Fundamentals Of Nursing IV: Nursing Process, Physical And Health Assessment And Routine Procedures (Practice Mode)
Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. No time Limit. Correct answer will be revealed after each question. Good luck! Content Outline1. The nursing process2. Physical Assessment3. Health Assessment3. A Temperature3. B Pulse3. C Respiration3. D Blood pressure 4. Routine Procedures4. A Urinalysis specimen collection4. B Sputum specimen collection4. C Urine examination4. D Positioning pre-procedure4. E Stool specimen collection
Questions and Answers
- 1.
She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.
- A.
Nightingale
- B.
Johnson
- C.
Rogers
- D.
Hall
Correct Answer
D. HallExplanation
Hall is the correct answer because she is credited with being the first one to coin the term "NURSING PROCESS" and introduced the three steps of observation, ministration, and validation. Nightingale, Johnson, and Rogers are not associated with these contributions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?
- A.
APIE – 4
- B.
ADPIE – 5
- C.
ADOPIE – 6
- D.
ADOPIER – 7
Correct Answer
C. ADOPIE – 6Explanation
The correct answer is ADOPIE - 6. The nursing process consists of six distinct steps: Assessment, Diagnosis, Outcome Identification, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. Each step is crucial in providing effective and holistic patient care.Rate this question:
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- 3.
They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation. 1. Yura 2. Walsh 3. Roy 4. Knowles
- A.
1,2
- B.
1,3
- C.
3,4
- D.
2,3
Correct Answer
A. 1,2Explanation
Yura and Walsh are the correct answers because they were the first ones to suggest the 4 step nursing process known as APIE, which stands for assessment, planning, implementation, and evaluation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?
- A.
Organized and Systematic
- B.
Humanistic
- C.
Efficient
- D.
Effective
Correct Answer
C. EfficientExplanation
Efficient is the characteristic of the nursing process that is responsible for the proper utilization of human resources, time, and cost resources. Efficiency refers to the ability to accomplish tasks with minimal wasted effort or resources. In the context of nursing, being efficient means effectively managing and allocating human resources, time, and cost resources to provide optimal care to patients. This includes prioritizing tasks, minimizing unnecessary steps, and utilizing resources effectively to achieve desired outcomes. By being efficient, nurses can ensure that resources are used wisely, ultimately leading to improved patient care and outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
- A.
Organized and Systematic
- B.
Humanistic
- C.
Efficient
- D.
Effective
Correct Answer
B. HumanisticExplanation
The characteristic of nursing process that addresses the individualized care a client must receive is humanistic. Humanistic care focuses on the unique needs and preferences of each individual, recognizing their values, beliefs, and cultural background. It emphasizes the importance of treating clients with dignity, respect, and compassion, and tailoring care to meet their specific needs. This approach ensures that clients receive personalized care that is sensitive to their individual circumstances and promotes their overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.
- A.
Organized and Systematic
- B.
Humanistic
- C.
Efficient
- D.
Effective
Correct Answer
D. EffectiveExplanation
Effective is the correct answer because in order to promote client satisfaction and progress, the nursing care provided should be able to achieve the desired outcomes and goals for the client. It should be able to produce the intended results and be successful in addressing the client's needs. Being effective means that the nursing care is able to meet the client's goals and expectations, leading to positive outcomes and overall satisfaction.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment? 1. Rhina is giving an objective data 2. Rhina is giving a subjective data 3. The source of the data is primary 4. The source of the data is secondary
- A.
1,3
- B.
2,3
- C.
2.4
- D.
