Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement Study Quiz 25

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Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement Study Quiz 25 - Quiz


Study quiz for fire inspection & code enforcement


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    As witnesses in the courtroom, fire inspectors should confine their testimony to:

    • A.

      Hearsay

    • B.

      Facts

    • C.

      Technical terms

    • D.

      Department policies

    Correct Answer
    B. Facts
    Explanation
    Fire inspectors should confine their testimony to facts because their role is to provide objective and evidence-based information about the fire incident. Hearsay, which is second-hand information, may not be reliable or accurate. Technical terms should be used to explain specific details or procedures, but the focus should still be on presenting factual information. Department policies may not be relevant to the specific case being discussed in the courtroom. Therefore, sticking to facts ensures that the testimony is credible and helps the court make informed decisions.

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  • 2. 

    As advisors, fire inspectors can assist the prosecuting attorney with information about:

    • A.

      Legal remedies

    • B.

      Criminal procedures

    • C.

      Immunity and equivalency

    • D.

      Fire ordinances and technical terms

    Correct Answer
    D. Fire ordinances and technical terms
    Explanation
    Fire inspectors are knowledgeable about fire ordinances and technical terms. They can provide valuable information to the prosecuting attorney regarding these matters. Fire ordinances refer to the laws and regulations related to fire safety and prevention, while technical terms are specific terminology used in the field of fire inspection. By assisting the prosecuting attorney with this information, fire inspectors can contribute to the legal proceedings and help ensure that the case is properly understood and presented.

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  • 3. 

    When the local jurisdiction adopts an ordinance requiring an open burning permit, the inspector should give special attention to:

    • A.

      A list of individuals, property owners, and businesses that may apply for permits

    • B.

      What, how and where as well as conditions under which the permit is issued

    • C.

      Providing a fire watch for all sites to which permits for open burning are granted

    • D.

      Making clear his/her dissatisfaction with the parameters under which the permit was issued

    Correct Answer
    B. What, how and where as well as conditions under which the permit is issued
    Explanation
    The inspector should give special attention to what, how, and where as well as the conditions under which the permit is issued. This is important because understanding these details will ensure that the inspector can properly enforce the regulations and ensure that the open burning is being done safely and responsibly. By knowing what materials can be burned, how the burning should be conducted, where it is allowed, and the conditions that must be met, the inspector can effectively assess whether the permit holders are in compliance and take appropriate action if necessary.

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  • 4. 

    An advantage of having an established plans review process is that:

    • A.

      It enables discrepancies to be fixed before construction begins

    • B.

      Inspectors can control the issuance of business licenses

    • C.

      The inspector can take advantage of the contractor or the occupant

    • D.

      Construction costs can be estimated more accurately for the occupant

    Correct Answer
    A. It enables discrepancies to be fixed before construction begins
    Explanation
    Having an established plans review process allows discrepancies to be identified and resolved before construction starts. This ensures that any errors or inconsistencies in the plans can be corrected, preventing costly mistakes and delays during the construction phase. By catching and addressing these discrepancies early on, the process helps to ensure that the final construction aligns with the intended design and meets all necessary regulations and standards. Ultimately, this leads to a smoother and more efficient construction process, saving time and resources for the project and the parties involved.

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  • 5. 

    An effective plans review process can:

    • A.

      Increase revenues generated for the inspection bureau

    • B.

      Improve the image of the fire department

    • C.

      Cause hostility between fire department and architects

    • D.

      Cause the city to increase funding for the department

    Correct Answer
    B. Improve the image of the fire department
    Explanation
    An effective plans review process can improve the image of the fire department by demonstrating their competence and dedication to ensuring public safety. By thoroughly reviewing plans and identifying potential hazards or code violations, the fire department shows their commitment to protecting the community. This can enhance public trust and confidence in the department's abilities, leading to a positive perception of the fire department and its personnel.

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  • 6. 

    When handling complaints, the fire inspector should:

    • A.

