Health Insurance Quiz: Test Your Knowledge

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Health Insurance Quiz: Test Your Knowledge - Quiz

Understanding health insurance can be complex, but our Health Insurance Quiz is here to help! Whether you're a novice wanting to learn more or a professional seeking to test your knowledge, this quiz is designed to challenge and educate. Dive into questions about different types of health insurance plans, coverage options, key terms, and benefits. You'll explore the intricacies of policies, understand what to look for when choosing a plan, and learn how to maximize your health benefits.
This quiz is perfect for anyone looking to enhance their understanding of health insurance, from students studying healthcare administration to individuals Read morewanting to make informed decisions about their own health coverage. Each question is crafted to provide valuable insights and explanations, helping you build a solid foundation in health insurance knowledge.
Share your results with friends and colleagues to compare your knowledge and learn together. Whether you're preparing for a career in healthcare or simply want to be better informed, our Health Insurance Quiz is a fun and interactive way to achieve your goals. Take the quiz now and become a health insurance expert!


Health Insurance Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    A combination federal/state medical assistance program that provides comprehensive and quality medical care for certain categories of low income and qualifying elderly people is

    • A.

      Medicare

    • B.

      Medicaid

    • C.

      Champva

    • D.

      Blue cross and blue shield

    Correct Answer
    B. Medicaid
    Explanation
    Medicaid is a combination federal/state medical assistance program that provides comprehensive and quality medical care for certain categories of low income and qualifying elderly people. It is different from Medicare, which primarily covers individuals over 65 years old and those with certain disabilities. Medicaid is specifically designed to assist those with limited financial resources and is administered by individual states within federal guidelines. CHAMPVA is a healthcare program for certain eligible veterans and their dependents, while Blue Cross and Blue Shield are private health insurance companies.

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  • 2. 

    The acronym for the medicaid program that was formerly referred to as AFDC is.

    • A.

      TANF

    • B.

      Hippa

    • C.

      Cobra

    • D.

      Tricare

    Correct Answer
    A. TANF
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TANF. TANF stands for Temporary Assistance for Needy Families, which is the current name for the Medicaid program that was previously known as AFDC (Aid to Families with Dependent Children). TANF is a federal assistance program that provides financial and medical assistance to low-income families, with the goal of promoting self-sufficiency and reducing dependency on government aid.

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  • 3. 

    To qualify for supplemental security income (SSI) individuals must meet certain financial guidelines set by

    • A.

      The U.S. constitution

    • B.

      Individual state laws

    • C.

      The federal poverty level (FPL)

    • D.

      The centers for medicare and medicaid services (CMS)

    Correct Answer
    C. The federal poverty level (FPL)
    Explanation
    To qualify for supplemental security income (SSI), individuals must meet certain financial guidelines set by the federal poverty level (FPL). The FPL is a measure used by the government to determine eligibility for various assistance programs, including SSI. It takes into account factors such as income and household size to determine if an individual or family falls below the poverty line. Meeting the financial guidelines set by the FPL ensures that individuals are in need of the financial assistance provided by SSI.

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  • 4. 

    The amount of the SSI payment is the difference between the federal benefit rate (FBR) and the persons

    • A.

      Net worth

    • B.

      Average wage

    • C.

      Taxable income

    • D.

      Countable income

    Correct Answer
    D. Countable income
    Explanation
    The correct answer is countable income. This is because the amount of the SSI payment is determined by subtracting the person's countable income from the federal benefit rate (FBR). Countable income refers to the income that is considered when calculating eligibility for SSI benefits. It includes wages, self-employment income, and other types of income. By subtracting countable income from the FBR, the SSI payment amount is determined.

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  • 5. 

    The medicaid program is administered by the

    • A.

      AMA

    • B.

      CMS

    • C.

      HIPPA

    • D.

      NAFTA

    Correct Answer
    B. CMS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CMS. CMS stands for the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, which is a federal agency within the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. They are responsible for administering the Medicaid program, along with Medicare and other healthcare programs. The AMA (American Medical Association) is a professional organization for physicians, HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal law that protects patient health information, and NAFTA (North American Free Trade Agreement) is a trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico.

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  • 6. 

    In order to receive federal matching funds in its medicaid program title XIX of the social security act requires that states offer certain basic services called

    • A.

