Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement Study Quiz 30

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  • 1/90 Questions

    The nature of code enforcement is complex, and inspectors often need help from:

    • Outside technical assistance
    • Judges
    • Firefighters
    • The fire chief
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About This Quiz

The 'Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement Study Quiz 30' assesses knowledge on the complexities of code enforcement, court conduct for fire inspectors, permit processes, and responsibilities in the absence of a fire protection engineer. It's designed to enhance understanding and readiness in fire safety practices.

Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement Study Quiz 30 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In court, fire inspectors should remain impartial and calm, never entering into _____ with the attorney for the defendant.

    • Disserations

    • Technical terminology

    • Arguments

    • Semantics

    Correct Answer
    A. Arguments
    Explanation
    In court, fire inspectors should remain impartial and calm, never entering into arguments with the attorney for the defendant. This is because arguments can lead to a biased or heated exchange, compromising the inspector's objectivity and professionalism. It is important for fire inspectors to maintain a neutral stance and focus on presenting factual evidence and expert opinions rather than engaging in contentious debates with the defense attorney.

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  • 3. 

    The FIRST step in the permit process is the:

    • Fire inspector conducting an inspection for the permit

    • Occupant contacting the fire inspector and determining whether a permit is needed.

    • Inspection department receiving a complaint

    • Fire inspector issuing a permit over the phone

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupant contacting the fire inspector and determining whether a permit is needed.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "occupant contacting the fire inspector and determining whether a permit is needed." This is the first step in the permit process because it involves the occupant taking the initiative to reach out to the fire inspector and inquire about the need for a permit. This step allows for clarification and guidance on the permit requirements before any further action is taken.

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  • 4. 

    Part of the permit process includes completing an application and providing documentation.  This documentation includes all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Shop drawings

    • Plot diagrams

    • MSDS or other chemical documentation

    • A preplan

    Correct Answer
    A. A preplan
    Explanation
    The permit process requires completing an application and providing documentation. This documentation includes shop drawings, plot diagrams, and MSDS or other chemical documentation. However, it does not include a preplan.

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  • 5. 

    If an agency DOES NOT have a fire protection engineer employed to conduct plan reviews, the responsibility:

    • Is left to the building or zoning official

    • Does not have to be completed

    • Is assigned to a fire inspector

    • Is given to the company officer that does company inspections for the area

    Correct Answer
    A. Is assigned to a fire inspector
    Explanation
    If an agency does not have a fire protection engineer employed to conduct plan reviews, the responsibility is assigned to a fire inspector. This means that the fire inspector is responsible for reviewing the plans and ensuring that they meet fire safety regulations and standards. The fire inspector will assess the plans for potential fire hazards, identify any necessary changes or improvements, and provide recommendations for compliance. This ensures that the agency still has someone knowledgeable and qualified to review the plans and ensure fire safety, even without a dedicated fire protection engineer.

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  • 6. 

    If given the assignment to conduct a plans review; fire inspectors should:

    • Have a complete knowledge of construction techniques

    • Know applicable codes for their jurisdiction

    • Know their legal limitation

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Fire inspectors are responsible for conducting plans reviews to ensure that buildings comply with fire safety regulations. In order to effectively perform this task, they need to have a complete knowledge of construction techniques to understand the structural aspects of the building. They also need to know the applicable codes for their jurisdiction to ensure that the building meets the required safety standards. Additionally, fire inspectors should be aware of their legal limitations to ensure they are conducting the review within their authority. Therefore, all of the above options are necessary for fire inspectors to successfully conduct a plans review.

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  • 7. 

    When investigating a complaint, a fire inspector should anticipate that the occupant/owner may:

    • Be cooperative and helpful

    • Be resistive

    • Deny the inspector access

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    When investigating a complaint, a fire inspector should anticipate that the occupant/owner may exhibit various behaviors. They may be cooperative and helpful, providing the necessary information and assistance. On the other hand, they may also be resistive, showing reluctance or opposition to the inspection process. Additionally, some occupants/owners may deny the inspector access altogether, refusing to cooperate or allow entry. Therefore, the fire inspector should be prepared for all of these possible reactions from the occupant/owner during the investigation.