1,4
Correct Answer
B. 2,3Explanation
Rhina stating that her environment is moving is a subjective data because it is based on her personal perception and experience. The source of the data is primary because it is coming directly from Rhina herself, who is experiencing the symptoms of Menieres disease.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
A. ActualExplanation
The given nursing diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE is classified as an Actual nursing diagnosis. This is because the client is currently experiencing symptoms of anxiety such as dyspnea, diaphoresis, and asking lots of questions. The diagnosis reflects the client's current condition and is based on the observed signs and symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
D. RiskExplanation
The given scenario states that Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado with SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE even before the client has seen her lost leg. This indicates that the diagnosis is based on the anticipation of a potential problem or complication that may occur in the future. Therefore, the type of diagnosis in this case is a Risk diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
C. PossibleExplanation
This is a possible diagnosis because Nurse Angela is unsure about her initial diagnosis and is gathering data to either refute or prove it. The ongoing plans and interventions suggest that the diagnosis is not yet confirmed. Therefore, it is a possible diagnosis.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?
- A.
Actual
- B.
Probable
- C.
Possible
- D.
Risk
Correct Answer
D. RiskExplanation
Based on the information provided, Nurse Angela is aware that Stephen Lee Mu Chin has just undergone an operation near the diaphragm, which increases the likelihood of complications in the future. Therefore, she should develop a nursing diagnosis of "Risk," indicating that there is a potential for complications to occur.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?
- A.
Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
- B.
High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
- C.
Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one
- D.
Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg
Correct Answer
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side railsExplanation
The nursing diagnosis "High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails" is incorrect because the absence of side rails does not directly pose a risk for injury. Side rails are typically used to prevent falls, but their absence does not automatically indicate a high risk for injury. Other factors such as impaired mobility or cognitive impairment would need to be considered to accurately assess the risk for injury.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
- A.
Client is in extreme pain
- B.
Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
- C.
Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
- D.
Client is cyanotic
Correct Answer
D. Client is cyanoticExplanation
The client being cyanotic should be given the highest priority because cyanosis is a sign of inadequate oxygenation in the body. It indicates a potentially life-threatening condition and requires immediate attention. The other statements also indicate concerning symptoms, but cyanosis is the most critical and requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's well-being.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?
- A.
The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is needed
- B.
The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation
- C.
The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone
- D.
The client is thirsty and dehydrated
Correct Answer
D. The client is thirsty and dehydratedExplanation
Thirst and dehydration are basic physiological needs that must be addressed immediately to ensure the client's survival and well-being. In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs such as food, water, and shelter are considered the most fundamental and take priority over other needs such as safety, love, and self-esteem. Therefore, addressing the client's thirst and dehydration should be given a higher priority among the given options.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?
- A.
They are specific, measurable, attainable and time bounded
- B.
They are general and broadly stated
- C.
They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.
- D.
Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.
Correct Answer
B. They are general and broadly statedExplanation
Client goals are general and broadly stated. This means that they are not specific, measurable, attainable, and time-bound. They do not provide detailed information on who is involved, what actions need to be taken, what circumstances are relevant, how well the goal should be achieved, and when it should be accomplished. The example provided, "After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection," illustrates a general and broadly stated goal.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?
- A.
Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge
- B.
Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedure
- C.
Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching session
- D.
Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination
Correct Answer
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of eliminationExplanation
The statement "Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination" is not a correct statement of an Outcome criteria because it does not specify what is meant by a "normal pattern of elimination." Outcome criteria should be specific and measurable, but this statement is vague and subjective. It does not provide any clear criteria or indicators to determine whether a normal pattern of elimination has been achieved.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?
- A.
Dizziness
- B.
Chest pain
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Blue nails
Correct Answer
D. Blue nailsExplanation
Blue nails is an objective data because it is a physical observation that can be measured and documented. Dizziness, chest pain, and anxiety are subjective symptoms that can vary from person to person and are based on individual perception and experience. Objective data is factual and can be observed and measured by multiple individuals, making it more reliable and consistent.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A patient’s chart is what type of data source?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
Can be A and B
Correct Answer
B. SecondaryExplanation
A patient's chart is considered a secondary data source because it contains information that has been collected and recorded by someone other than the patient themselves. This data is typically compiled by healthcare professionals and includes details such as medical history, test results, and treatment plans. Secondary data sources are valuable for research and analysis purposes as they provide a comprehensive overview of a patient's health and medical care.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except
- A.
