HM1 Advancement Study (The Ultimate Quiz)

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1. What type of actions are considered to violate the Navy's fraternization policy?

Explanation

The Navy's fraternization policy prohibits dating, shared living accommodations, and private business partnerships between certain ranks or positions within the Navy. These actions are considered to violate the policy because they can create conflicts of interest, favoritism, or the perception of impropriety. By including all of the options mentioned, the answer accurately reflects the comprehensive nature of the Navy's fraternization policy and the types of actions that are prohibited.

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About This Quiz
HM1 Advancement Study (The Ultimate Quiz) - Quiz

When it comes to advancement exams some people have a hard time prepping for them. Are you in need of a Hm1 Advancement Study quiz to help you... see moreproperly prepare for your tests? If so, then the quiz below is perfect for you, give it a try and see just how prepared you are and refresh your memory while you are at it. see less

2. How many permament teeth are there?

Explanation

There are 32 permanent teeth in the adult human mouth. This includes 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars (including 4 wisdom teeth).

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3. What is the most widely abused drug to date?

Explanation

Alcohol is considered the most widely abused drug to date due to its legal status and widespread availability. It is socially accepted and commonly consumed, which increases the likelihood of abuse. Alcohol abuse can lead to various health issues, addiction, impaired judgment, and negative social consequences. Its accessibility and cultural acceptance contribute to its high abuse rate compared to other drugs like cannabis, heroin, and cocaine.

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4. Who has developed standards that addresses both the rights and responsibilities of patients?

Explanation

JCAHO, also known as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations, has developed standards that address both the rights and responsibilities of patients. The JCAHO is an independent, non-profit organization that sets the standards for healthcare organizations in the United States. They aim to improve the quality and safety of healthcare through their accreditation process. By developing standards that address the rights and responsibilities of patients, JCAHO ensures that healthcare organizations provide patient-centered care and respect the rights and dignity of individuals seeking medical treatment.

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5. Unless specifically requested by the NOK, remains will not be shipped to arrive at destination on?

Explanation

Remains will not be shipped to arrive at the destination on Thanksgiving Day, New Years Day, and 22-26 December. This is likely because these days are national holidays in the United States, and shipping services may be limited or unavailable during these times. It is important to respect these holidays and make alternative arrangements for shipping remains if necessary.

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6. All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and ?

Explanation

All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and DD 2808. The DD 2808 is a form used for the Report of Medical Examination, which includes information about the individual's medical history, physical examination findings, and any medical conditions that may affect their ability to perform certain tasks. Therefore, it is necessary to include the DD 2808 form in a complete physical exam to ensure a thorough assessment of the individual's health status.

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7. Of the following TSP funds, which can you safely contribute into without the risk of investment loss?

Explanation

The G fund is the correct answer because it is the only TSP fund that guarantees the principal and interest of the investment. This means that there is no risk of investment loss when contributing to the G fund. The F fund, L fund, and C fund do not provide this guarantee and are subject to market fluctuations and potential investment losses.

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8. What is used as the chemoprophylaxis in the prevention of Tuberculosis?

Explanation

Isoniazid (INH) is used as chemoprophylaxis in the prevention of Tuberculosis. INH is a medication that is effective in treating and preventing tuberculosis. It is often given to individuals who have been exposed to someone with active tuberculosis or who have a positive skin test for tuberculosis. INH works by killing the bacteria that cause tuberculosis and helps prevent the disease from developing in individuals who are at high risk. It is an important component of tuberculosis control programs worldwide.

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9. What pest ranks first in the importance among those that transmit disease to man?

Explanation

Mosquitoes are considered the most important pest in transmitting diseases to humans. They are known vectors for various diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, Zika virus, and West Nile virus. Mosquitoes are capable of transmitting these diseases through their bites, as they feed on the blood of infected individuals and then transmit the pathogens to healthy individuals. Their ability to transmit diseases to a large number of people, combined with their widespread distribution, makes mosquitoes the top-ranked pest in terms of disease transmission to humans.

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10. Maintains medical equipment, centralized acquistion, storing and stocks rotation, constructs medical supply assets and line items in support of HSS units based on specific mission needs:

Explanation

The Medical Logistics Company is responsible for maintaining medical equipment, acquiring and storing supplies, and ensuring that stocks are rotated properly. They also construct medical supply assets and line items based on the specific needs of the healthcare support system (HSS) units. This suggests that the Medical Logistics Company plays a crucial role in managing and providing medical resources for the HSS units.

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11. What is the most dependable and exonomical method of sterilization?

Explanation

Steam under pressure is considered the most dependable and economical method of sterilization because it is able to penetrate and effectively kill microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and spores, in a relatively short period of time. The high temperature and pressure created by steam under pressure ensure that all areas of the sterilization chamber are reached, providing a thorough sterilization process. Additionally, steam under pressure is cost-effective as it does not require the use of expensive chemicals or gases.

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12. What type of injury is caused by over stretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon?

Explanation

A strain is an injury caused by overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon. When a muscle or tendon is stretched beyond its normal range of motion or is subjected to excessive force, it can result in a strain. This can happen during physical activities or sports that involve sudden movements, improper technique, or overexertion. Symptoms of a strain may include pain, swelling, limited range of motion, and muscle weakness. Treatment typically involves rest, ice, compression, and elevation, along with pain management and rehabilitation exercises.

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13. What drug is used for shortterm treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers?