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  • 8. 

    When investigating a complaint, the fire inspector:

    • Is not required to give the owner advance notice

    • Should call the owner and set an appointment

    • Should be accompanied by the complainant

    • Should be accompanied by the police

    Correct Answer
    A. Is not required to give the owner advance notice
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is not required to give the owner advance notice." When investigating a complaint, the fire inspector is not obligated to inform the owner in advance. This is because surprise inspections allow for a more accurate assessment of the situation and prevent any potential tampering or cover-ups. By conducting unannounced inspections, the fire inspector ensures that they see the premises in its normal state and can identify any violations or hazards that may exist.

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  • 9. 

    The power given to the inspector to modify a fire code is determined by the:

    • National Fire Code

    • International Conference of Building Codes

    • National Fire Protection Association

    • Authority having jurisdiction

    Correct Answer
    A. Authority having jurisdiction
    Explanation
    The authority having jurisdiction refers to the organization or individual responsible for enforcing and interpreting fire codes in a specific area. This authority is granted the power to modify fire codes based on their expertise and knowledge of local conditions and needs. They have the authority to make decisions and modifications to ensure the safety and compliance of buildings and structures within their jurisdiction.

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  • 10. 

    Which IS NOT a concern when an inspector is completing an inspection report?

    • Proving the evidence

    • Presenting the facts

    • Recording the inspector's personal position

    • Justification of a recommendation

    Correct Answer
    A. Recording the inspector's personal position
    Explanation
    When completing an inspection report, it is important for the inspector to focus on objective information rather than their personal opinions or positions. The report should be based on evidence, facts, and recommendations that are supported by the findings of the inspection. Including the inspector's personal position in the report can introduce bias and undermine the credibility of the report. Therefore, recording the inspector's personal position is not a concern when completing an inspection report.

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  • 11. 

    In MOST cases, a formal inspection report will only be necessary:

    • When those inspections reported are on a standard checklist

    • When site drawings have not been provided

    • In cases of life threatening hazards, major renovations, and/or an extensive list of violations

    • When the inspector is unsure of a special requirement

    Correct Answer
    A. In cases of life threatening hazards, major renovations, and/or an extensive list of violations
    Explanation
    A formal inspection report will only be necessary in cases where there are life-threatening hazards, major renovations, or an extensive list of violations. This suggests that the purpose of a formal inspection report is to document and address serious issues that pose a risk to safety or require significant changes to the property. In these situations, a detailed report is needed to clearly outline the problems and provide guidance on how to address them.

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  • 12. 

    Which one of the following resources WOULD NOT be a good source for creating a checklist for the inspection of various occupancies?

    • NFPA - Fire Protection Handbook

    • NFPA - Conducting Fire Inspections, A Guide for Field Use

    • NFPA - Life Safety Code Handbook

    • NFPA - Field Incident Guide

    Correct Answer
    A. NFPA - Field Incident Guide
    Explanation
    The NFPA - Field Incident Guide would not be a good source for creating a checklist for the inspection of various occupancies because it is specifically designed to provide guidance during emergency incidents, rather than serving as a comprehensive resource for conducting inspections. It is more focused on response tactics and strategies rather than providing detailed information on inspection procedures and requirements.

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  • 13. 

    To determine the occupant load of a building that contains two or more distinct occupancies, the total occupant load for the building is determined by calculating the occupant load:

    • Based on the occupancy that is the largest in square footage

    • Based on the occupancy that has the highest degree of hazard

    • Based on the occupancy that has the greatest means of egress

    • Of each occupancy separately and then adding them together

    Correct Answer
    A. Of each occupancy separately and then adding them together
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to determine the occupant load of each occupancy separately and then adding them together. This means that the occupant load for each distinct occupancy in the building is calculated individually, and then the totals are added together to determine the overall occupant load for the entire building. This method ensures that each occupancy is accounted for accurately and takes into consideration the specific characteristics and requirements of each occupancy.