      Monitoring

    • B.

      Service matching

    • C.

      Mandated services

    • D.

      Medicaid equalization

    Correct Answer
    C. Mandated services
    Explanation
    Title XIX of the Social Security Act requires that states offer certain basic services called mandated services in order to receive federal matching funds in their Medicaid program. These mandated services are essential healthcare services that must be provided to eligible individuals under the Medicaid program. By offering these services, states are able to ensure that their Medicaid program meets the federal requirements and qualifies for federal funding.

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  • 7. 

    Medically need individuals can reduce their assets to the medicaid eligibility level by deducting medical expenses this is called a/an

    • A.

      Use tariff

    • B.

      Spend down

    • C.

      Expense equalization

    • D.

      Medical expense payout

    Correct Answer
    B. Spend down
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "spend down." When medically needy individuals want to qualify for Medicaid, they can reduce their assets to the eligibility level by deducting medical expenses. This process is known as a "spend down." It involves spending or using up assets to meet the Medicaid eligibility criteria.

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  • 8. 

    A commercial insurer contracted by the department of health and human services (HHS) for the purpose of processing and administering medicaid claims is a

    • A.

      Claims contractor

    • B.

      Fiscal intermediary

    • C.

      Commercial advisor

    • D.

      Medicaid administrator

    Correct Answer
    B. Fiscal intermediary
    Explanation
    A fiscal intermediary is a correct answer because it refers to a third-party organization that is contracted by the government to process and administer claims for a specific program, such as Medicaid. In this case, the commercial insurer is acting as a fiscal intermediary for the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to handle Medicaid claims. The term "claims contractor" could also be a possible answer, but "fiscal intermediary" is a more specific and appropriate term in this context. "Commercial advisor" and "Medicaid administrator" do not accurately describe the role of the commercial insurer in this scenario.

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  • 9. 

    Individuals who receive medical assistance because their income falls within the poverty or FPL guidelines or as a result of SSI eligibility are considered

    • A.

      Medically needy

    • B.

      Medically deprived

    • C.

      Categorically needy

    • D.

      Medically challenged

    Correct Answer
    C. Categorically needy
    Explanation
    Individuals who receive medical assistance because their income falls within the poverty or FPL guidelines or as a result of SSI eligibility are considered categorically needy. This means that they meet specific criteria set by the government to qualify for medical assistance based on their income level or disability status. The term "categorically needy" refers to a specific group of individuals who are eligible for medical assistance due to their specific circumstances.

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  • 10. 

    The acronym for the program that provides comprehensive alternative care for non institutionalized elderly who otherwise would be in a nursing home is

    • A.

      PACE

    • B.

      COBRA

    • C.

      SCHIP

    • D.

      EMTLA

    Correct Answer
    A. PACE
    Explanation
    PACE stands for Program of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly. This program offers comprehensive alternative care for elderly individuals who would otherwise be in a nursing home. PACE provides a range of services, including medical care, therapy, social activities, and support services, to help seniors live independently in their own homes or communities. It aims to improve the quality of life for elderly individuals and provide them with the necessary care and support to maintain their health and well-being.

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  • 11. 

    As a general rule medicaid pays only for services that are

    • A.

      Over $100

    • B.

      Experimental

    • C.

      Federally mandated

    • D.

      Medically necessary

    Correct Answer
    D. Medically necessary
    Explanation
    Medicaid is a government program that provides healthcare coverage for low-income individuals. As a general rule, Medicaid only pays for services that are considered medically necessary. This means that the services must be required to diagnose or treat a medical condition, and they must be deemed appropriate and effective for the patient's condition. Medicaid does not cover services that are experimental, federally mandated, or solely based on cost. Therefore, the correct answer is "medically necessary."

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  • 12. 

    Before providing services to patients claiming to be on medicaid the health insurance professional should

    • A.

      Complete a claim

    • B.

      Verify eligibility

    • C.

      Check references

    • D.

      Ask for payment upfront

    Correct Answer
    B. Verify eligibility
    Explanation
    Before providing services to patients claiming to be on Medicaid, the health insurance professional should verify eligibility. This is important to ensure that the patient is indeed eligible for Medicaid and that the services provided will be covered by the insurance. Verifying eligibility helps prevent any potential issues or misunderstandings regarding payment and coverage, and ensures that the patient receives the appropriate healthcare services they are entitled to under their insurance plan.