      Only deal with the problem if it is an immediate problem

    • B.

      Take the complainant's name and phone number and forward the information

    • C.

      Take and process all pertinent information based on the complaint

    • D.

      Contact the officer of the engine company in the area of the complaint

    Correct Answer
    C. Take and process all pertinent information based on the complaint
    Explanation
    The fire inspector should take and process all pertinent information based on the complaint. This means that they should not only collect the complainant's name and phone number, but also gather all relevant details related to the complaint. By doing so, the fire inspector can effectively assess the situation, determine the appropriate actions to be taken, and ensure that all necessary information is properly documented for further investigation or resolution. This approach allows for a thorough and comprehensive handling of complaints, promoting efficiency and effectiveness in addressing fire safety concerns.

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  • 7. 

    Dealing with complaints from the public will accomplish all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Increase public concern for fire issues in the community

    • B.

      Resolve personal conflicts between the neighbors

    • C.

      Find problems of which the inspector might not be aware

    • D.

      Improve the public's opinion of the fire department

    Correct Answer
    B. Resolve personal conflicts between the neighbors
    Explanation
    Dealing with complaints from the public can accomplish several things, such as increasing public concern for fire issues in the community, finding problems of which the inspector might not be aware, and improving the public's opinion of the fire department. However, it is unlikely to resolve personal conflicts between neighbors. This is because personal conflicts are typically related to interpersonal issues and may require mediation or other forms of conflict resolution, which may not fall under the jurisdiction of the fire department.

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  • 8. 

    The KEY issue in allowing the fire code to be modified is whether the modification:

    • A.

      Will look appealing to the public

    • B.

      Will impact the cost of the project

    • C.

      Will provide equal or greater protection

    • D.

      Is legal when compared to other buildings

    Correct Answer
    C. Will provide equal or greater protection
    Explanation
    The key issue in allowing the fire code to be modified is whether the modification will provide equal or greater protection. This means that any changes made to the fire code should ensure that the level of safety and protection against fire hazards remains the same or is improved. This is crucial to ensure the safety of the public and the building occupants. The other factors mentioned, such as the appeal to the public, cost impact, and legality in comparison to other buildings, may be important considerations but are not the primary concern when it comes to fire code modifications.

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  • 9. 

    If there is a question regarding the requirements in a code that governs judgment in determining equivalency, a fire inspector should:

    • A.

      Refer to the codes section on alternative methods

    • B.

      Refer to legal judgments on file with local courts

    • C.

      Contact another inspection bureau and see what they have accepted

    • D.

      Not allow modification to the code

    Correct Answer
    A. Refer to the codes section on alternative methods
    Explanation
    When faced with a question regarding requirements in a code that governs judgment in determining equivalency, a fire inspector should refer to the codes section on alternative methods. This is because the alternative methods section of the code provides guidance on how to meet the requirements in a different way while still maintaining the same level of safety. This allows the inspector to consider alternative approaches that may be acceptable and compliant with the code, ensuring that the judgment is made based on the established guidelines.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following BEST describes the key elements of an inspection report on complex safety problems?

    • A.

      A list of code citations based on complaints submitted from citizens, contractors, or other sources

    • B.

      A floor plan of the premises showing the specific location of all notable violations

    • C.

      Although key elements may vary from inspection to inspection, an escape plan should be essential

    • D.

      Standard report format should be in written form and include statistical data on the business, pertinent dates, names, and phone numbers, list of violations and recommendations for correction of each violation, and date of follow up inspection

    Correct Answer
    D. Standard report format should be in written form and include statistical data on the business, pertinent dates, names, and phone numbers, list of violations and recommendations for correction of each violation, and date of follow up inspection
    Explanation
    The key elements of an inspection report on complex safety problems should include a standard report format in written form. This format should include statistical data on the business, pertinent dates, names, and phone numbers. Additionally, it should include a list of violations found during the inspection and recommendations for correcting each violation. Finally, the report should also include the date of the follow-up inspection to ensure that the necessary corrections have been made.

