# Navy Basic Military Questions

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| By Jou13
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Jou13
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 536
Questions: 56 | Attempts: 536

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• 1.

### For females in uniform, the diameter of the bun shall not exceed how many inches?

• A.

3 in.

• B.

4 in.

• C.

5 in.

• D.

6 in.

B. 4 in.
Explanation
The correct answer is 4 in. This is because for females in uniform, the diameter of the bun should not exceed 4 inches. This regulation is likely in place to ensure that the bun is neat, professional, and does not interfere with the uniform or any equipment the individual may be using. A larger bun may be considered excessive or unprofessional.

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• 2.

### In relation to males, what is the guidance on the proper length of fingernails?

• A.

Must not extend past the fingertip

• B.

1/4 in.

• C.

1/2 in.

• D.

1/8 in.

A. Must not extend past the fingertip
Explanation
The guidance on the proper length of fingernails for males is that they must not extend past the fingertip.

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• 3.

### For females, what is the maximum length for fingernails?

• A.

1/4 in. from fingertip

• B.

1/2 in. from fingertip

• C.

1/8 in. from fingertip

• D.

Must not extend past the fingertip

A. 1/4 in. from fingertip
Explanation
The maximum length for fingernails for females is 1/4 inch from the fingertip. This length is recommended to ensure that the nails do not become too long and prone to breakage or damage. It also maintains a neat and professional appearance for females.

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• 4.

### For females, what is the maximum hair bulk and bun bulk measured from the scalp?

• A.

2 in., 3 in.

• B.

3 in., 4 in.

• C.

3 in., 2 in.

• D.

4 in., 3 in.

A. 2 in., 3 in.
Explanation
The maximum hair bulk for females is measured at 2 inches from the scalp, while the maximum bun bulk is measured at 3 inches from the scalp.

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• 5.

### How many rings are authorized per hand while in uniform?

• A.

1 per hand minus wedding/engagement ring set

• B.

2 per hand plus wedding/engagement ring set

• C.

1 per hand plus wedding/engagement ring set

• D.

2 per hand minus wedding/engagement ring set

C. 1 per hand plus wedding/engagement ring set
Explanation
In uniform, the authorized number of rings per hand is one, but this rule does not include the wedding/engagement ring set. Therefore, the correct answer is "1 per hand plus wedding/engagement ring set."

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• 6.

### What is the maximum bun size measured in diameter for females?

• A.

2 in.

• B.

3 in.

• C.

4 in.

• D.

5 in.

C. 4 in.
Explanation
The maximum bun size measured in diameter for females is 4 inches.

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• 7.

### Are necklaces authorized to be worn while in uniform? If so, how many can be worn?

• A.

Yes, one necklace may be worn but shall not be visible

• B.

Yes, one necklace may be worn and can be visible

• C.

No. Necklaces are not authorized to be worn while in uniform.

A. Yes, one necklace may be worn but shall not be visible
Explanation
According to the given answer, necklaces are allowed to be worn while in uniform, but they should not be visible. This means that individuals can wear a necklace, but it should be hidden or not easily noticeable.

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• 8.

### How many wristwatches and bracelets are authorized while in uniform?

• A.

1 of each, maximum.

• B.

1 wristwatch and 2 bracelets are authorized.

• C.

1 wristwatch. Bracelets are not authorized while in uniform.

• D.

1 wristwatch, 3 bracelets.

A. 1 of each, maximum.
Explanation
The correct answer is 1 of each, maximum. This means that while in uniform, individuals are allowed to wear one wristwatch and one bracelet. They can choose to wear both items or just one, but they cannot exceed the maximum limit of one of each.

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• 9.

### For females, what is the diametric size of the earrings allowed while in uniform?

• A.

1/8 in.-1/4 in.

• B.

1/4 in.-1/2 in.

• C.

1/4 in.-1/3 in.

• D.

1/16 in.-1/8 in.

A. 1/8 in.-1/4 in.
Explanation
The correct answer is 1/8 in.-1/4 in. This range represents the allowed diametric size of earrings for females while in uniform. It means that the diameter of the earrings should be between 1/8 inch and 1/4 inch.

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• 10.