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  • 13. 

    An individual who is eligible for both medicare and medicaid programs is said to be a/an

    • A.

      Dual eligible

    • B.

      Dual qualifier

    • C.

      Elderly qualifier

    • D.

      Tax exempt aged

    Correct Answer
    A. Dual eligible
    Explanation
    An individual who is eligible for both Medicare and Medicaid programs is said to be "dual eligible." This means that they meet the requirements for both programs and can receive benefits from both. Medicare is a federal health insurance program for individuals aged 65 and older, as well as certain younger individuals with disabilities. Medicaid, on the other hand, is a joint federal and state program that provides medical coverage for low-income individuals. Being dual eligible allows individuals to access a wider range of healthcare services and support.

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  • 14. 

    When an individual is covered under both medicaid and medicare and/or a private healthcare policy the payer of last resort is always

    • A.

      Medicare

    • B.

      Medicaid

    • C.

      Medigap

    • D.

      The private insurer

    Correct Answer
    B. Medicaid
    Explanation
    When an individual is covered under both Medicaid and Medicare and/or a private healthcare policy, Medicaid becomes the payer of last resort. This means that Medicaid will cover any remaining costs that are not covered by Medicare or the private insurer. Medicaid is designed to provide coverage for low-income individuals, so it takes precedence in ensuring that all necessary medical expenses are paid for.

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  • 15. 

    When one state allows medicaid beneficiaries to be treated in an adjacent state it is referred to as

    • A.

      Illegal

    • B.

      Joint care

    • C.

      Reciprocity

    • D.

      Dual state eligibility

    Correct Answer
    C. Reciprocity
    Explanation
    Reciprocity refers to the practice of one state allowing Medicaid beneficiaries to receive treatment in an adjacent state. This means that individuals enrolled in Medicaid can access healthcare services in a neighboring state without facing any restrictions or additional costs. Reciprocity promotes flexibility and ensures that beneficiaries can receive necessary medical care even if they are temporarily residing or traveling in a different state.

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  • 16. 

    When a medicaid beneficiary has no other healthcare coverage the type of claim to be submitted is called a

    • A.

      State claim

    • B.

      Unilateral claim

    • C.

      Functional claim

    • D.

      Medicaid simple claim

    Correct Answer
    D. Medicaid simple claim
    Explanation
    When a Medicaid beneficiary has no other healthcare coverage, the type of claim to be submitted is called a Medicaid simple claim. This claim is specifically designed for individuals who solely rely on Medicaid for their healthcare needs and do not have any other insurance coverage. It simplifies the claims process by focusing only on Medicaid benefits and eliminates the need for coordination with other insurance providers.

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  • 17. 

    Congress established the medicaid program under title XIX of the social security act in 1965.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because Congress did establish the Medicaid program under Title XIX of the Social Security Act in 1965. Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides health coverage to low-income individuals and families. It was created as part of President Lyndon B. Johnson's Great Society program, aimed at reducing poverty and improving access to healthcare for vulnerable populations. Medicaid has since become a vital source of healthcare coverage for millions of Americans.

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  • 18. 

    Every state has the medicaid benefits.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement "every state has the Medicaid benefits" is false. While Medicaid is a federal program that provides healthcare coverage to low-income individuals, each state has the flexibility to determine the eligibility criteria, benefits, and coverage options within certain federal guidelines. Therefore, the availability and extent of Medicaid benefits can vary from state to state.

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  • 19. 

    There is a medicaid program in all 50 states the district of columbia and u.s. territories.

    • A.

      Ture

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. Ture
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given answer is that there is indeed a Medicaid program available in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and U.S. territories. Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides health coverage to low-income individuals and families. It is administered by the states within certain federal guidelines, and each state has its own specific Medicaid program. Therefore, it is true that there is a Medicaid program in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and U.S. territories.

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  • 20. 

    CMS determines eligibility criteria for SSI.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) does not determine the eligibility criteria for SSI (Supplemental Security Income). The Social Security Administration (SSA) is responsible for determining the eligibility criteria for SSI benefits. CMS primarily focuses on administering the Medicare and Medicaid programs, which are separate from SSI.