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  • 14. 

    Using the floor area method, what is the occupant load factor for a structure 100 x 150 feet, one story, with two 36-inch wide exits for existing business occupancy?

    • 100

    • 150

    • 50

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 100
    Explanation
    The occupant load factor is determined using the floor area method, which divides the total floor area by the occupant load factor per unit of floor area. In this case, the structure has a floor area of 100 x 150 feet, which equals 15,000 square feet. Since the question does not provide the occupant load factor per unit of floor area, it is not possible to calculate the correct answer.

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  • 15. 

    The single unit of exit width used to determine occupant load is _____ inches.

    • 12

    • 18

    • 22

    • 24

    • 36

    Correct Answer
    A. 22
    Explanation
    The single unit of exit width used to determine occupant load is 22 inches. This means that for every 22 inches of exit width, a certain number of people can be safely accommodated in a building. The occupant load is an important factor in determining the number of exits required in a building to ensure the safety and efficient evacuation of occupants in case of an emergency.

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  • 16. 

    A chemical designed to retard ignition or the spread of fire when it is applied to material or another substance is defined as a:

    • Fire proofer

    • Flame arrester

    • Fire rating

    • Fire retardant

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire retardant
    Explanation
    A chemical designed to retard ignition or the spread of fire when it is applied to material or another substance is known as a fire retardant. Fire retardants work by either creating a protective barrier that prevents the fire from reaching the material or by releasing chemicals that interrupt the combustion process. These chemicals can reduce the flammability of the material and slow down the rate at which the fire spreads. Fire retardants are commonly used in building materials, textiles, and other products to enhance fire safety.

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  • 17. 

    A test designed to determine the surface burning characteristics of interior finished is called a _____ test.

    • Carpet pill

    • Fire spread

    • Steiner tunnel

    • Flame spread

    Correct Answer
    A. Steiner tunnel
    Explanation
    A test designed to determine the surface burning characteristics of interior finishes is called a Steiner tunnel test. This test involves placing the material being tested in a tunnel and exposing it to a controlled flame. The test measures the rate at which the flame spreads across the surface of the material, providing valuable information about its fire safety properties. The Steiner tunnel test is widely used in the construction industry to assess the fire performance of various interior finishes, helping to ensure the safety of buildings and occupants.

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  • 18. 

    A numerical rating assigned to a material based on the speed and extent to which flame travels over its surface is called a ____ rating.

    • Burning ember

    • Fire resistance

    • Flash over

    • Flame spread

    Correct Answer
    A. Flame spread
    Explanation
    Flame spread refers to the numerical rating assigned to a material based on how quickly and extensively flame can travel over its surface. This rating helps to determine the fire safety and potential for fire spread of the material.

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  • 19. 

    During a field inspection, the fire inspector should do all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Ensure that overhead obstruction will not interfere with the fire apparatus placement

    • Ensure that the road surface of a facility will handle the weight of an apparatus

    • Determine the cost to the contractor of changes being required by the fire department

    • Ensure that the entrance to the facility is the correct width

    Correct Answer
    A. Determine the cost to the contractor of changes being required by the fire department
    Explanation
    The fire inspector should not determine the cost to the contractor of changes being required by the fire department. This responsibility typically falls to the contractor or project manager, as it involves financial considerations and negotiations. The fire inspector's role is to focus on ensuring the safety and compliance of the facility, including checking for overhead obstructions, evaluating road surfaces, and ensuring the correct width of entrances.

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  • 20. 

    During a routine inspection, it is determined that the road surface to a facility is inadequate to handle the weight of an apparatus.  The inspector should:

    • Note the problem on the inspection form

    • Notify the suppression personnel that would respond to the location

    • Close the facility down until it is corrected

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Note the problem on the inspection form
    A. Notify the suppression personnel that would respond to the location
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to note the problem on the inspection form and notify the suppression personnel that would respond to the location. This is the appropriate course of action because noting the problem on the inspection form ensures that it is documented for future reference and corrective action. Additionally, notifying the suppression personnel allows them to be aware of the issue and take appropriate measures to address it, such as redirecting traffic or temporarily closing the facility if necessary.