Explanation

Both cimetidine and ranitidine are drugs that are used for the short-term treatment and maintenance of active duodenal and benign gastric ulcers. They belong to a class of medications called H2 blockers, which work by reducing the production of stomach acid. By decreasing the amount of acid in the stomach, these drugs can help to heal and prevent the formation of ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A and B" as both cimetidine and ranitidine are used for this purpose.

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14. Who is reponsible for maintaing command retention statistics, monitoring attrition, and preparing reports?

Explanation

The CCC (Command Career Counselor) is responsible for maintaining command retention statistics, monitoring attrition, and preparing reports. They are tasked with providing guidance and support to sailors in their career development, helping them make informed decisions about their future in the Navy. By tracking retention rates and analyzing attrition trends, the CCC can identify areas of concern and work towards implementing strategies to improve retention within the command. Their role is crucial in ensuring the Navy maintains a strong and motivated workforce.

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15. What is used as a charge out control of the Military Health (Dental) treatment record?

Explanation

The correct answer is NAVMED 6150/7. This form is used as a charge out control of the Military Health (Dental) treatment record. It is specifically designed for dental treatment and serves as a record of the patient's dental history, treatments, and charges. This form helps to keep track of the patient's dental records and ensures accurate billing and accountability. Optional form 24 and a blank 3x5 inch index card are not specifically designed for dental treatment records and may not provide the necessary information and control needed for charge out purposes.

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16. What is the name of the largest white blood cell that destroys bacteria, foreign particles and protoza?

Explanation

Monocytes are the largest white blood cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for engulfing and destroying bacteria, foreign particles, and protozoa through a process called phagocytosis. Monocytes are part of the innate immune response and are able to migrate to infected tissues where they differentiate into macrophages, enhancing their ability to eliminate pathogens.

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17. On a Not Observed Evaluation, what block (s) must have enteries?

Explanation

The block 4-16 must have entries on a Not Observed Evaluation.

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18. What force protection condition (FPCON), is applied when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting againist personnel or facilities is likely?

Explanation

When an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating a likely terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities, the force protection condition (FPCON) that is applied is Charlie. This level indicates that there is a potential threat and enhanced security measures need to be implemented to protect personnel and facilities from potential terrorist attacks.

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19. An important step in the control of communicable disease is the expeditious preparation and submission of what?

Explanation

An important step in the control of communicable disease is the expeditious preparation and submission of a communicable disease report. This report provides crucial information about the disease, including its spread, symptoms, and affected individuals. It helps public health authorities to track and monitor the disease, implement necessary control measures, and prevent further transmission. It also aids in identifying potential outbreaks and implementing appropriate interventions to protect public health.

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20. What type of CBR agent leaves symptoms of lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching and headache?

Explanation

Vesicants are chemical agents that cause blistering and severe irritation to the skin, eyes, and respiratory system. The symptoms mentioned in the question, such as lacrimation, eye pain, photophobia, cough, respiratory irritation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin erythema and itching, and headache, are all consistent with the effects of vesicants. These agents can cause blistering of the skin, damage to the eyes, and respiratory distress. Examples of vesicants include sulfur mustard and Lewisite.

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21. What is the most serious type of epileptic seizure?

Explanation

The most serious type of epileptic seizure is a Grand Mal seizure. This type of seizure involves a loss of consciousness, violent muscle contractions, and can last for several minutes. It is characterized by the person falling to the ground, experiencing convulsions, and potentially losing control of their bladder or bowels. Grand Mal seizures can be life-threatening and require immediate medical attention. Petit Mal seizures, on the other hand, are milder and involve a brief loss of consciousness without convulsions. Tepid Mal is not a recognized term in relation to epileptic seizures.

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22. What is the most commone cause of dental caries?

Explanation

Bacterial plaque is the most common cause of dental caries. Plaque is a sticky film that forms on teeth and contains bacteria. These bacteria produce acids that erode the tooth enamel, leading to cavities. Regular brushing and flossing help remove plaque, preventing the development of dental caries. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis (NUG), Acute pulpitis, and Periodontitis are all dental conditions that can result from untreated dental caries but are not the primary cause.

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23. What type of pest is not directly a vector of pathogenic organisms and is among the most adaptable?

Explanation

Cockroaches are not directly vectors of pathogenic organisms, meaning they do not transmit diseases directly to humans. However, they are among the most adaptable pests, able to survive in various environments and feed on a wide range of food sources. While they may not directly carry diseases, cockroaches can indirectly contribute to the spread of pathogens by contaminating food and surfaces with their feces and body parts, making them a nuisance and potential health hazard.

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24. The normal hematocrit for females is approximately?

Explanation

The normal hematocrit for females is approximately 40%-48%. Hematocrit refers to the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. This range is considered normal for females and indicates the proportion of red blood cells in their blood. Hematocrit levels outside of this range may suggest certain medical conditions such as anemia or dehydration.

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25. The Health record is closed except on which of the following occasions?

Explanation

The health record is closed except when an enlisted member is commissioned. This means that when a member of the military is promoted from enlisted rank to an officer rank, their health record is closed. This could be because their medical needs and responsibilities may change significantly after they become an officer, and a new health record may need to be created to reflect their new role and requirements.

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26. Continued shift to the left with a falling total WBC count indicates?