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  • 11. 

    A/an _____ should be in written form and include statistical data on the business, dates, times, phone numbers, violations, recommendations for corrections, and follow up inspection date.

    • A.

      Inspection report

    • B.

      Code requirement

    • C.

      Enforcement procedure

    • D.

      Permit

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspection report
    Explanation
    An inspection report should be in written form and include statistical data on the business, dates, times, phone numbers, violations, recommendations for corrections, and follow up inspection date. This report serves as a detailed record of the inspection process, providing essential information about the condition and compliance of the inspected entity. It helps in documenting any violations found during the inspection, providing recommendations for necessary corrections, and establishing a timeline for follow-up inspections or actions.

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  • 12. 

    Which one of the following statements IS NOT true?

    • A.

      Written reports serve not only as records of an inspection, but may be needed in legal proceedings

    • B.

      Written correction orders should always include the inspector's personal opinions

    • C.

      Without written evidence of an inspection, no proof exists that the inspector gave the owner notice of hazardous conditions or corrective measures to be taken

    • D.

      The inspection report left with the owner should inform, analyze, and recommend

    Correct Answer
    B. Written correction orders should always include the inspector's personal opinions
    Explanation
    The statement "written correction orders should always include the inspector's personal opinions" is not true because written correction orders should be based on objective facts and regulations, rather than personal opinions. Personal opinions may introduce bias and subjectivity into the orders, which can undermine their effectiveness and credibility. It is important for correction orders to be clear, concise, and based on objective standards to ensure fairness and consistency in enforcement actions.

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  • 13. 

    Written reports serve not only as records of the inspection, but also can be used as a basis for:

    • A.

      A formal complaint

    • B.

      Legal action

    • C.

      Closing the file

    • D.

      Inspection drawings

    Correct Answer
    B. Legal action
    Explanation
    Written reports can be used as a basis for legal action because they provide documented evidence of the inspection findings. If there are any issues or violations discovered during the inspection, the written report can be used as proof in a legal proceeding. It serves as a record of the inspection and can support any claims or complaints made by the party seeking legal action. The report can be presented to a court or used as a reference during negotiations or settlements. Therefore, written reports can play a crucial role in initiating and supporting legal action.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of occupant load?

    • A.

      The total number of persons that may safely occupy a building or portion thereof at any one time

    • B.

      The total number of persons that may exit a building

    • C.

      The total number of persons that may exit areas of concentrated use

    • D.

      The average number of persons that may exit a building or portion thereof at any one time

    • E.

      The maximum number of persons that may travel through or exit an occupied space at any one time

    Correct Answer
    A. The total number of persons that may safely occupy a building or portion thereof at any one time
    Explanation
    The correct definition of occupant load is the total number of persons that may safely occupy a building or portion thereof at any one time. This refers to the maximum number of people that the building can accommodate without posing a safety risk. It takes into account factors such as the size of the space, the available exits, and the capacity of the building's systems to support the occupants.

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  • 15. 

    When determining the occupant load for a multi use building, the fire inspector should determine the occupant load based on:

    • A.

      The occupancy that has the greatest risk factor

    • B.

      The occupancy that has the least number of persons

    • C.

      The occupancy that has the greatest number of persons

    • D.

      The total area of the building regardless of occupancy

    Correct Answer
    C. The occupancy that has the greatest number of persons
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to determine the occupant load based on the occupancy that has the greatest number of persons. This is because the occupant load is a measure of the maximum number of people that can safely occupy a building or a specific area within it. By considering the occupancy with the greatest number of persons, the fire inspector ensures that there is adequate egress and safety measures in place to accommodate the highest number of occupants in case of an emergency.

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  • 16. 

    You are given plans for a building in your jurisdiction comprised of a new restaurant without fixed seats that is attached to a clothing store.  Calculate the occupant load for the whole building based on the following information: floor area of the restaurant = 100 feet x 125 feet floor area of the clothing store = 75 feet x 75 feet floor area for the restaurant is 15 feet x 15 feet per person floor area for the clothing store is 30 feet x 30 feet per person

    • A.