### For the NWU parka, the fabric pulls on/off insignia tab is to be only worn by whom?

• A.

E1-E9

• B.

All hands

• C.

E4-E9

• D.

E4 and above only.

D. E4 and above only.
Explanation
The correct answer is E4 and above only. This means that only enlisted personnel with a rank of E4 or higher are allowed to wear the fabric pulls on/off insignia tab on the NWU parka. This insignia tab is not authorized for E1-E3 personnel or officers.

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• 11.

### What is the maximum permissible length for mustaches for males?

• A.

1/4 in.

• B.

1/2 in.

• C.

1/8 in.

• D.

1/3 in.

A. 1/4 in.
Explanation
The maximum permissible length for mustaches for males is 1/4 inch.

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• 12.

### Are command t-shirts with logos authorized as a replacement for the blue t-shirt worn with NWUs?

• A.

No.

• B.

Yes, as long as they are command approved.

• C.

Yes, as long as it cannot be seen while bloused.

A. No.
Explanation
The correct answer is No. This means that command t-shirts with logos are not authorized as a replacement for the blue t-shirt worn with NWUs.

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• 13.

### Which of these is NOT an authorized headgear to be worn in NWUs?

• A.

Navy knit watch cap

• B.

Navy command ball cap

• C.

8-point cap

• D.

None of these

D. None of these
Explanation
All of the options listed are authorized headgear to be worn in NWUs. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these".

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• 14.

### How many communication articles are permitted to be worn while wearing a service dress uniform?

• A.

0

• B.

1

• C.

2

• D.

3

A. 0
Explanation
According to the question, the number of communication articles permitted to be worn while wearing a service dress uniform is being asked. The correct answer is 0, which means that no communication articles are allowed to be worn with a service dress uniform.

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• 15.

### How many years does a single service strip on the service dress uniform signify?

• A.

2

• B.

3

• C.

4

• D.

5

C. 4
Explanation
A single service strip on the service dress uniform signifies 4 years of service.

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• 16.

### How many years of consecutive good conduct warrant the wear of gold service stripes?

• A.

8

• B.

10

• C.

12

• D.

15

C. 12
Explanation
The wear of gold service stripes is warranted after 12 years of consecutive good conduct. This suggests that the individual has consistently demonstrated exemplary behavior and adherence to rules and regulations over a significant period of time. It is a recognition of their sustained commitment to maintaining high standards of conduct and professionalism.

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• 17.

### In which of these situations would the wear of NWUs be authorized?

• A.

Commercial railway

• B.

Commercial airlines

• C.

Ferry

• D.

Metro bus

• E.

Military flight

C. Ferry
D. Metro bus
E. Military flight
Explanation
The wear of NWUs (Navy Working Uniforms) would be authorized in situations such as traveling on a ferry, riding a metro bus, or being on a military flight. NWUs are typically worn by Navy personnel in authorized situations where civilian attire is not appropriate or when the individual is required to be in uniform. In these situations, the individuals would be representing the Navy and thus would be authorized to wear their NWUs.

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• 18.

### After donning the fleece liner and NWU parka, how far up must the zipper be zipped?

• A.

At least 1/2 way

• B.

All the way

• C.

At least 3/4 way

• D.

None of these

C. At least 3/4 way
Explanation
The correct answer is "At least 3/4 way". This is because when donning the fleece liner and NWU parka, it is important to zip the zipper at least 3/4 of the way up to ensure proper insulation and protection from the cold. This will help to keep the body warm and prevent any cold air from entering through the opening at the bottom of the zipper.

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• 19.

### What is the maximum length of the PTU shorts?

• A.

Must not extend below the bottom of the knee.

• B.

Must not extend below the top of the knee.

• C.

Anywhere between knee and upper thigh.

• D.

There is no regulation regarding the length of the PTU shorts.

B. Must not extend below the top of the knee.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Must not extend below the top of the knee." This means that the maximum length of the PTU shorts should not go beyond the knee. It implies that the shorts can be shorter, as long as they do not extend below the knee.

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• 20.

### At what point would a pregnant female stop wear the PTU?

• A.

When wearing the uniform becomes too tight.

• B.

Any time after the 2nd trimester

• C.