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  • 21. 

    During plans review, an inspector should determine _____ for apparatus access.

    • Surface runoff

    • Turning radius

    • Curb height

    • Parking space

    Correct Answer
    A. Turning radius
    Explanation
    During plans review, an inspector should determine the turning radius for apparatus access. This is important because the turning radius refers to the amount of space required for a vehicle to make a complete turn without hitting any obstacles or causing damage. In the context of apparatus access, it is crucial to ensure that the turning radius is sufficient for emergency vehicles to maneuver safely and efficiently in and out of the designated area. This factor is essential for effective emergency response and preventing any delays or accidents during critical situations.

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  • 22. 

    Smoke control systems in new construction are designed to be used in conjunction with:

    • Fire and smoke dampers

    • Fire doors and partitions

    • Curtain boards (draft curtains)

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". Smoke control systems in new construction are designed to work in conjunction with fire and smoke dampers, fire doors and partitions, and curtain boards (draft curtains). These components work together to prevent the spread of smoke in the event of a fire, ensuring the safety of occupants and allowing for effective evacuation.

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  • 23. 

    In performance based design, the acceptance test criteria, methods of evaluating data, and approval procedures are developed by the:

    • Architect and contractor

    • Building owner

    • Authority having jurisdication

    • Planning commission

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    In performance-based design, the acceptance test criteria, methods of evaluating data, and approval procedures are developed by all of the above options, which include the architect and contractor, building owner, authority having jurisdiction, and planning commission. This means that all parties involved in the design and construction process collaborate to establish the criteria and procedures for evaluating the performance of the design.

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  • 24. 

    How a building is designed is referred to as its _____ classification.

    • Occupancy

    • Zoning

    • Construction

    • Fire code

    Correct Answer
    A. Construction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "construction" because the question is asking about the design of a building, which falls under the classification of construction. The other options, such as occupancy, zoning, and fire code, are related to different aspects of building regulations and do not specifically pertain to the design of a building.

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  • 25. 

    What type of exit enclosure provides the highest degree of protection of stair enclosures?

    • A rated exit door enclosure

    • A continuous exit enclosure

    • A smoke proof enclosure

    • A horizontal exit enclosure

    Correct Answer
    A. A smoke proof enclosure
    Explanation
    A smoke proof enclosure provides the highest degree of protection for stair enclosures because it is designed to prevent the spread of smoke from one area to another. This type of enclosure is constructed with materials and systems that are specifically designed to resist the passage of smoke, ensuring that stair enclosures remain free from smoke during a fire emergency. This helps to maintain clear and safe escape routes for building occupants and allows for effective firefighting operations.

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  • 26. 

    A smoke proof enclosure in a three story building must be enclosed from its highest point to its lowest point by a ____ hour fire rating.

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    A smoke proof enclosure in a three story building must be enclosed from its highest point to its lowest point by a one hour fire rating. This means that the enclosure should be constructed with materials that can withstand fire for at least one hour, providing enough time for people to evacuate safely in case of a fire.

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  • 27. 

    The upright type of sprinkler head:

    • May only be used in a wet pipe configuration

    • Protrudes downward from the exposed pipe

    • Cannot be inverted for use in the pendant type sprinkler head

    • Can be installed in a side wall application

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannot be inverted for use in the pendant type sprinkler head
    Explanation
    The upright type of sprinkler head cannot be inverted for use in the pendant type sprinkler head. This means that the upright sprinkler head is specifically designed to be installed in an upright position and cannot be turned upside down to function as a pendant sprinkler head.

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  • 28. 

    The NFPA standard which requires that fire extinguishers be thoroughly inspected is:

    • NFPA 25

    • NFPA 14

    • NFPA 13

    • NFPA 10

    Correct Answer
    A. NFPA 10
    Explanation
    NFPA 10 is the correct answer because it is the standard that specifically addresses the inspection, maintenance, and testing of portable fire extinguishers. This standard provides guidelines for ensuring that fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to use in case of a fire emergency. It outlines the frequency and procedures for inspections, as well as the qualifications and training requirements for personnel responsible for the inspections. By following NFPA 10, organizations can ensure that their fire extinguishers are regularly checked and maintained to effectively protect against fire hazards.