      Total occupant load is 1,020

    • B.

      Total occupant load is 791

    • C.

      Total occupant load is 833

    • D.

      Total occupant load is 187

    Correct Answer
    A. Total occupant load is 1,020
    Explanation
    The correct answer is total occupant load is 1,020. This is calculated by dividing the floor area of the restaurant (100 feet x 125 feet) by the floor area per person (15 feet x 15 feet per person), which gives us 833. Then, we divide the floor area of the clothing store (75 feet x 75 feet) by the floor area per person (30 feet x 30 feet per person), which gives us 187. Finally, we add the two occupant loads together (833 + 187) to get a total occupant load of 1,020.

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  • 17. 

    You are asked to conduct an inspection at your local church.  During the inspection you come across decorations which are used during the services and decide to conduct a field test to check for flammability.  You should:

    • A.

      Hold a piece of the material with plies above a butane torch flame for two minutes

    • B.

      Apply a small flame from a common kitchen match to the material for twelve seconds

    • C.

      Apply a small flame from a match to the material for two minutes

    • D.

      Heat a sample of the material for one minute in a oven, at 350 degress, then apply a small flame for 30 seconds

    Correct Answer
    B. Apply a small flame from a common kitchen match to the material for twelve seconds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to apply a small flame from a common kitchen match to the material for twelve seconds. This is the most appropriate method to test the flammability of the material. Holding a piece of the material with pliers above a butane torch flame for two minutes may not accurately represent the conditions in which the material would catch fire during normal use. Applying a small flame from a match to the material for two minutes is excessive and may not be necessary to determine flammability. Heating a sample of the material in an oven and then applying a flame for 30 seconds does not accurately simulate real-life conditions.

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  • 18. 

    In which of the following ways does interior finish contribute to fire impact?

    • A.

      It affects the rate of fire buildup to a flashover condition

    • B.

      It may contribute to fire extension through flame spread over its surface

    • C.

      It may add to the intensity of a fire contributing additional fuel

    • D.

      It may produce smoke and toxic gases that can contribute to life hazard and property damage

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Interior finish contributes to fire impact in multiple ways. Firstly, it affects the rate of fire buildup to a flashover condition, meaning it can accelerate the spread of fire throughout a space. Secondly, it may contribute to fire extension through flame spread over its surface, allowing the fire to spread to other areas. Additionally, interior finish materials can add to the intensity of a fire by providing additional fuel for combustion. Lastly, these materials can produce smoke and toxic gases when burned, which can pose a significant threat to life and property. Therefore, all of the above statements are correct.

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  • 19. 

    The Steiner Tunnel test measures:

    • A.

      Flame spread rating

    • B.

      Smoke developed

    • C.

      Fuel contributed

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The Steiner Tunnel test is a standardized test used to measure the fire performance of materials. It evaluates various factors including flame spread rating, smoke developed, and fuel contributed. Flame spread rating measures how quickly a fire spreads across a material, smoke developed measures the amount of smoke produced during a fire, and fuel contributed measures the amount of heat released by the material. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as the Steiner Tunnel test measures all these aspects.

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  • 20. 

    Local codes or ordinances should specify driveway and entrance requirements for a facility based on:

    • A.

      Previous agreements with other owners

    • B.

      The number of apparatus that could respond to an emergency

    • C.

      The largest fire apparatus that will be expected to respond to the occupancy

    • D.

      The total number of apparatus used by the jurisdiction

    Correct Answer
    C. The largest fire apparatus that will be expected to respond to the occupancy
    Explanation
    Local codes or ordinances should specify driveway and entrance requirements for a facility based on the largest fire apparatus that will be expected to respond to the occupancy. This is because the size and dimensions of the fire apparatus determine the minimum requirements for the facility's driveway and entrance. It is important to ensure that the driveway and entrance are wide enough and have sufficient clearance for the largest fire apparatus to access the facility in case of an emergency. This helps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the response to any potential fire incidents.