Explanation

A continued shift to the left with a falling total WBC count indicates a breakdown of the body's defenses and poor prognosis. The term "shift to the left" refers to an increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood, which is usually a sign of an ongoing infection or inflammation. A falling total WBC count suggests that the body's immune system is unable to produce enough white blood cells to fight off the infection or illness. This combination of factors indicates a weakening of the body's defenses and a poor outlook for recovery.

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27. An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of what infection

Explanation

An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is representative of appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, a small pouch-like organ attached to the large intestine. When the appendix becomes infected, the body's immune system responds by increasing the production of white blood cells to fight off the infection. This leads to an elevated white blood cell count, which is typically observed in cases of appendicitis. Meningitis, pneumonia, and influenza may also cause an increase in white blood cell count, but the specific range mentioned in the question is more indicative of appendicitis.

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28. The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of whom?

Explanation

The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys will be in the custody of the DCA. The DCA, or Damage Control Assistant, is responsible for managing and maintaining the ship's damage control equipment and supplies. It is important to keep the supply cabinets locked to ensure that only authorized personnel have access to the decontamination supplies. By entrusting the keys to the DCA, they can control who has access to the cabinets and ensure the proper handling and use of the supplies.

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29. In addition to the regular income tax you will have to pay on the money you withdrawal from TSP, you may also be subject to an early withdrawal penalty tax of how much?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10%. When withdrawing money from the TSP (Thrift Savings Plan), in addition to regular income tax, there is also a 10% early withdrawal penalty tax that may be imposed. This penalty is designed to discourage individuals from withdrawing money from their retirement accounts before reaching the eligible age of retirement.

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30. What is th emax amount of E-6s a CO may CAP if the total number of enlisted billets is between 1,001-2,000 sailors?

Explanation

A commanding officer (CO) may CAP a maximum of 2 E-6s if the total number of enlisted billets is between 1,001-2,000 sailors. This means that out of all the enlisted positions available, the CO is allowed to assign two individuals with the rank of E-6. The CAP (Command Advancement Program) allows COs to promote deserving sailors to the next higher rank based on their performance and qualifications. In this scenario, the CO has the authority to promote up to 2 E-6s based on the available billets.

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31. How many baby teeth are there?

Explanation

There are 20 baby teeth in total. Baby teeth, also known as primary teeth, are the first set of teeth that erupt in a child's mouth. They begin to appear around 6 months of age and are usually fully developed by the age of 3. These primary teeth eventually fall out to make way for the permanent teeth.

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32. What is the most frequent cause of sever tooth pain?

Explanation

Acute pulpitis is the most frequent cause of severe tooth pain. Acute pulpitis refers to inflammation of the dental pulp, which is the innermost part of the tooth containing nerves and blood vessels. When the pulp becomes inflamed, it can cause intense pain. This can occur due to factors such as dental decay, trauma, or infection. Bacterial plaque, ANUG (Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis), and periodontitis can also cause tooth pain, but acute pulpitis is the most common cause.

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33. Flash blindness from a nuclear explosing normal persist for?

Explanation

Flash blindness from a nuclear explosion can cause temporary vision loss due to the intense light emitted during the explosion. This phenomenon occurs when the bright light overwhelms the retina, causing a temporary disruption in vision. The duration of flash blindness can vary depending on the intensity of the light exposure. In the case of a nuclear explosion, the flash blindness typically lasts for about 20-30 minutes before the vision gradually returns to normal.

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34. The violen shaped marking is characterized in the identification of what?

Explanation

The violin-shaped marking is a characteristic feature of the brown recluse spider. This marking, also known as a "fiddleback" or "violin" pattern, is found on the cephalothorax (the front part of the spider's body). It consists of a dark brown or black marking that resembles the shape of a violin, with the neck of the violin pointing towards the spider's abdomen. This marking helps in identifying the brown recluse spider, which is known for its venomous bite and is found in certain regions of the United States.

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35. What establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply departments and activities?

Explanation

NAVSUP P-485 establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply departments and activities. This publication provides guidance on supply chain management, inventory control, procurement, and other logistical functions for naval supply operations at sea. It outlines the procedures and responsibilities for ensuring the availability and accountability of supplies and equipment onboard Navy vessels. By following the guidelines outlined in NAVSUP P-485, afloat supply departments and activities can effectively manage their resources and support the mission requirements of the Navy.

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36. What subsitute pennant is flown when the CO is absent?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3rd. When the commanding officer (CO) is absent, the substitute pennant that is flown is the 3rd pennant. This indicates that someone else is temporarily in command in the CO's absence.

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37. When talking on an intercom, what do you look for to assume that the line is clear for your message?

Explanation

A steady red light indicates that the line is clear for your message when talking on an intercom. This is because a steady red light typically signifies that the intercom is in use or currently connected to another party. Therefore, when the light is steady, it suggests that the line is not busy or occupied, allowing you to proceed with your message without interruption.

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38. How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps are appointed each year by the Sec. of the Navy to attend the Naval Academy in Annapolis?

Explanation

The correct answer is 85. This suggests that each year, the Secretary of the Navy appoints 85 enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps to attend the Naval Academy in Annapolis.

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39. What class of frozen sandwich is produced in a commercial frozen food operation in which a central kitchen is designed specifially for mass-sandwich production?

Explanation

Class III frozen sandwiches are produced in a commercial frozen food operation with a central kitchen designed specifically for mass-sandwich production. This means that the operation is set up to produce a large quantity of sandwiches efficiently and on a large scale. Class III sandwiches are likely to be produced in a factory-like setting, where ingredients are prepared and assembled in a streamlined process to meet high demand.