Dynamic
- B.
Cyclical
- C.
Universal
- D.
Intrapersonal
Correct Answer
D. IntrapersonalExplanation
The nursing process is a systematic method that nurses use to provide patient-centered care. It involves assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating the patient's needs. The characteristics of the nursing process include being dynamic, as it is constantly changing and adapting to the patient's condition. It is also cyclical, meaning that it is a continuous process that repeats itself. The nursing process is universal, meaning that it can be applied to all patients regardless of their age, gender, or medical condition. However, the nursing process is not intrapersonal, as it involves interactions between the nurse and the patient, as well as other healthcare professionals.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?
- A.
It is nursing centered
- B.
Rationales are supported by interventions
- C.
Verbal
- D.
At least 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis
Correct Answer
A. It is nursing centeredExplanation
The correct answer is that the nursing care plan is nursing-centered. This means that the plan is focused on the nursing interventions and actions that need to be taken to address the patient's needs and achieve their desired outcomes. The nursing care plan is developed by the nurse and is based on the assessment of the patient's condition and the identified nursing diagnoses. It outlines the specific goals and interventions that are necessary to provide effective care and support to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.
- A.
Functional health framework
- B.
Head to toe framework
- C.
Body system framework
- D.
Cephalocaudal framework
Correct Answer
A. Functional health frameworkExplanation
The functional health framework is a comprehensive approach to health assessment that considers the effects of stressors on the mind, body, and environment. It focuses on the client's ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL) and evaluates how stressors impact their overall functioning. This framework takes into account the holistic nature of health and recognizes the interconnectedness of physical, mental, and environmental factors in influencing an individual's well-being.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?
- A.
Functional health framework
- B.
Head to toe framework
- C.
Body system framework
- D.
Cephalocaudal framework
Correct Answer
C. Body system frameworkExplanation
The client has undergone both Upper GI and Lower GI series, which are diagnostic tests used to assess the functioning and structure of the gastrointestinal system. Therefore, the type of health assessment framework used in this situation is the body system framework. This framework focuses on assessing specific body systems and their functioning rather than looking at the client as a whole or assessing functional abilities.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?
- A.
Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperature
- B.
The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
- C.
The older the person, the higher his BMR
- D.
When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases
Correct Answer
B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or roundExplanation
The bulb used in rectal temperature reading is pear-shaped or round. This is because the rectal thermometer is designed to be inserted into the rectum and the bulb shape allows for easy insertion and removal. The shape also helps to ensure that the thermometer stays in place during the reading. Rectal temperature is considered to be one of the most accurate methods of measuring body temperature as it provides a close approximation of core body temperature.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current
- A.
Convection
- B.
Conduction
- C.
Radiation
- D.
Evaporation
Correct Answer
A. ConvectionExplanation
Convection is the correct answer because it refers to the transfer of heat through the movement of a fluid, in this case, air. When there is an air current, the heat is carried away from the source and dissipated into the surrounding environment. This type of heat loss occurs commonly in situations where there is air circulation, such as when a fan is blowing or when warm air rises and cold air sinks. Conduction, radiation, and evaporation are all different mechanisms of heat transfer, but they do not specifically involve the dissipation of heat by air current.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?
- A.
The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
- B.
The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
- C.
Thyroxin decreases body temperature
- D.
Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.
Correct Answer
A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.NExplanation
The answer states that the highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N. This is true because during the day, the sun's rays heat up the Earth's surface, and the warmest part of the day is usually in the late afternoon or early evening when the sun has had the most time to heat the surface. As the evening progresses, the heat absorbed by the Earth's surface is released back into the atmosphere, causing the temperature to rise. Therefore, the highest temperature is typically observed later in the day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than
- A.
40 degree Celsius
- B.
39 degree Celsius
- C.
100 degree Fahrenheit
- D.