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  • 29. 

    Sprinkler systems shall be inspected, tested and maintained in accordance with:

    • NFPA 10

    • NFPA 13

    • NFPA 25

    • NFPA 14

    Correct Answer
    A. NFPA 25
    Explanation
    NFPA 25 is the correct answer because it specifically addresses the inspection, testing, and maintenance of sprinkler systems. NFPA 10 is for portable fire extinguishers, NFPA 13 is for the installation of sprinkler systems, and NFPA 14 is for the installation of standpipe and hose systems. Therefore, NFPA 25 is the most relevant standard for ensuring the proper upkeep of sprinkler systems.

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  • 30. 

    A MINIMUM clearance of _____ inches shall be maintained below each ordinary hazard/standard spray sprinkler head as measured from the deflector.

    • 6

    • 12

    • 18

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 18
    Explanation
    A minimum clearance of 18 inches should be maintained below each ordinary hazard/standard spray sprinkler head as measured from the deflector. This clearance is necessary to ensure that the sprinkler head can effectively disperse water in case of a fire. It allows enough space for the water to flow freely and reach the desired area without any obstructions. Additionally, this clearance helps to prevent any potential damage to the sprinkler head or interference with its performance.

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  • 31. 

    All maintenance procedures should include a thorough examination of the three basic parts of a portable extinguisher:

    • Mechanical parts, extinguishing agent, and expelling means

    • Mechanical parts, color, and expelling means

    • Gauge, size, and color

    • Extinguishing agent, nozzle, and gauge

    Correct Answer
    A. Mechanical parts, extinguishing agent, and expelling means
    Explanation
    During maintenance procedures for a portable extinguisher, it is important to thoroughly examine the mechanical parts, extinguishing agent, and expelling means. The mechanical parts should be checked for any damage or malfunctioning that could affect the extinguisher's performance. The extinguishing agent needs to be inspected to ensure it is still effective and has not expired. The expelling means, such as the nozzle or hose, should be examined for any blockages or damage that could hinder the discharge of the extinguishing agent. By examining these three basic parts, the maintenance procedure can ensure that the portable extinguisher is in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of a fire.

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  • 32. 

    A network of intermediate sized pipe that reinforces the overall grid system by forming loops that interlock primary feeders BEST defines:

    • Primary loop

    • Secondary feeders

    • Distributors

    • Grid network

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary feeders
    Explanation
    A network of intermediate sized pipes that reinforce the overall grid system by forming loops that interlock primary feeders is known as secondary feeders. These secondary feeders act as a backup and support system for the primary feeders, ensuring a continuous and reliable flow of resources throughout the grid network.

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  • 33. 

    Large pipes which carry large quantities of water to various points along the water supply system for distribution to smaller mains BEST defines:

    • Primary feeders

    • Secondary feeders

    • Distributors

    • Grid network

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary feeders
    Explanation
    Primary feeders are large pipes that carry large quantities of water to various points along the water supply system for distribution to smaller mains. These pipes are responsible for delivering water from the source to the secondary feeders or distributors, which then distribute the water to individual consumers. The primary feeders act as the main arteries of the water supply system, ensuring a continuous flow of water to meet the demand of the distribution network.

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  • 34. 

    Today, 8" inch pipe is becoming the minimum size pipe in a water distribution system because:

    • Of its higher flow capacity advantages over smaller diameter pipe

    • All pipe would then be the same diameter

    • The pipe size determines the flow pressures needed to design a reliable system

    • New code requiremetns are phasing out small diameter pipe

    Correct Answer
    A. Of its higher flow capacity advantages over smaller diameter pipe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "of its higher flow capacity advantages over smaller diameter pipe." This means that an 8" inch pipe has a larger flow capacity compared to smaller diameter pipes. This is important in a water distribution system as it allows for a greater volume of water to be transported, ensuring efficient water supply to meet the demand of consumers.