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40. What is the max amount of amyl nitrate that may be given to a blood gas victim?

Explanation

The correct answer is 8 ampules. This suggests that there is a maximum amount of amyl nitrate that can be given to a blood gas victim, and that limit is 8 ampules.

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41. Sutures in the face should remain in place for how many days?

Explanation

Sutures in the face should remain in place for 4 days. This is because the face is a highly sensitive area and heals faster compared to other parts of the body. Removing the sutures too early can lead to wound reopening or scarring, while leaving them in for too long can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, a shorter duration of 4 days is recommended for facial sutures to promote proper healing.

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42. How many bones of the skull are there?

Explanation

The skull is made up of 22 bones, 8 of which are cranial bones and 14 are facial bones. The cranial bones include the frontal bone, parietal bones, temporal bones, occipital bone, sphenoid bone, and ethmoid bone. The facial bones include the nasal bones, maxillae, zygomatic bones, mandible, lacrimal bones, palatine bones, inferior nasal conchae, and vomer. Therefore, the correct answer is 8.

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43. In preventing radiation exposure, what is the most effective shielding material?

Explanation

Lead is the most effective shielding material for preventing radiation exposure. Lead is a dense material that has a high atomic number, which means it can effectively absorb and block radiation. It is commonly used in medical facilities and nuclear power plants to shield against radiation. Wood, iron, and concrete are also used as shielding materials, but they are not as effective as lead in blocking radiation.

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44. What is given to a nerve gas casualty for the regeneration of blocked cholinesterase?

Explanation

2-PAM Chloride is given to a nerve gas casualty for the regeneration of blocked cholinesterase. Cholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that is essential for nerve signal transmission. Nerve gases inhibit the activity of cholinesterase, leading to an accumulation of acetylcholine and overstimulation of the nervous system. 2-PAM Chloride, also known as pralidoxime, is an antidote that reactivates cholinesterase by binding to the nerve agent and removing it from the enzyme. This allows cholinesterase to resume its normal function and restore normal nerve signal transmission.

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45. Of the followin, who would not sit on a career development board?

Explanation

The CO (Commanding Officer) would not sit on a career development board because they are the highest-ranking officer in a military unit and are responsible for overall command and decision-making. Career development boards typically consist of senior officers and enlisted personnel who review and make recommendations for career progression and development of individuals within the organization. The CO's role is to provide guidance and leadership to the unit as a whole, rather than being involved in individual career development decisions.

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46. What refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time frame, regardless of the quantity requested or issued?

Explanation

Frequency of Demand refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time frame, regardless of the quantity requested or issued. It measures how often a particular item is requested or demanded by customers or users. This metric helps in understanding the popularity or demand for a product or service, and can be used to determine inventory levels, production schedules, and resource allocation.

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47. As a member of the uniformed services, what type of pay may you not elect to contribute to TSP?

Explanation

Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) is a type of pay that covers housing expenses for members of the uniformed services. It is not eligible for contribution to the Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) because it is already provided to the service member to cover their housing costs. TSP contributions can only be made from other types of pay, such as special pay, bonus pay, and tax-exempt pay.

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48. Who is the principal Federal official for domestic incident management?

Explanation

The principal Federal official for domestic incident management is the Secretary of Homeland Security. This individual is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the nation's efforts to respond to and recover from domestic incidents, such as natural disasters or terrorist attacks. The Secretary of Homeland Security plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the United States and its citizens during times of crisis.

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49. What SSIC code deal with ordance?

Explanation

The correct answer is the 8000 series. SSIC stands for Standard Subject Identification Code, and it is used by the United States Department of Defense to categorize various subjects. The 8000 series specifically deals with ordnance, which refers to military weapons and ammunition. Therefore, this series is the most relevant option for the given question.

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50. Which shipping code lets shipper know that item will be damaged if it becomes frozen?

Explanation

The correct answer is "F". This shipping code indicates that the item will be damaged if it becomes frozen.

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51. Of the following, which information can a CO release to the public or press without the patient's or patient's NOK consent?

Explanation

A CO can release all of the mentioned information (name, age and sex, station) to the public or press without the patient's or patient's NOK (Next of Kin) consent. This means that the CO is authorized to disclose the patient's identity, personal details, and the station they belong to without seeking permission from the patient or their NOK.

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52. In an enlisted E1-E6 seabag, how many cotton/nylon, black socks should there be?

Explanation

In an enlisted E1-E6 seabag, there should be 6 cotton/nylon, black socks.

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53. How long must a service member have left at a command upon completion of command financial specialist training to be designated as a command CSF?

Explanation

To be designated as a command CSF (Command Financial Specialist), a service member must have at least 12 months left at a command upon completion of command financial specialist training. This is likely because it takes time for the service member to apply their newly acquired skills and knowledge in a practical setting and provide effective financial counseling and guidance to their fellow service members. Having a minimum of 12 months left at the command ensures that they have sufficient time to fulfill their duties and responsibilities as a command CSF.

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54. What form is used to give your detailer information on where you would like to be stationed?

Explanation

The correct answer is NAVPERS 1306/63. This form is used to give your detailer information on where you would like to be stationed.