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  • 21. 

    Driveway width curves and surfaces should be designed:

    • A.

      To accommodate the turning radius of fire apparatus

    • B.

      Based on the occupant load of the building

    • C.

      To accommodate the needs of the street maintenance department

    • D.

      Based on the number of vehicles the occupant uses during business hours

    Correct Answer
    A. To accommodate the turning radius of fire apparatus
    Explanation
    Driveway width curves and surfaces should be designed to accommodate the turning radius of fire apparatus. This is important because fire trucks and other emergency vehicles need enough space to maneuver and turn around in case of an emergency. By designing driveways with the turning radius of fire apparatus in mind, it ensures that these vehicles can access the building easily and quickly, potentially saving lives and property in the event of a fire or other emergency.

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  • 22. 

    The FIRST design element of a fire department access road surface should be:

    • A.

      Clear of all debris at all times

    • B.

      Clear of snow or hazardous conditions

    • C.

      Wide enough to handle two apparatus side by side

    • D.

      Strong enough to handle the weight of a fire apparatus

    Correct Answer
    D. Strong enough to handle the weight of a fire apparatus
    Explanation
    The first design element of a fire department access road surface should be strong enough to handle the weight of a fire apparatus. This is crucial because fire apparatuses are heavy vehicles that require a sturdy surface to drive on. If the road surface is not strong enough, it may crack or collapse under the weight of the apparatus, making it difficult for firefighters to access the scene of a fire or emergency. Additionally, a strong road surface ensures the safety of the firefighters and prevents any accidents or damage to the apparatus. Therefore, the strength of the road surface is of utmost importance in designing a fire department access road.

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  • 23. 

    A PRIMARY fire hazard associated with most equipment fires is:

    • A.

      Combustibles are too close

    • B.

      Improper grounding

    • C.

      Hazardous chemicals

    • D.

      Fuel

    Correct Answer
    B. Improper grounding
    Explanation
    Improper grounding is a primary fire hazard associated with most equipment fires. When electrical equipment is not properly grounded, it can lead to the buildup of excess electrical charge, causing sparks or electrical arcs that can ignite flammable materials nearby. Without proper grounding, the electrical current may also take unexpected paths, increasing the risk of short circuits and electrical fires. Therefore, ensuring proper grounding of equipment is crucial to prevent fire hazards.

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  • 24. 

    In high rise buildings, enclosed stairwells are designed with ____ and ____ requirements.

    • A.

      Pressurization and occupancy

    • B.

      Fire rating and ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act)

    • C.

      Fire rating and pressurization

    • D.

      Egress and ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act)

    Correct Answer
    C. Fire rating and pressurization
    Explanation
    In high rise buildings, enclosed stairwells are designed with fire rating and pressurization requirements. Fire rating is necessary to ensure that the stairwells can withstand fire and prevent its spread, providing a safe means of escape for occupants. Pressurization is important to maintain a pressure difference between the stairwells and other areas of the building, preventing smoke from entering and allowing for easier evacuation. These design considerations are crucial in ensuring the safety of individuals during emergencies in high rise buildings.

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  • 25. 

    Construction classifications are based on:

    • A.

      Regional locations

    • B.

      Authority having jurisdication

    • C.

      The materials that are contained in the building

    • D.

      The materials used in construction of the building

    Correct Answer
    D. The materials used in construction of the building
    Explanation
    Construction classifications are based on the materials used in the construction of the building. This means that buildings are categorized according to the types of materials that were used in their construction, such as wood, concrete, steel, or a combination of these materials. The classification helps to determine the structural integrity, fire resistance, and other important factors related to the building's construction.

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  • 26. 

    Smoke proof enclosures provide the highest degree of fire protection for stair enclosures.  In buildings that are four stories or higher, they must be enclosed from highest point to lowest point by fire barriers.  The rating must be AT LEAST:

    • A.