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  • 21. 

    The federal government establishes broad national guidelines for medicaid eligibility and each state establishes its own eligibility standards within federal guidelines.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the federal government sets general guidelines for Medicaid eligibility, but each state has the authority to establish its own specific eligibility standards within those federal guidelines. This allows states to adapt the program to their unique needs and demographics while still adhering to the overall framework set by the federal government.

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  • 22. 

    States must cover categorically needy individuals but are free to define this category.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true because according to federal law, states are required to provide coverage for individuals who meet the criteria of being categorically needy. However, each state has the flexibility to define who falls under this category based on their own guidelines and regulations. This allows states to tailor their Medicaid programs to the specific needs of their population while still ensuring coverage for those who are categorically needy.

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  • 23. 

    States must participate in the state childrens health insurance program (SCHIP).

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement states that states must participate in the State Children's Health Insurance Program (SCHIP), but the correct answer is false. This means that states are not required to participate in SCHIP.

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  • 24. 

    Hospitals that receive additional payments to ensure that communities have access to certain high cost services are called disproportional share hospitals

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Disproportionate share hospitals are indeed hospitals that receive additional payments to ensure that communities have access to certain high-cost services. These hospitals typically serve a higher proportion of low-income and uninsured patients, and the additional payments help offset the financial burden of providing care to these populations.

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  • 25. 

    All healthcare providers in all states must accept medicaid patients.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because not all healthcare providers in all states are required to accept Medicaid patients. While Medicaid is a government health insurance program for low-income individuals, healthcare providers have the choice to participate or not. Some providers may choose not to accept Medicaid due to various reasons, such as low reimbursement rates or administrative burdens. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that all healthcare providers in all states must accept Medicaid patients.

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  • 26. 

    Medicaid recipients who qualify for benefits in January will qualify for the remainder of the year.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because Medicaid eligibility is determined on a monthly basis, not for the entire year. Just because someone qualifies for benefits in January doesn't guarantee their eligibility for the rest of the year. Recipients must meet the income and other eligibility requirements each month to continue receiving benefits.

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  • 27. 

    One method of verifying medicaid eligibility is the automated voice response system.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because one of the methods used to verify Medicaid eligibility is the automated voice response system. This system allows individuals to call a designated phone number and provide their personal information to determine if they qualify for Medicaid benefits. The automated system uses the provided information to verify eligibility based on predetermined criteria, providing a quick and efficient way to determine eligibility without the need for manual processing.

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  • 28. 

    In order to qualify for medicaid the individual must be at least 65 years of age.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    To qualify for Medicaid, an individual does not necessarily have to be at least 65 years of age. Medicaid is a healthcare program in the United States that provides assistance to low-income individuals and families. Eligibility criteria for Medicaid vary from state to state, but age is not a universal requirement. Other factors such as income level, disability status, and family size are taken into consideration when determining eligibility for Medicaid. Therefore, the statement that an individual must be at least 65 years of age to qualify for Medicaid is false.

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  • 29. 

    Most states have their own specific for to use for medicaid claims.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. While it is true that most states have their own specific forms for Medicaid claims, it is not true that all states have their own specific form. Some states may use a standardized form provided by the federal government for Medicaid claims. Therefore, the statement is not universally true for all states.

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  • 30. 

    Every time a medicaid claim is submitted a document is generated called a remittance advice (RA).

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A remittance advice (RA) is a document that is generated every time a Medicaid claim is submitted. This document provides information about the payment or denial of the claim, including details such as the amount paid, the reason for denial, and any adjustments made. Therefore, the statement that every time a Medicaid claim is submitted, a remittance advice is generated is true.

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  • 31. 

    Medicaid payments are normally sent directly to the provider and balance billing is not allowed.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Medicaid payments are typically sent directly to healthcare providers, bypassing the patient. This means that the providers receive payment directly from Medicaid for the services rendered to the patient. Additionally, balance billing is not allowed in Medicaid, which means that providers cannot bill the patient for any remaining balance after Medicaid has made its payment. Therefore, the statement that Medicaid payments are sent directly to the provider and balance billing is not allowed is true.

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  • 32. 