Any time after the 4th month of pregnancy

• D.

None of these

A. When wearing the uniform becomes too tight.
Explanation
The correct answer is "When wearing the uniform becomes too tight." This answer suggests that a pregnant female would stop wearing the PTU (presumably a type of uniform) when it becomes too tight on her body due to the growth of her pregnancy. This implies that the comfort and fit of the uniform are important factors in determining when she should stop wearing it. The other options do not specifically address the issue of the uniform becoming too tight.

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• 21.

### In relation to Selective Reenlistment Bonus, which of these is an actual zone?

• A.

Zone A - Up to 6 years

• B.

Zone B - 6 years to 12 years

• C.

Zone C - 12 years to 16 years

• D.

Zone D - 14 years to 20 years

A. Zone A - Up to 6 years
Explanation
Zone A is an actual zone in relation to Selective Reenlistment Bonus. It refers to individuals who have served up to 6 years in the military. This zone indicates that those who fall within this range are eligible for certain reenlistment bonuses based on their skills and qualifications.

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• 22.

### The total PNA points are determined from how many of the previous cycles?

• A.

2

• B.

3

• C.

5

• D.

6

C. 5
Explanation
The total PNA points are determined from the previous 5 cycles.

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• 23.

### In regards to PNA, what is the maximum number of points one can receive?

• A.

5

• B.

10

• C.

15

• D.

There is no limit.

C. 15
Explanation
The maximum number of points one can receive in regards to PNA is 15. This suggests that there is a limit to the number of points that can be obtained, and it is set at 15.

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• 24.

### PNA points are awarded to the top ____ percent of test-takers.

• A.

10

• B.

20

• C.

25

• D.

50

C. 25
Explanation
PNA points are awarded to the top 25 percent of test-takers. This means that only the top quarter of test-takers will receive PNA points.

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• 25.

### What is the maximum allowable award points for an E-4 who is up for advancement?

• A.

8

• B.

10

• C.

12

• D.

15

B. 10
Explanation
The maximum allowable award points for an E-4 who is up for advancement is 10. This suggests that in order to advance to the next rank, an E-4 can earn a maximum of 10 points through various achievements or accomplishments.

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• 26.

### What is the lowest trait mark average allowed for a sailor who has received an MP ranking?

• A.

1.0

• B.

2.0

• C.

3.0

• D.

There is no limit on the trait mark average for a sailor receiving an MP ranking.

C. 3.0
Explanation
Sailors who have received an MP ranking do not have a limit on their trait mark average. This means that there is no requirement for them to maintain a specific average in order to qualify for the MP ranking. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.0.

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• 27.

### A PO2 is signing a Promotable eval. He reviews the front page and sees that he has received a trait mark of 1.0 in Professional Expertise (Block 33). Should he speak up?

• A.

Yes.

• B.

No

A. Yes.
Explanation
The PO2 should speak up because receiving a trait mark of 1.0 in Professional Expertise indicates that there may be an error or discrepancy in the evaluation. It is important for the PO2 to address this issue and seek clarification or correction if necessary.

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• 28.

### A sailor is about to sign his Promotable eval. He sees that he has received a 2.0 trait mark in Military Bearing/Character (Block 35). Should he speak up?

• A.

Yes

• B.

No

A. Yes
Explanation
The sailor should speak up because receiving a 2.0 trait mark in Military Bearing/Character is a low score and could negatively impact his evaluation. By speaking up, he can address any misunderstandings or provide additional information that may have been overlooked, potentially improving his final evaluation.

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• 29.

### Females in uniform donning the command ball cap are permitted to allow the bun of the hair to protrude from the opening in the back of the command ball cap.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
Females in uniform donning the command ball cap are not permitted to allow the bun of the hair to protrude from the opening in the back of the command ball cap.

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• 30.

### While in uniform, one ring is permitted to be worn on the left thumb.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The statement says that while in uniform, one ring is permitted to be worn on the left thumb. However, this statement is false. Typically, when in uniform, rings are not worn on the thumb. The correct answer is false because the statement is incorrect.

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• 31.

