message when talking on an intercom. This is because a steady red light typically signifies that the intercom is in use or currently connected to another party. Therefore, when the light is steady, it suggests that the line is not busy or occupied, allowing you to proceed with your message without interruption.

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  • 38. 

    How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps are appointed each year by the Sec. of the Navy to attend the Naval Academy in Annapolis?

    • 80

    • 85

    • 90

    • 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 85
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 85. This suggests that each year, the Secretary of the Navy appoints 85 enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps to attend the Naval Academy in Annapolis.

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  • 39. 

    What class of frozen sandwich is produced in a commercial frozen food operation in which a central kitchen is designed specifially for mass-sandwich production?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Class III frozen sandwiches are produced in a commercial frozen food operation with a central kitchen designed specifically for mass-sandwich production. This means that the operation is set up to produce a large quantity of sandwiches efficiently and on a large scale. Class III sandwiches are likely to be produced in a factory-like setting, where ingredients are prepared and assembled in a streamlined process to meet high demand.

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  • 40. 

    What is the max amount of amyl nitrate that may be given to a blood gas victim?

    • 6 ampules

    • 8 ampules

    • 10 ampules

    • No limit

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 ampules
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8 ampules. This suggests that there is a maximum amount of amyl nitrate that can be given to a blood gas victim, and that limit is 8 ampules.

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  • 41. 

    Sutures in the face should remain in place for how many days?

    • 4

    • 6

    • 7

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Sutures in the face should remain in place for 4 days. This is because the face is a highly sensitive area and heals faster compared to other parts of the body. Removing the sutures too early can lead to wound reopening or scarring, while leaving them in for too long can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, a shorter duration of 4 days is recommended for facial sutures to promote proper healing.

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  • 42. 

    How many bones of the skull are there?

    • 28

    • 12

    • 8

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 8
    Explanation
    The skull is made up of 22 bones, 8 of which are cranial bones and 14 are facial bones. The cranial bones include the frontal bone, parietal bones, temporal bones, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, and ethmoid bone. The facial bones include the nasal bones, maxillae, zygomatic bones, mandible, lacrimal bones, palatine bones, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer. Therefore, the correct answer is 8.

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  • 43. 

    In preventing radiation exposure, what is the most effective shielding material?

    • Lead

    • Wood

    • Iron

    • Concrete

    Correct Answer
    A. Lead
    Explanation
    Lead is the most effective shielding material for preventing radiation exposure. Lead is a dense material that has a high atomic number, which means it can effectively absorb and block radiation. It is commonly used in medical facilities and nuclear power plants to shield against radiation. Wood, iron, and concrete are also used as shielding materials, but they are not as effective as lead in blocking radiation.

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  • 44. 

    What is given to a nerve gas casualty for the regeneration of blocked cholinesterase?

    • 2-PAM Chloride

    • Sodium Thiosulfate

    • Copper Sulfate

    • Oxygen

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-PAM Chloride
    Explanation
    2-PAM Chloride is given to a nerve gas casualty for the regeneration of blocked cholinesterase. Cholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is essential for nerve signal transmission. Nerve gases inhibit the activity of cholinesterase, leading to an accumulation of acetylcholine and overstimulation of the nervous system. 2-PAM Chloride, also known as pralidoxime, is an antidote that reactivates cholinesterase by binding to the nerve agent and removing it from the enzyme. This allows cholinesterase to resume its normal function and restore normal nerve signal transmission.

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  • 45. 

    Of the followin, who would not sit on a career development board?

    • CMC

    • ESO

    • CCC

    • CO

    Correct Answer
    A. CO
    Explanation
    The CO (Commanding Officer) would not sit on a career development board because they are the highest-ranking officer in a military unit and are responsible for overall command and decision-making. Career development boards typically consist of senior officers and enlisted personnel who review and make recommendations for career progression and development of individuals within the organization. The CO's role is to provide guidance and leadership to the unit as a whole, rather than being involved in individual career development decisions.

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  • 46. 

    What refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time frame, regardless of the quantity requested or issued?

    • Frequency of Demand

    • Low Limit

    • Average Endurance Level

    • Demand

    Correct Answer
    A. Frequency of Demand
    Explanation
    Frequency of Demand refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time frame, regardless of the quantity requested or issued. It measures how often a particular item is requested or demanded by customers or users. This metric helps in understanding the popularity or demand for a product or service, and can be used to determine inventory levels, production schedules, and resource allocation.

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  • 47. 

    As a member of the uniformed services, what type of pay may you not elect to contribute to TSP?

    • Special Pay

    • Bonus Pay

    • Basic Allowance for Housing

    • Tax-exempt Pay

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic Allowance for Housing
    Explanation
    Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) is a type of pay that covers housing expenses for members of the uniformed services. It is not eligible for contribution to the Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) because it is already provided to the service member to cover their housing costs. TSP contributions can only be made from other types of pay, such as special pay, bonus pay, and tax-exempt pay.

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  • 48. 

    Who is the principal Federal official for domestic incident management?

    • Secretary of Homeland Security

    • Secretary of Defense

    • Secretary of State

    • Central Intelligence Agency

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of Homeland Security
    Explanation
    The principal Federal official for domestic incident management is the Secretary of Homeland Security. This individual is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the nation's efforts to respond to and recover from domestic incidents, such as natural disasters or terrorist attacks. The Secretary of Homeland Security plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the United States and its citizens during times of crisis.

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  • 49. 

    What SSIC code deal with ordance?

    • 1000 series

    • 4000 series

    • 8000 series

    • 6000 series

    Correct Answer
    A. 8000 series
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 8000 series. SSIC stands for Standard Subject Identification Code, and it is used by the United States Department of Defense to categorize various subjects. The 8000 series specifically deals with ordnance, which refers to military weapons and ammunition. Therefore, this series is the most relevant option for the given question.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 31, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Black Women
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