    The legal obligation of other insurance policies/programs to pay all or part of the expenditures for medical assistance furnished under a state plan is referred to as ___________ __________ _______________.

    Correct Answer
    third party liability
    Explanation
    Third party liability refers to the legal responsibility of other insurance policies or programs to cover the costs of medical assistance provided under a state plan. This means that if a person has multiple insurance policies or programs, such as private insurance or worker's compensation, they may be required to pay for all or part of the medical expenses before the state plan provides coverage. This helps ensure that the state plan is not the sole source of payment for medical services and allows for cost-sharing among different insurance providers.

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  • 33. 

    Because of certain side effects of atomoxetine (strattera) children taking this medication should be monitored for

    • A.

      Enuresis

    • B.

      Growth and development

    • C.

      Dizziness

    • D.

      Diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    B. Growth and development
    Explanation
    Children taking atomoxetine (Strattera) should be monitored for growth and development because this medication has been associated with slower growth in some children. Atomoxetine is a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It is important to monitor children's growth and development while on this medication to ensure that any potential effects on growth are identified and addressed promptly. This monitoring allows healthcare providers to make appropriate adjustments to the medication if necessary and to ensure that children are growing and developing normally.

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  • 34. 

    Hypnotic and sedative agents can become lethal when taken in combination with which of the following?

    • A.

      Central nervous system (CNS) stimulant agents

    • B.

      CNS depressant agents

    • C.

      Antibiotic agents

    • D.

      Antacid agents

    Correct Answer
    B. CNS depressant agents
    Explanation
    Hypnotic and sedative agents are substances that have a calming and sleep-inducing effect on the central nervous system (CNS). When taken in combination with CNS depressant agents, which also have a sedating effect on the CNS, the effects can be intensified and potentially lead to respiratory depression, coma, or even death. Mixing these two types of drugs can result in a dangerous overdose, as both substances have a similar mechanism of action and can potentiate each other's effects. Therefore, taking hypnotic and sedative agents with CNS depressant agents can be lethal.

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  • 35. 

    Because of a common side effect of narcotic analgesic agents such as morphine patients who are taking them on a regular basis should most likely be taking which of the following in addition?

    • A.

      Stool softeners

    • B.

      Antacid agents

    • C.

      Anticoagulant agents

    • D.

      Bronchodilator agents

    Correct Answer
    A. Stool softeners
    Explanation
    Patients who are taking narcotic analgesic agents such as morphine on a regular basis often experience constipation as a common side effect. Stool softeners help to alleviate this issue by making the stool easier to pass. Therefore, it is most likely that patients taking narcotic analgesics would need to take stool softeners in addition to their regular medication.

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  • 36. 

    Atropine is given preoperatively with narcotic medications for which of the following reasons?

    • A.

      Potentiation of analgesia and decreased peristalsis

    • B.

      Reduction of secretions in the mouth and respiratory tract and decreased respiratory depression

    • C.

      Prevention of cardiac arrhythmia's and regulation of heart rate

    • D.

      Increased secretion of tears and temperature regulation

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduction of secretions in the mouth and respiratory tract and decreased respiratory depression
    Explanation
    Atropine is given preoperatively with narcotic medications to reduce secretions in the mouth and respiratory tract and decrease respiratory depression. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter responsible for stimulating secretions and causing respiratory depression. By inhibiting these effects, atropine helps to keep the airways clear and prevent complications such as aspiration pneumonia. It also helps to maintain a stable respiratory rate during surgery.

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  • 37. 

    One advantage of fentanyl (duragesic) for analgesia is which of the following?

    • A.

      It is not habit forming.

    • B.

      It is available in transdermal patches.

    • C.

      It does not pass into breast milk.

    • D.

      It does not cause drug interactions with other medications.

    Correct Answer
    B. It is available in transdermal patches.
    Explanation
    Fentanyl (Duragesic) being available in transdermal patches is advantageous for analgesia because it allows for controlled and continuous release of the medication over an extended period of time. This method of administration provides a consistent level of pain relief and avoids the need for frequent dosing or injections. Additionally, transdermal patches offer convenience and ease of use for patients, as they can be applied to the skin and worn discreetly.

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  • 38. 

    Reversal of overdoses of narcotic and opioid agents is managed with which of the following?