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  • 35. 

    The _____ system is equipped with a dry pipe valve and all sprinkler heads are open.

    • Wet pipe

    • Dry pipe

    • Deluge

    • Pre action

    Correct Answer
    A. Deluge
    Explanation
    A deluge system is equipped with a dry pipe valve and all sprinkler heads are open. In a deluge system, water is constantly present in the pipes, but the sprinkler heads remain open at all times. When a fire is detected, the dry pipe valve opens, allowing water to flow through all the sprinkler heads simultaneously. This type of system is commonly used in areas where a rapid and high volume of water is needed to suppress a fire, such as in industrial settings or areas with high fire hazards.

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  • 36. 

    The hose connections to the FDC may be of the _____ type and equipped with standard caps.

    • Right handed

    • Left handed

    • Female

    • Male

    Correct Answer
    A. Female
    Explanation
    The hose connections to the FDC may be of the female type and equipped with standard caps. This means that the FDC has female threads on its hose connections, allowing it to be connected to hoses with male threads. The standard caps ensure that the connections are protected when not in use.

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  • 37. 

    The standard hydrostic test for all piping in a wet pipe systems is not less than _____ for _____.

    • 50 psi, 1 hour

    • 200 psi, 2 hours

    • 150 psi, 20 minutes

    • 100 psi, 1-1/2 hour

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 psi, 2 hours
    Explanation
    The standard hydrostatic test for all piping in a wet pipe system requires a minimum pressure of 200 psi and a duration of 2 hours. This test is conducted to ensure the integrity and strength of the piping system, as well as to identify any leaks or weaknesses that may compromise its performance. By subjecting the piping to a higher pressure than it would typically experience during normal operation, any potential issues can be identified and addressed before the system is put into service. The 2-hour duration allows for sufficient time to observe and monitor the system for any pressure drops or leaks.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following WOULD NOT be considered an obsolete portable fire extinguisher?

    • Soda acid

    • Water cartridge operated

    • Vaporization liquid

    • Stored pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Stored pressure
    Explanation
    A stored pressure fire extinguisher would not be considered obsolete because it is a type of fire extinguisher that is commonly used and still considered effective in fighting fires. Stored pressure extinguishers have the agent and propellant stored together in the same container, making them easy to use and maintain. They are widely available and commonly used in various settings, making them a reliable choice for fire safety.

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  • 39. 

    The color of a sprinkler head frame that has a temperature classification of HIGH is:

    • Red

    • Blue

    • Green

    • Orange

    Correct Answer
    A. Blue
    Explanation
    A sprinkler head frame with a temperature classification of HIGH is typically painted blue. This color indicates that the sprinkler head is designed to activate at higher temperatures, such as those found in areas with potential fire hazards or higher heat levels. Blue is commonly used to differentiate these sprinkler heads from those with lower temperature classifications.

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  • 40. 

    According to NFPA 25, the heat for the dry valve enclosure should be checked ____ during freezing weather.

    • Dialy

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Dialy
    Explanation
    According to NFPA 25, the heat for the dry valve enclosure should be checked daily during freezing weather to ensure that the system is functioning properly and to prevent any potential freezing or damage to the valves. Regular monitoring of the heat in the enclosure is necessary to maintain the integrity and functionality of the dry valve system.

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  • 41. 

    Which one of the following WOULD NOT cause reduction of a sprinkler system's effectiveness?

    • Opening of nearby hydrants

    • Freezing of the gravity tank

    • Storage piled around heads

    • Pumping into the system

    Correct Answer
    A. Pumping into the system
    Explanation
    Pumping into the system would not cause a reduction in the effectiveness of a sprinkler system. In fact, pumping water into the system is necessary for the sprinklers to function properly. The other options, such as opening nearby hydrants, freezing of the gravity tank, and storage piled around heads, can all potentially hinder the sprinkler system's effectiveness by either reducing water pressure or obstructing the flow of water.