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55. What stage of anesthesia is used for all operations?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3rd - Operative. During the operative stage of anesthesia, the patient is in a deep state of anesthesia where they are unconscious and immobile. This stage is necessary for performing surgical procedures as it allows the surgeon to operate on the patient without any pain or discomfort. It is during this stage that the surgical incision is made and the actual procedure takes place. The operative stage is typically maintained throughout the entire surgery to ensure that the patient remains in a deep state of anesthesia.

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56. What is the MAX amount of atropine that can be adminstered by non-medical personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 mg because atropine is a medication used to treat certain medical conditions such as bradycardia and nerve agent poisoning. The maximum amount that can be administered by non-medical personnel is typically 6 mg. It is important to note that the dosage may vary depending on the specific situation and the individual's condition, so it is always best to consult a medical professional for proper guidance.

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57. What schedule of drugs includes cocaine, heroine, and marijuana?

Explanation

Schedule I is the correct answer because it is the category of drugs that have a high potential for abuse and have no currently accepted medical use in the United States. This schedule includes drugs such as cocaine, heroin, and marijuana, which are considered to be highly dangerous and illegal substances. These drugs are classified as Schedule I to indicate their high risk and lack of recognized medical value.

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58. If you are on a lookout watch, your reports over sound powered phones will go over what circuit to the bridge?

Explanation

If you are on a lookout watch, your reports over sound powered phones will go over the JL circuit to the bridge.

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59. The CO of the DENBN will designate a dental officer and how many dental technicians?

Explanation

The CO of the DENBN will designate a dental officer and 27 dental technicians.

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60. For personnel that have access to classified information, how often should refresher briefings be conducted?

Explanation

Refresher briefings should be conducted annually for personnel with access to classified information. This ensures that individuals stay updated on the latest protocols, procedures, and any changes in security measures. Conducting these briefings annually helps to reinforce the importance of handling classified information properly and mitigates the risk of any potential security breaches.

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61. A loss of how many pounds per week is the medically acceptable limit for weight reduction?

Explanation

The medically acceptable limit for weight reduction is a loss of 1-2 pounds per week. This range is considered safe and sustainable for most individuals. Losing weight at a slower rate allows for a more gradual change in body composition and reduces the risk of muscle loss or other negative health effects. Rapid weight loss can be harmful and may result in nutrient deficiencies or the loss of lean body mass. Therefore, aiming for a weight loss of 1-2 pounds per week is generally recommended by healthcare professionals.

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62. Which of the following pests prefer meat and fish?

Explanation

The Norway rat is known for its preference for meat and fish. Unlike other pests listed in the options, such as the Black Roof rat, Oriental cockroach, and Bed bugs, the Norway rat is specifically attracted to these food sources. This rat species is known to be omnivorous and will consume a wide range of foods, including meat and fish, making it a common pest in areas where these food sources are available.

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63. How many signed copies of the certificate of death (overseas) DD - 2064 must accompany the remains to another overseas area or a port of arrival in CONUS?

Explanation

Three signed copies of the certificate of death (overseas) DD-2064 must accompany the remains to another overseas area or a port of arrival in CONUS. The certificate of death is an important document that provides information about the cause and circumstances of death. Having multiple copies ensures that the necessary documentation is available for various purposes such as legal, administrative, and transportation requirements.

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64. When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous interrupted simple sutures placed how far apart?

Explanation

When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous interrupted simple sutures placed 1/8 inch apart. This distance allows for even distribution of tension along the wound edges, reducing the risk of scarring and promoting optimal wound healing. Sutures placed too close together may cause tissue ischemia and necrosis, while sutures placed too far apart may result in wound dehiscence and poor cosmetic outcome. Therefore, placing sutures 1/8 inch apart is considered the ideal spacing for achieving the best cosmetic effect.

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65. Service members, E4 and below, will not be approved for overseas orders if their debt to Income Ratio exceeds what %?

Explanation

Service members, E4 and below, will not be approved for overseas orders if their debt to income ratio exceeds 30%. This means that if their debt payments (such as credit card bills, loans, etc.) exceed 30% of their income, they will not be allowed to take overseas assignments. This is likely because a high debt to income ratio can indicate financial instability and the military wants to ensure that their service members are financially responsible and able to meet their financial obligations while stationed overseas.

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66. Any member of the armed forces who, without authority fails to go to his or her appointed place of duty at the time prescribed can be charged under what UCMJ article?

Explanation

According to the given scenario, any member of the armed forces who fails to go to their appointed place of duty without authority can be charged under UCMJ Article 86. This article specifically addresses Absence Without Leave (AWOL) or Unauthorized Absence (UA) and provides the legal basis for punishing such behavior in the military.

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67. The blood of the average man contains approximately how many red blood cells per cubic millimeter?

Explanation

The average man's blood contains approximately 5.0 million red blood cells per cubic millimeter.

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68. What is the most common factor that influences the amount of drug to be given?

Explanation

The most common factor that influences the amount of drug to be given is age. This is because the metabolism and elimination of drugs can vary significantly depending on a person's age. Younger individuals may have faster drug metabolism, requiring higher doses, while older individuals may have slower metabolism and require lower doses. Age-related changes in organ function and body composition can also affect drug distribution and elimination. Therefore, considering a patient's age is crucial in determining the appropriate dosage of a drug.

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69. What General Order of a Sentry states, "To salute all officers and all colors and standards not caes?"

Explanation

The General Order of a Sentry that states "To salute all officers and all colors and standards not caes" is the 10th General Order. This order emphasizes the importance of saluting officers and showing respect to all colors and standards. By following this order, a sentry demonstrates their discipline and adherence to military protocol.