    • A.

      Narcan

    • B.

      Romazicon

    • C.

      Pavulon

    • D.

      Eserine

    Correct Answer
    A. Narcan
    Explanation
    Narcan is the correct answer for managing the reversal of overdoses of narcotic and opioid agents. Narcan, also known as naloxone, is an opioid antagonist that rapidly binds to opioid receptors in the brain, blocking the effects of narcotics and opioids. It can quickly reverse the respiratory depression and other life-threatening effects caused by an overdose. Romazicon is used for reversing the effects of benzodiazepines, pavulon is a muscle relaxant, and eserine is a cholinesterase inhibitor. Therefore, Narcan is the most appropriate choice for managing narcotic and opioid overdoses.

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  • 39. 

    Risk of reyes syndrome can be avoided in children with fever by using which of the following antipyretic agents?

    • A.

      Darvon

    • B.

      Stadol

    • C.

      Tylenol

    • D.

      Imitrex

    Correct Answer
    C. Tylenol
    Explanation
    Reyes syndrome is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children and teenagers recovering from a viral infection, especially with the use of aspirin. Therefore, to avoid the risk of Reyes syndrome in children with fever, it is recommended to use antipyretic agents that do not contain aspirin. Tylenol (also known as acetaminophen) is a commonly used antipyretic agent that does not contain aspirin, making it a safe choice for children with fever. Darvon, Stadol, and Imitrex are not antipyretic agents and do not provide relief from fever.

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  • 40. 

    The side effects of sumatriptan (imitrex) may produce which of the following?

    • A.

      Angina or hypertension

    • B.

      Orthostatic hypotension

    • C.

      Blurred vision

    • D.

      Fever of malaise

    Correct Answer
    A. Angina or hypertension
    Explanation
    Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is a medication used to treat migraines. One of the potential side effects of this medication is angina or hypertension. Angina refers to chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, while hypertension is high blood pressure. These side effects may occur due to the vasoconstrictive properties of sumatriptan, which can cause narrowing of the blood vessels. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and consult a healthcare professional if they occur.

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  • 41. 

    To improve appetite and digestion in a nursing home client which of the following might be prescribed?

    • A.

      Corticosteroid agents

    • B.

      Antihistamine agents

    • C.

      Alcohol

    • D.

      Analgesic agents

    Correct Answer
    C. Alcohol
    Explanation
    Alcohol might be prescribed to improve appetite and digestion in a nursing home client because it can act as a stimulant for the digestive system, increasing the production of stomach acid and promoting the secretion of digestive enzymes. Additionally, alcohol can stimulate the appetite by triggering the release of certain hormones that regulate hunger. However, it is important to note that alcohol should be used cautiously and in moderation, as excessive consumption can have negative effects on overall health and can interact with medications.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is used to control the pain of trigeminal neuralgia in addition to seizures?

    • A.

      Dilantin

    • B.

      Cerebyx

    • C.

      Tegretol

    • D.

      Klonopin

    Correct Answer
    C. Tegretol
    Explanation
    Tegretol is used to control the pain of trigeminal neuralgia in addition to seizures. Trigeminal neuralgia is a chronic pain condition that affects the trigeminal nerve, causing severe facial pain. Tegretol, also known as carbamazepine, is an anticonvulsant medication that helps to reduce the frequency and intensity of seizures. It is also effective in relieving the pain associated with trigeminal neuralgia by blocking the nerve impulses responsible for transmitting pain signals. Therefore, Tegretol is commonly prescribed as a treatment option for both seizures and trigeminal neuralgia.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is a combination product used in the treatment of parkinsons disease?

    • A.

      Larodopa

    • B.

      Dopar

    • C.

      Methyldopa

    • D.

      Sinemet

    Correct Answer
    D. Sinemet
    Explanation
    Sinemet is a combination product used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease. It contains two active ingredients, carbidopa and levodopa. Levodopa is converted into dopamine in the brain, which helps alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Carbidopa helps prevent the breakdown of levodopa before it reaches the brain, allowing for a higher amount of levodopa to be available for conversion. Therefore, Sinemet is an effective medication for managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following drugs stimulate the central nervous system (CNS)?

    • A.

      Alcohol

    • B.