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  • 42. 

    The rating required for a fire door in an exit stairway is determined by:

    • Where the exit empties

    • Whether it is a ramp or stairway

    • The fire rating of the enclosure

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The rating required for a fire door in an exit stairway is determined by multiple factors. These factors include where the exit empties, whether it is a ramp or stairway, and the fire rating of the enclosure. All of these factors are important in determining the appropriate rating for a fire door in an exit stairway.

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  • 43. 

    In addition to determining how many people may occupy a building, an inspector must determine the number of exits.  This is part of the:

    • Load capacity

    • Means of egress

    • Means of access

    • Means of exit

    Correct Answer
    A. Means of egress
    Explanation
    An inspector's responsibility includes determining the number of exits in a building, in addition to determining the maximum occupancy. This is known as the means of egress, which refers to the means or routes by which people can safely exit a building in case of an emergency. The means of egress ensures the safety and efficient evacuation of occupants during emergencies.

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  • 44. 

    The components of a means of egress include:

    • Exit access

    • The exit

    • Exit discharge

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that the components of a means of egress include exit access, the exit, and exit discharge. In other words, all three of these elements are necessary in order to provide a safe and effective means for people to exit a building in case of an emergency.

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  • 45. 

    According to NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, exit stairs are a critical component of the means of egress in a multi storied building.  Stairways must be at least _____ inches wide, unless the occupant load of all the floors served by the stairways is less than 50.  In this case, stairways may be ______ inches wide.

    • 44, 24

    • 48, 36

    • 36, 24

    • 36, 32

    • 44, 36

    Correct Answer
    A. 44, 36
    Explanation
    According to NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, exit stairs are a critical component of the means of egress in a multi-storied building. Stairways must be at least 44 inches wide, unless the occupant load of all the floors served by the stairways is less than 50. In this case, stairways may be 36 inches wide.

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  • 46. 

    The four main views of working drawings are:

    • Floor plan, mechanical, electrical, and fire protection

    • Fire protection, elevation, sectional, and floor plan

    • Plan, elevation, sectional and detailed

    • Mechanical, sectional, elevation, and site plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Plan, elevation, sectional and detailed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is plan, elevation, sectional and detailed. These four views are commonly used in working drawings to provide a comprehensive representation of a building or structure. The plan view shows the layout of the space from a top-down perspective, the elevation view shows the vertical dimensions and exterior appearance of the building, the sectional view shows a cut-through of the building to reveal interior details, and the detailed view provides close-up information on specific components or areas of the building. Together, these views provide a complete understanding of the design and construction of the building.

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  • 47. 

    There are inherent hazards associated with dip tanks; therefore, dip tank operations:

    • Have a smoke detector tied into a fire alarm system

    • Should never be placed in a basement

    • Must not have overflow devices on the tank

    • Must never be covered when not in use

    • Must be located below ground

    Correct Answer
    A. Should never be placed in a basement
    Explanation
    Dip tanks should never be placed in a basement because there are inherent hazards associated with them. Placing them in a basement can increase the risk of fire and other safety hazards.

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  • 48. 

    Static charges may be generated by all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Belts in motion

    • Magnetic fields

    • Moving vehicles

    • Non conductive fluids flowing through pipes

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetic fields
    Explanation
    Static charges can be generated by belts in motion, moving vehicles, and non-conductive fluids flowing through pipes. However, magnetic fields do not directly generate static charges. Static charges are typically generated by friction or separation of materials, not by magnetic fields.

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  • 49. 

    The vents used for underground storage tanks should have at least a _____ inch nominal inside diameter.

    • 2

    • 1-1/2

    • 1-1/4

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-1/4
    Explanation
    The vents used for underground storage tanks should have at least a 1-1/4 inch nominal inside diameter. This means that the diameter of the vent should be 1-1/4 inches. This size is necessary to allow proper ventilation and prevent pressure build-up in the tank. A smaller diameter may restrict the flow of air and cause issues with the tank's functionality.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 28, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • May 28, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 06, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Tribecca09

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