### When calculating the FMS for E-4 and E-5, the value of the Standard Score(Exam) is weighted the highest, at 45%.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the answer being true is that when calculating the FMS (Fitness Management System) for E-4 and E-5, the value of the Standard Score(Exam) is given the highest weightage of 45%. This means that the performance on the exam has the most significant impact on the overall FMS score for individuals in the E-4 and E-5 ranks. Other factors may also be considered in the calculation, but the exam score holds the most weight in determining the final FMS score.

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• 32.

### E-5 Mid-term counseling is due in September.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The statement indicates that mid-term counseling is due in September. This implies that there is a requirement or expectation for counseling to take place during the month of September. Therefore, the correct answer is true, as it aligns with the information provided.

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• 33.

### E-4 evals are due in June.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The statement "E-4 evals are due in June" is true. This means that the E-4 evaluations are required to be submitted or completed in the month of June.

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• 34.

### The Good Conduct Medal gives 2 award points toward a sailor's FMS(Final Multiple Score).

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The Good Conduct Medal does not give 2 award points toward a sailor's FMS.

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• 35.

### E-2 Mid-term counseling is due in February.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The statement "E-2 Mid-term counseling is due in February" is false. The correct answer is false because mid-term counseling for E-2 is not due in February. The given statement does not provide any specific information about when the mid-term counseling is actually due, so it cannot be determined based on the given information.

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• 36.

### E-3 evals are due in July.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
The statement "E-3 evals are due in July" is true. This means that the evaluations for E-3 (which refers to a specific group or category) are required to be submitted or completed in the month of July.

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• 37.

### A sailor with 9 years of service falls into which SRB Zone?

• A.

Zone A

• B.

Zone B

• C.

Zone C

B. Zone B
Explanation
Based on the information provided, a sailor with 9 years of service falls into Zone B. The SRB (Selective Reenlistment Bonus) Zones are determined based on the number of years of service. Zone B typically includes sailors with 6 to 10 years of service, so the sailor in question falls within this range.

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• 38.

### How many points are awarded toward an advancement exam for holding a BA/BS?

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

3

• D.

4

D. 4
Explanation
The correct answer is 4 because holding a BA/BS (Bachelor's degree) typically awards the maximum number of points towards an advancement exam. This higher level of education is considered a significant achievement and demonstrates a greater level of knowledge and expertise in a particular field, making it deserving of the maximum number of points.

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• 39.

### E-6 evals are due in December.

• A.

True

• B.

False

B. False
Explanation
The statement "E-6 evals are due in December" is false. This means that the E-6 evaluations are not due in December.

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• 40.

### This ribbon represents which of the following?

• A.

Purple Heart

• B.

Humanitarian Service Medal

• C.

United Nations Medal

• D.

Joint Service Commendation Medal

B. Humanitarian Service Medal
Explanation
The correct answer is the Humanitarian Service Medal. The ribbon represents this medal, which is awarded to members of the United States Armed Forces who have performed acts of humanitarian service in a significant and direct manner. This could include providing assistance during natural disasters, refugee relief efforts, or other humanitarian missions. The purple color of the ribbon symbolizes compassion and empathy, reflecting the purpose of the medal.

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• 41.

### This ribbon represents which of the following?

• A.

Global War on Terrorism Service Medal

• B.

Sea Service Deployment Ribbon

• C.

Navy and Marine Corps Overseas Service Ribbon

• D.

Navy Unit Commendation

B. Sea Service Deployment Ribbon
Explanation
The Sea Service Deployment Ribbon is represented by this ribbon.

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• 42.

### This ribbon represents which of the following?

• A.

Navy Ceremonial Guard Service Ribbon

• B.

Iraq Campaign Medal

• C.

Navy/Marine Corps Expeditionary Medal

• D.

Military Outstanding Volunteer Service Medal

D. Military Outstanding Volunteer Service Medal
Explanation
The correct answer is the Military Outstanding Volunteer Service Medal. This medal is represented by a ribbon. It is awarded to members of the military who have demonstrated outstanding volunteer service to their community or to the military. It recognizes their dedication and commitment to serving others and making a positive impact.

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• 43.

### This ribbon represents which of the following?

• A.

Joint Service Commendation Medal

• B.

Meritorious Unit Commendation

• C.