105.8 degree Fahrenheit
Correct Answer
D. 105.8 degree FahrenheitExplanation
Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the body temperature is extremely high. The correct answer, 105.8 degrees Fahrenheit, indicates a temperature that is significantly above the normal range. This level of hyperpyrexia can be dangerous and may indicate a severe underlying medical condition or infection. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if experiencing such a high temperature.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is
- A.
High
- B.
Low
- C.
At the low end of the normal range
- D.
At the high end of the normal range
Correct Answer
D. At the high end of the normal rangeExplanation
The tympanic temperature reading of 37.9 degrees Celsius falls at the high end of the normal range. This means that the client's temperature is within the normal range, but on the higher side. It suggests that the client may have a slight fever or an elevated body temperature, which could be indicative of an infection or inflammation. However, further assessment and evaluation are necessary to determine the exact cause of the symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 28.
John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?
- A.
Relapsing
- B.
Intermittent
- C.
Remittent
- D.
Constant
Correct Answer
C. RemittentExplanation
John is experiencing a remittent fever. This type of fever is characterized by fluctuations in temperature, where it rises to a high point and then returns to a baseline temperature multiple times within a day. In this case, John's fever spikes at around 40 degrees Celsius and then goes back to 38.5 degrees Celsius six times, indicating a remittent pattern.Rate this question:
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- 29.
John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?
- A.
Relapsing
- B.
Intermittent
- C.
Remittent
- D.
Constant
Correct Answer
A. RelapsingExplanation
John is experiencing a relapsing fever. A relapsing fever is characterized by recurring episodes of fever interspersed with periods of normal temperature. In this case, John had a fever of 39.5 degrees two days ago, followed by a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees yesterday. Today, his temperature surged to 40 degrees, indicating another episode of fever. This pattern of alternating fever and normal temperature points to a relapsing fever.Rate this question:
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- 30.
John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?
- A.
Relapsing
- B.
Intermittent
- C.
Remittent
- D.
Constant
Correct Answer
B. IntermittentExplanation
The term "intermittent" means occurring at irregular intervals. In this scenario, John's temperature was normal 10 hours ago, then he had a fever 4 hours ago, and now his temperature is back to normal. This indicates that his fever is occurring at irregular intervals, making the best description for his fever "intermittent".Rate this question:
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- 31.
The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:
- A.
Tricyclic
- B.
Bicyclic
- C.
Biphasic
- D.
Triphasic
Correct Answer
C. BiphasicExplanation
The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as biphasic. This means that the fever occurs in two phases. The first phase is typically a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a period of normal or slightly below-normal body temperature. After this, the second phase begins, which is characterized by another fever that lasts for a few more days. This biphasic pattern of fever is commonly seen in dengue infections and is one of the distinguishing features of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:
- A.
The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria
- B.
The desired goal has been partially met
- C.
The goal is not completely met
- D.
The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria
Correct Answer
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteriaExplanation
The nurse would assess this event as "The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria" because although John's fever was brought down dramatically, it did not reach the desired outcome criteria of returning to a normal body temperature.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?
- A.
Hot, flushed skin
- B.
Increase thirst
- C.
Convulsion
- D.
Pale,cold skin
Correct Answer
D. Pale,cold skinExplanation
At the onset stage of fever, Marianne may experience pale, cold skin. This is because during the initial stages of a fever, the body's temperature regulation system is just starting to respond to the infection or illness. As a result, blood vessels near the skin constrict, causing the skin to appear pale and feel cold to the touch. This is a common symptom that can occur before the body starts to heat up and develop other symptoms such as hot, flushed skin.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?
- A.
Delirium
- B.
Goose flesh
- C.
Cyanotic nail beds
- D.
Sweating
Correct Answer
D. SweatingExplanation
At the Defervescence stage of a fever, the body temperature starts to decrease. Sweating is expected during this stage as it is the body's natural mechanism to cool down and regulate temperature. Therefore, Marianne experiencing sweating is consistent with the expected symptoms at this stage of the fever.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking
- A.