      Analgesic agents

    • C.

      Anesthetic agents

    • D.

      Amphetamine agents

    Correct Answer
    D. Amphetamine agents
    Explanation
    Amphetamine agents stimulate the central nervous system (CNS). Amphetamines are a class of drugs that increase the release and inhibit the reuptake of certain neurotransmitters, such as dopamine and norepinephrine, in the brain. This leads to increased alertness, focus, and energy levels. Amphetamines are commonly used to treat conditions like attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy. They can also be abused for their stimulant effects, leading to feelings of euphoria and increased energy.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following can be used in transdermal patches to treat pain?

    • A.

      Codeine

    • B.

      Demerol

    • C.

      Duragesic

    • D.

      Catapres

    Correct Answer
    C. Duragesic
    Explanation
    Duragesic can be used in transdermal patches to treat pain. Duragesic is a brand name for the medication fentanyl, which is a potent opioid analgesic. Transdermal patches provide a controlled release of the medication through the skin, allowing for continuous pain relief over an extended period of time. Fentanyl is commonly used for the management of chronic pain when other pain medications are not sufficient. Therefore, Duragesic is a suitable option for inclusion in transdermal patches to treat pain.

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  • 46. 

    Naloxone (narcan) is given for the treatment of which of the following?

    • A.

      Neuropathic pain

    • B.

      Narcotic overdose

    • C.

      Nonspecific inflammation

    • D.

      New onset parkinsons disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Narcotic overdose
    Explanation
    Naloxone (Narcan) is given for the treatment of narcotic overdose. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that works by blocking the effects of opioids in the body, thereby reversing the respiratory depression and sedation caused by an opioid overdose. It is commonly used in emergency situations to rapidly restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals who have overdosed on narcotics such as heroin or prescription opioids.

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  • 47. 

    Which synthetic opioid agent is preferred over morphine in obstetrics?

    • A.

      Duragesic

    • B.

      Demerol

    • C.

      Dolophine

    • D.

      Codeine

    Correct Answer
    B. Demerol
    Explanation
    Demerol is the preferred synthetic opioid agent over morphine in obstetrics. This is because Demerol has a shorter duration of action and is less likely to accumulate in the fetus or newborn, making it a safer option during labor and delivery. Additionally, Demerol has less respiratory depression compared to morphine, which is important in obstetric cases where the mother's respiratory function needs to be preserved.

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  • 48. 

    Which medication is effective in the control of tonic-clonic seizures?

    • A.

      Klonopin

    • B.

      Tegretol

    • C.

      Valium

    • D.

      Zarontin

    Correct Answer
    B. Tegretol
    Explanation
    Tegretol is effective in the control of tonic-clonic seizures. It is an anticonvulsant medication that works by reducing the abnormal electrical activity in the brain that causes seizures. Tegretol is commonly prescribed for the treatment of epilepsy and has been found to be particularly effective in controlling tonic-clonic seizures, which involve both muscle stiffness (tonic phase) and jerking movements (clonic phase). It helps to prevent the occurrence of seizures and reduce their severity.

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  • 49. 

    Long term use of opioid analgesic agents often leads to which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Constipation

    • B.

      Diarrhea

    • C.

      Ulcers

    • D.

      Gastrointestinal bleeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Constipation
    Explanation
    Long-term use of opioid analgesic agents often leads to constipation. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, slowing down the movement of the intestines and reducing the frequency of bowel movements. This can result in constipation, which is a common side effect of opioid use.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following characterizes absence seizures?

    • A.

      Tonic-clonic movements

    • B.

      Loss of bladder and or bowel control

    • C.

      Repetitive nonproductive motions

    • D.

      Alteration of consciousness lasting only a few seconds

    Correct Answer
    D. Alteration of consciousness lasting only a few seconds
    Explanation
    Absence seizures are characterized by a brief alteration of consciousness that lasts only a few seconds. During these seizures, the person may appear to be staring blankly into space and may not respond to their surroundings. They may also experience subtle movements such as eye blinking or lip smacking, but they do not exhibit the tonic-clonic movements typically associated with other types of seizures. Loss of bladder or bowel control and repetitive nonproductive motions are not typically seen in absence seizures.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 01, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Coofoogirl555
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