Fleet Marine Force Ribbon

• D.

Defense Superior Service Medal

B. Meritorious Unit Commendation
Explanation
The correct answer is Meritorious Unit Commendation. The ribbon represents the Meritorious Unit Commendation, which is awarded to units of the United States Armed Forces for exceptionally meritorious conduct in the performance of outstanding services or achievements. It is given to units that have displayed commendable performance and exceptional dedication in their duties, making significant contributions to the mission and goals of the military.

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• 44.

### Upon requesting a "Bad Day" after a PRT failure, within how many days must the retest be issued?

• A.

24 hours

• B.

3 days

• C.

7 days

• D.

10 days

C. 7 days
Explanation
After experiencing a PRT failure and requesting a "Bad Day," the retest must be issued within 7 days. This means that the individual has a week to prepare and retake the Physical Readiness Test.

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• 45.

### What is the HYT(High Year Tenure) for an E-5?

• A.

8 years

• B.

10 years

• C.

12 years

• D.

14 years

D. 14 years
Explanation
The HYT (High Year Tenure) for an E-5 is 14 years. High Year Tenure refers to the maximum number of years a service member can serve in a particular rank before being promoted or separated from the military. In this case, an E-5, which is the rank of Sergeant in the U.S. Army, can serve for a maximum of 14 years before being promoted to the next rank or potentially separated from the military.

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• 46.

### When is the Navy's birthday?

• A.

October 13, 1776

• B.

October 13, 1775

• C.

October 15, 1775

• D.

November 13, 1776

B. October 13, 1775
Explanation
The correct answer is October 13, 1775. This is the date that the Navy was established in the United States. It was created by the Continental Congress during the American Revolutionary War.

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• 47.

### The PRT event is scored using five categories. Which of these is not a category?

• A.

Probationary

• B.

Satisfactory

• C.

Good

• D.

Excellent

• E.

Outstanding

• F.

Maximum

F. Maximum
Explanation
The question asks which of the given options is not a category used to score the PRT event. The options listed are Probationary, Satisfactory, Good, Excellent, Outstanding, and Maximum. All of the options except for "Maximum" are commonly used categories to score the PRT event. Therefore, "Maximum" is the correct answer as it is not a category used in scoring the PRT event.

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• 48.

### What are the eligibility requirements for a sailor to receive the Navy and Marine Corps Overseas Service Ribbon?

• A.

Serve 12 months of consecutive or accumulated duty at an overseas shore based duty station

• B.

Serve 180 days of consecutive or accumulated duty at an overseas ship based unit

• C.

Serve 90 days of consecutive or accumulated duty at an overseas shore based duty station

• D.

Serve 12 months of consecutive or accumulated duty at an overseas ship based unit

A. Serve 12 months of consecutive or accumulated duty at an overseas shore based duty station
Explanation
To be eligible for the Navy and Marine Corps Overseas Service Ribbon, a sailor must serve 12 months of consecutive or accumulated duty at an overseas shore based duty station. This means that they must be stationed at a duty station located on land overseas for a total of 12 months, whether it is served continuously or accumulated over time. This requirement does not apply to ship based units or duty stations.

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• 49.

### Which of the following is/are an authorized color for backpacks while wearing the Navy Working Uniform?

• A.

Brown

• B.

Black

• C.

Navy Blue

• D.

NWU

B. Black
C. Navy Blue
D. NWU
Explanation
The authorized colors for backpacks while wearing the Navy Working Uniform are black, navy blue, and NWU. These colors are approved to maintain uniformity and professionalism within the Navy. Brown is not an authorized color for backpacks in this uniform.

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• 50.

### A BCA failure will constitute an overall PFA failure for the cycle regardless of PRT results.

• A.

True

• B.

False

A. True
Explanation
This statement means that if there is a failure in the BCA (Breach Check Assembly) during a cycle, it will result in an overall failure for the PFA (Pressure Functional Assembly) regardless of the results of the PRT (Pressure Relief Test). In other words, even if the PRT results are within acceptable limits, if there is a failure in the BCA, the entire cycle will be considered a failure. Therefore, the answer is true.

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• Current Version
• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
• May 28, 2016
Quiz Created by
Jou13

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