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70. What battle during WWII was fought entirely from aircraft launched from US and Japanese carriers?

Explanation

The Battle of Coral Sea was fought entirely from aircraft launched from US and Japanese carriers. This battle, which took place in May 1942, was a significant turning point in the Pacific theater of World War II. It was the first naval battle in history where the opposing fleets never came into direct contact, as the entire engagement was conducted by aircraft. The battle resulted in a strategic victory for the Allies, as they were able to halt the Japanese advance towards Australia.

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71. How many months supply of forms shall be maintain by all ships?

Explanation

Ships should maintain a supply of forms for at least 6 months. This is important because ships often travel to remote areas where it may be difficult to restock supplies. By having a 6-month supply of forms, ships can ensure that they have the necessary paperwork and documentation for their operations, even in areas with limited access to resources. This helps to maintain efficiency and compliance with regulations while at sea.

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72. How many pints of saliva does a person produce daily?

Explanation

A person produces approximately 2 pints of saliva daily. Saliva plays a crucial role in digestion as it helps break down food and facilitates swallowing. It also contains enzymes that aid in the initial stages of digestion. The production of saliva varies from person to person and can be influenced by factors such as hydration, diet, and overall health. However, on average, 2 pints is a reasonable estimate for the daily production of saliva.

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73. Which of the publications below contain the Navy''s policy on Sexual harrassment?

Explanation

SECNAVINST 5300.26D is the correct answer because it is the publication that contains the Navy's policy on Sexual harassment. The other publications listed do not specifically address this issue.

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74. Wha tis the handling code for controlled substances?

Explanation

The handling code for controlled substances is Q & R.

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75. What is the max time food can be held if not kept below 40F or above 140F?

Explanation

Food can be held for a maximum of 4 hours if it is not kept below 40F or above 140F. This is because temperatures between 40F and 140F are considered the "danger zone" for food, as it promotes the growth of bacteria. After 4 hours in this temperature range, the risk of bacterial growth and foodborne illness increases significantly. Therefore, it is important to keep perishable foods refrigerated below 40F or heated above 140F to ensure food safety.

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76. What nerve controls the diaphram?

Explanation

The phrenic nerve controls the diaphragm. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located below the lungs that plays a crucial role in the process of breathing. It contracts and relaxes to facilitate inhalation and exhalation. The phrenic nerve originates from the cervical spine and travels through the chest to innervate the diaphragm. It provides the necessary signals for the diaphragm to contract and initiate the inhalation process. Therefore, the phrenic nerve is responsible for controlling the diaphragm's movement and is essential for proper breathing.

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77. When treating a victim for heat stroke, you should discontinue cooling when the rectal temp. reaches how many degrees Fahrenheit?

Explanation

When treating a victim for heat stroke, it is recommended to discontinue cooling when the rectal temperature reaches 102 degrees Fahrenheit. This is because cooling should be stopped once the body temperature reaches a safe and stable level, and 102 degrees Fahrenheit is considered a safe temperature. Continuing to cool beyond this point may cause the body temperature to drop too low, leading to other complications.

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78. Routine QA program-related documentation must be maintained in a secure location for a period of how many years before disposal?

Explanation

Routine QA program-related documentation must be maintained in a secure location for a period of 5 years before disposal. This is important because it allows for the proper record-keeping and documentation of the QA program activities. By keeping the documentation for this period of time, organizations can ensure that they have a historical record of their QA program, which can be useful for audits, investigations, or any other future reference. Additionally, it helps to maintain accountability and transparency in the QA process.

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79. An infection is considered nosocomial if it first became apparent within how many hours or more after admission?

Explanation

Nosocomial infections are those that are acquired in a healthcare setting, such as hospitals or nursing homes. These infections can be caused by various microorganisms and can occur due to factors like weakened immune systems, invasive procedures, or improper hygiene practices. The given answer, 72 hours, indicates that an infection is considered nosocomial if it first becomes apparent after 72 hours or more after admission to a healthcare facility. This time frame allows for the differentiation between infections that were present upon admission and those that were acquired during the hospital stay.

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80. If you elect to being, stop or change your TSP contribution, what paper would you use?

Explanation

The correct answer is TSP-U-1. TSP-U-1 is the form that should be used if you want to begin, stop, or change your TSP contribution. This form is specifically designed for these purposes and ensures that the necessary information is provided to the Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) administrators.

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81. A  sponsor shoud be assigned within how many days of the receipt of orders or the sponsor's request?

Explanation

A sponsor should be assigned within 5 days of the receipt of orders or the sponsor's request. This suggests that there is a time constraint for assigning a sponsor, indicating the importance of prompt action in the sponsorship process.

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82. If a member is pregnant and cannot be measure for the PRT, what body assessment code would you annotate in block 20?

Explanation

If a member is pregnant and cannot be measured for the PRT, the body assessment code that would be annotated in block 20 is XX. This code indicates that the member's body assessment is not applicable due to their pregnancy.

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83. Who was the only Navy Admiral to be appointed "Admiral of the Navy", by authorization of the President?

Explanation

George Dewey was the only Navy Admiral to be appointed "Admiral of the Navy" by the President. This title was created specifically for him in 1903, as a special honor for his exceptional service during the Spanish-American War. Dewey's victory at the Battle of Manila Bay in 1898 was a significant turning point in the war, and his leadership and strategic skills were highly praised. As a result, President Theodore Roosevelt authorized the appointment of Dewey as "Admiral of the Navy," making him the highest-ranking officer in the United States Navy's history.