Oral
- B.
Rectal
- C.
Tympanic
- D.
Axillary
Correct Answer
A. OralExplanation
Oral temperature taking is considered the most accessible and convenient method because it is non-invasive and easy to perform. It involves placing a thermometer under the tongue and waiting for a few seconds to get an accurate reading. This method is widely used in homes, schools, and healthcare settings due to its simplicity and reliability. Additionally, oral temperature taking is suitable for people of all ages, making it a popular choice for routine temperature monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking
- A.
Oral
- B.
Rectal
- C.
Tympanic
- D.
Axillary
Correct Answer
D. AxillaryExplanation
Axillary temperature taking is considered the safest and most non-invasive method because it involves placing the thermometer in the armpit. This method does not require insertion into any body cavities like the rectum or ear, which can be uncomfortable or invasive for some individuals. Additionally, axillary temperature taking poses a lower risk of injury or infection compared to other methods.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?
- A.
Quadriplegic
- B.
Presence of NGT
- C.
Dyspnea
- D.
Nausea and Vomitting
Correct Answer
A. QuadriplegicExplanation
A contraindication is a condition or factor that serves as a reason to withhold a certain medical treatment. In this case, the question asks for the option that is NOT a contraindication for taking oral temperature. Quadriplegic refers to a person who is paralyzed in all four limbs. This condition does not pose any specific risks or complications when taking oral temperature, so it is not a contraindication. On the other hand, the presence of NGT (nasogastric tube), dyspnea (difficulty breathing), and nausea and vomiting can interfere with accurate oral temperature measurement and may be contraindications.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?
- A.
Unconscious
- B.
Neutropenic
- C.
NPO
- D.
Very young children
Correct Answer
B. NeutropenicExplanation
A contraindication for taking rectal temperature is being neutropenic. Neutropenia is a condition characterized by a low level of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell that helps fight off infections. Taking a rectal temperature involves inserting a thermometer into the rectum, which can potentially introduce bacteria or cause trauma to the area. In individuals with neutropenia, their weakened immune systems make them more susceptible to infections, so taking a rectal temperature may pose a higher risk of infection.Rate this question:
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- 39.
How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?
- A.
1 to 2 inches
- B.
.5 to 1.5 inches
- C.
3 to 5 inches
- D.
2 to 3 inches
Correct Answer
B. .5 to 1.5 inchesExplanation
The rectal thermometer should be inserted into the client's anus to a depth of .5 to 1.5 inches. This is the recommended range for accurate temperature measurement in the rectum. Inserting the thermometer too shallow or too deep may result in an inaccurate reading.Rate this question:
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- 40.
In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
- A.
From bulb to stem
- B.
From stem to bulb
- C.
From stem to stem
- D.
From bulb to bulb
Correct Answer
B. From stem to bulbExplanation
The correct direction of cleaning the thermometer after use to follow Medical Asepsis is from stem to bulb. This is because the stem is the part that comes into contact with the patient's body, and it is important to clean it first to remove any potential pathogens or contaminants. Cleaning from stem to bulb ensures that any microorganisms or debris are removed from the part that will be inserted into the patient's body.Rate this question:
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- 41.
How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?
- A.
3 minutes
- B.
4 minutes
- C.
7 minutes
- D.
10 minutes
Correct Answer
C. 7 minutesExplanation
The thermometer should stay in the client's axilla for 7 minutes. This duration allows for an accurate measurement of the client's body temperature. The axilla, or armpit, is a common site for temperature measurement as it is easily accessible and provides a reliable indication of the body's core temperature. By leaving the thermometer in the axilla for 7 minutes, it ensures that the temperature reading is stable and reflects the client's true body temperature.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?
- A.
Young person have higher pulse than older persons
- B.
Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
- C.
Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
- D.