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84. Which of the following bacteria is present in an individual with Gonorrhea?

Explanation

An individual with Gonorrhea is infected with the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is a Gram-negative cocci. This bacterium is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection Gonorrhea. Gram-negative cocci are spherical bacteria that have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which is why they retain the red counterstain in the Gram staining procedure.

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85. What form shall be prepared and filled out on the left side of the health record to display lab reports?

Explanation

The correct answer is SF 545. SF 545 is the form that should be prepared and filled out on the left side of the health record to display lab reports.

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86. What water-soluble vitamin is used in the treatment of periphereal neuritis?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. Vitamin B is used in the treatment of peripheral neuritis. Peripheral neuritis is inflammation of the peripheral nerves, which can cause symptoms such as pain, tingling, and weakness. Vitamin B plays a crucial role in maintaining the health of the nervous system and can help alleviate the symptoms of peripheral neuritis.

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87. What part of the DOD Prescription, DD 1289,lists the names and quantities of the ingredients to be used and must be checked carefully for spelling errors?

Explanation

The correct answer is Inscription. The inscription is the part of the DOD Prescription, DD 1289, that lists the names and quantities of the ingredients to be used. It is important to check the inscription carefully for spelling errors to ensure accuracy in the prescription.

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88. What TSP fund is invested in a stock index fund that tracks the Standard & Poor's (S&P) 500 stock index?

Explanation

The C fund is invested in a stock index fund that tracks the Standard & Poor's (S&P) 500 stock index. This means that the C fund's investments mirror the performance of the S&P 500 index, which includes the top 500 publicly traded companies in the United States. By investing in the C fund, individuals can gain exposure to a diversified portfolio of large-cap U.S. stocks and potentially benefit from the overall performance of the stock market.

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89. What web-based application allows you to send your request for a sponsor directly to your new command via the internet?

Explanation

Sponsor Assignment Aid is a web-based application that allows users to send their request for a sponsor directly to their new command via the internet. This application assists in assigning sponsors to individuals and facilitates communication between the new command and the sponsor.

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90. Who monitors all service, national and theater intelligence traffic and products to identify specific threate to navy Marine Corps personnel and resources?

Explanation

MTAC stands for Maritime Tactical Command and Control, which is responsible for monitoring all service, national, and theater intelligence traffic and products to identify specific threats to navy Marine Corps personnel and resources. This means that MTAC is the correct answer for the question.

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91. What rodent prefers fruits & vegetables for food?

Explanation

The Brown Roof rat prefers fruits and vegetables for food.

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92. What is the most desirable method of cleaning the operating room?

Explanation

The most desirable method of cleaning the operating room is using a wet vacuum. This method is effective in removing dirt, dust, and debris from the floor, ensuring a clean and sanitary environment. It also helps to minimize the spread of germs and bacteria, reducing the risk of infections. Mopping alone may not be as effective in removing all contaminants, while dusting with antiseptic germicide alone may not thoroughly clean the floor. Therefore, using a wet vacuum combines the benefits of both methods, making it the most desirable option.

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93. What type of malaria is only found in West Africa?

Explanation

The correct answer is Ovale because this type of malaria is only found in West Africa.

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94. When does dental development of the fetus begin?

Explanation

The dental development of the fetus begins in the 5th week of prenatal life. This is when the dental lamina, which is the embryonic structure that gives rise to the teeth, starts to form. By the 5th week, the primary tooth buds begin to develop, marking the beginning of tooth formation in the fetus.

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95. Who has teh title " The dental Officer, U.S. Marine Corps, " and is the staff ddental officer to the Commandant of the Marine Corps.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Director of Dental Programs." This individual holds the title "The dental Officer, U.S. Marine Corps" and serves as the staff dental officer to the Commandant of the Marine Corps. The title "Director of Dental Programs" aligns with the responsibilities and position described in the question.

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96. What is the most commonly used measurement of supply levels?

Explanation

The most commonly used measurement of supply levels is "Months of usage". This measurement refers to the number of months that the current supply of a particular item is expected to last based on the average rate of consumption. It helps in determining when to reorder or replenish the supply to avoid shortages or disruptions in operations.

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97. Item of packagin discrepancies attributalbe to the shipper should be reported using what form?

Explanation

The correct form to report packaging discrepancies attributable to the shipper is SF 364. This form is used to document and report any issues or discrepancies with packaging that can be attributed to the shipper. SF 540 and DD 1149 are not the correct forms for reporting packaging discrepancies.

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98. What tmep should moist hot, soaks/dressings be when applied to an abcess for 40 min. 3x daily?

Explanation

Moist hot soaks/dressings should be applied at 120F when treating an abscess for 40 minutes, three times a day. This temperature is recommended to provide optimal therapeutic benefits, such as increasing blood flow and promoting healing, while minimizing the risk of burns or discomfort to the patient.

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99. What is the max amount of time a sandwich may remain in the freezer?

Explanation

The correct answer is 60 days because this is the maximum amount of time that a sandwich can remain in the freezer without compromising its quality and taste. Freezing helps to preserve the sandwich by slowing down the growth of bacteria and preventing spoilage. However, after 60 days, the sandwich may start to develop freezer burn and lose its texture and flavor. It is important to properly store the sandwich in an airtight container or freezer bag to maintain its quality for the longest possible time.

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100. What instruction in the Navy pertains to disease alert reports?

Explanation

NAVMEDCOMINST 6220.2 is the correct answer because it is the instruction in the Navy that pertains to disease alert reports.

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What type of actions are considered to violate the Navy's...
How many permament teeth are there?
What is the most widely abused drug to date?
Who has developed standards that addresses both the rights and...
Unless specifically requested by the NOK, remains will not be shipped...
All complete physical exams will include forms DD 2807-1 and ?
Of the following TSP funds, which can you safely contribute into...
What is used as the chemoprophylaxis in the prevention of...
What pest ranks first in the importance among those that transmit...
Maintains medical equipment, centralized acquistion, storing and...
What is the most dependable and exonomical method of sterilization?
What type of injury is caused by over stretching or tearing of a...
What drug is used for shortterm treatment and maintenance of active...
Who is reponsible for maintaing command retention statistics,...
What is used as a charge out control of the Military Health (Dental)...
What is the name of the largest white blood cell that destroys...
On a Not Observed Evaluation, what block (s) must have enteries?
What force protection condition (FPCON), is applied when an incident...
An important step in the control of communicable disease is the...
What type of CBR agent leaves symptoms of lacrimation, eye pain,...
What is the most serious type of epileptic seizure?
What is the most commone cause of dental caries?
What type of pest is not directly a vector of pathogenic organisms and...
The normal hematocrit for females is approximately?
The Health record is closed except on which of the following...
Continued shift to the left with a falling total WBC count indicates?
An abnormal white blood cell count of 10,000 to 30,000/mm3 is...
The decontamination supply cabinets will be kept locked, and the keys...
In addition to the regular income tax you will have to pay on the...
What is th emax amount of E-6s a CO may CAP if the total number of...
How many baby teeth are there?
What is the most frequent cause of sever tooth pain?
Flash blindness from a nuclear explosing normal persist for?
The violen shaped marking is characterized in the identification of...
What establishes policies for operating and managing afloat supply...
What subsitute pennant is flown when the CO is absent?
When talking on an intercom, what do you look for to assume that the...
How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy and Marine Corps...
What class of frozen sandwich is produced in a commercial frozen food...
What is the max amount of amyl nitrate that may be given to a blood...
Sutures in the face should remain in place for how many days?
How many bones of the skull are there?
In preventing radiation exposure, what is the most effective shielding...
What is given to a nerve gas casualty for the regeneration of blocked...
Of the followin, who would not sit on a career development board?
What refers to the number of requests for an item within a given time...
As a member of the uniformed services, what type of pay may you not...
Who is the principal Federal official for domestic incident...
What SSIC code deal with ordance?
Which shipping code lets shipper know that item will be damaged if it...
Of the following, which information can a CO release to the public or...
In an enlisted E1-E6 seabag, how many cotton/nylon, black socks should...
How long must a service member have left at a command upon completion...
What form is used to give your detailer information on where you would...
What stage of anesthesia is used for all operations?
What is the MAX amount of atropine that can be adminstered by...
What schedule of drugs includes cocaine, heroine, and marijuana?
If you are on a lookout watch, your reports over sound powered phones...
The CO of the DENBN will designate a dental officer and how many...
For personnel that have access to classified information, how often...
A loss of how many pounds per week is the medically acceptable limit...
Which of the following pests prefer meat and fish?
How many signed copies of the certificate of death (overseas) DD -...
When suturing, the best cosmetic effect is obtained by using numerous...
Service members, E4 and below, will not be approved for overseas...
Any member of the armed forces who, without authority fails to go to...
The blood of the average man contains approximately how many red blood...
What is the most common factor that influences the amount of drug to...
What General Order of a Sentry states, "To salute all officers...
What battle during WWII was fought entirely from aircraft launched...
How many months supply of forms shall be maintain by all ships?
How many pints of saliva does a person produce daily?
Which of the publications below contain the Navy''s policy on Sexual...
Wha tis the handling code for controlled substances?
What is the max time food can be held if not kept below 40F or above...
What nerve controls the diaphram?
When treating a victim for heat stroke, you should discontinue cooling...
Routine QA program-related documentation must be maintained in a...
An infection is considered nosocomial if it first became apparent...
If you elect to being, stop or change your TSP contribution, what...
A  sponsor shoud be assigned within how many days of the receipt...
If a member is pregnant and cannot be measure for the PRT, what body...
Who was the only Navy Admiral to be appointed "Admiral of the Navy",...
Which of the following bacteria is present in an individual with...
What form shall be prepared and filled out on the left side of the...
What water-soluble vitamin is used in the treatment of periphereal...
What part of the DOD Prescription, DD 1289,lists the names and...
What TSP fund is invested in a stock index fund that tracks the...
What web-based application allows you to send your request for a...
Who monitors all service, national and theater intelligence traffic...
What rodent prefers fruits & vegetables for food?
What is the most desirable method of cleaning the operating room?
What type of malaria is only found in West Africa?
When does dental development of the fetus begin?
Who has teh title " The dental Officer, U.S. Marine Corps, " and is...
What is the most commonly used measurement of supply levels?
Item of packagin discrepancies attributalbe to the shipper should be...
What tmep should moist hot, soaks/dressings be when applied to an...
What is the max amount of time a sandwich may remain in the freezer?
What instruction in the Navy pertains to disease alert reports?
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