In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
Correct Answer
A. Young person have higher pulse than older personsExplanation
As individuals age, their pulse rate tends to decrease. This is because as the body gets older, the heart muscle becomes less efficient and the arterial walls become less elastic, resulting in a slower pulse rate. Therefore, it is true that young people generally have a higher pulse rate than older individuals.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:
- A.
Put the palms downward
- B.
Use the thumb to palpate the artery
- C.
Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
- D.
Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality
Correct Answer
B. Use the thumb to palpate the arteryExplanation
Using the thumb to palpate the artery is not a correct action when taking the radial pulse. The thumb has its own pulse, so using it to feel the patient's pulse can lead to an inaccurate reading. It is recommended to use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist, as this provides a more accurate assessment of the pulse rate, rhythm, volume, and bilateral quality.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as
- A.
Apical rate
- B.
Cardiac rate
- C.
Pulse deficit
- D.
Pulse pressure
Correct Answer
D. Pulse pressureExplanation
Pulse pressure refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements. It is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. Pulse pressure is an important indicator of cardiovascular health as it reflects the force exerted on the arterial walls during each heartbeat. A wider pulse pressure may indicate increased risk for cardiovascular diseases, while a narrower pulse pressure may indicate reduced cardiac output. Therefore, pulse pressure is a valuable measurement in assessing a person's overall cardiovascular function.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?
- A.
A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
- B.
A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
- C.
Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.
- D.
Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.
Correct Answer
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspirationExplanation
Pulsus paradoxus refers to a greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration. This means that during inhalation, there is an exaggerated drop in blood pressure. This can be observed in conditions such as cardiac tamponade or severe asthma, where there is impaired filling of the heart during inspiration leading to a decrease in blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?
- A.
I:E 2:1
- B.
I:E : 4:3
- C.
I:E 1:1
- D.
I:E 1:2
Correct Answer
D. I:E 1:2Explanation
The correct answer is I:E 1:2. This refers to the ratio of inspiration time to expiration time during respiration. In this case, the inspiration time is twice as long as the expiration time. This ratio is important for maintaining proper gas exchange in the lungs, as it allows for sufficient time for oxygen to be taken in during inspiration and for carbon dioxide to be expelled during expiration.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
B. PonsExplanation
The correct answer is Pons. The pons is a region of the brainstem that contains the pneumotaxic and apneustic centers. These centers are involved in regulating the respiratory rhythm and controlling the depth and rate of breathing. The medulla oblongata is also involved in respiratory control, but it does not specifically contain these centers. The carotid bodies and aortic bodies are peripheral chemoreceptors that detect changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood, but they are not directly involved in respiratory rhythm control.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
B. PonsExplanation
The pons is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration. The pons is a part of the brainstem that plays a crucial role in controlling respiratory functions. It contains the pneumotaxic center, which helps regulate the rate and depth of breathing. When the pneumotaxic center is activated, it inhibits the inspiratory neurons in the medulla, leading to a prolonged and deeper inspiration. Therefore, the pons is the correct answer as it is directly involved in regulating deep and prolonged inspiration.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
B. PonsExplanation
The pons is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing. It is a part of the brainstem that helps regulate the respiratory system. The pons contains the respiratory centers that control the rate and depth of breathing. It receives information from the medulla oblongata, carotid bodies, and aortic bodies, but it is specifically responsible for coordinating and regulating the breathing pattern.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The primary respiratory center
- A.
Medulla oblongata
- B.
Pons
- C.
Carotid bodies
- D.
Aortic bodies
Correct Answer
A. Medulla oblongataExplanation
The medulla oblongata is responsible for regulating and controlling the primary functions of respiration. It contains the primary respiratory center, which coordinates the muscles involved in breathing and helps maintain a steady breathing rhythm. The medulla oblongata receives input from various sensors in the body, such as the carotid bodies and aortic bodies, which detect changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. These sensors provide feedback to the respiratory center in the medulla oblongata, allowing it to adjust breathing rate and depth as needed to maintain proper oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the body.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 14, 2012Quiz Created by
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