      1 hour

    • B.

      2 hours

    • C.

      3 hours

    • D.

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 hours
    Explanation
    Smoke proof enclosures are designed to prevent the spread of smoke during a fire, providing a high level of fire protection for stair enclosures. In buildings that are four stories or higher, these enclosures must be enclosed from the highest point to the lowest point by fire barriers. The rating of these fire barriers must be at least 2 hours, meaning they are capable of withstanding fire for a minimum of 2 hours before any breach occurs. This ensures that occupants have enough time to safely evacuate the building in the event of a fire.

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  • 27. 

    In new building construction, a door opening serving as a means of egress must be at least _____ clear width.

    • A.

      32"

    • B.

      30"

    • C.

      48"

    • D.

      36"

    Correct Answer
    A. 32"
    Explanation
    In new building construction, a door opening serving as a means of egress must be at least 32" clear width. This requirement ensures that there is enough space for people to safely exit the building in case of an emergency. A wider opening allows for easier passage, especially for individuals with disabilities or those carrying large objects. Therefore, a minimum width of 32" is necessary to comply with safety regulations and provide a sufficient means of egress.

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  • 28. 

    Fire inspectors can estimate the fire load when conducting inspections of a building.  This information may be used for all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Fire extinguisher placement

    • B.

      Prefire plans

    • C.

      Occupant load

    • D.

      Water requirements for automatic sprinklers

    Correct Answer
    C. Occupant load
    Explanation
    Fire inspectors estimate the fire load when conducting inspections of a building to determine the amount of combustible materials present. This information is used for fire extinguisher placement, prefire plans, and water requirements for automatic sprinklers. However, the occupant load refers to the number of people that can safely occupy a building, which is unrelated to the fire load estimation. Therefore, the correct answer is occupant load.

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  • 29. 

    Draft curtains are sometimes used in large areas of buildings that ARE NOT otherwise subdivided.  The purpose of a draft curtain is to:

    • A.

      Limit the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke

    • B.

      Help with the air conditioning needs of the area

    • C.

      Deflect hose streams into hard to reach areas

    • D.

      Stop the spread of fire through a fire assembly

    Correct Answer
    A. Limit the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke
    Explanation
    Draft curtains are used in large areas of buildings that are not subdivided to limit the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke. This means that they help contain the heat and smoke in a specific area, preventing them from spreading rapidly throughout the building. By confining the heat and smoke, draft curtains can aid in reducing the potential damage and danger caused by a fire. They act as a barrier, restricting the movement of heat and smoke and allowing for safer evacuation routes for occupants.

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  • 30. 

    Carbon dioxide fixed extinguishing systems may be used in areas where fires could occur in:

    • A.

      Flammable liquids and gases

    • B.

      Rubber tire storage

    • C.

      Paper storage

    • D.

      Combustible metals

    Correct Answer
    A. Flammable liquids and gases
    Explanation
    Carbon dioxide fixed extinguishing systems are effective in areas where fires could occur in flammable liquids and gases. This is because carbon dioxide is a non-flammable gas that displaces oxygen, effectively suffocating the fire and preventing its spread. It is particularly useful in areas where water or other extinguishing agents may be ineffective or cause further damage, such as in the presence of flammable liquids and gases. Therefore, carbon dioxide fixed extinguishing systems are a suitable choice for fire protection in such environments.

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  • 31. 

    Dry chemical fixed fire extinguishing systems ARE NOT recommended for use on:

    • A.

      Flammable liquids

    • B.

      Flammable gases

    • C.

      Delicate electronic equipment

    • D.

      Paper storage

    Correct Answer
    C. Delicate electronic equipment
    Explanation
    Dry chemical fixed fire extinguishing systems are not recommended for use on delicate electronic equipment because the dry chemical can cause damage to the sensitive components. The chemicals in the extinguisher can leave behind residue that can corrode or short-circuit the electronics, leading to further damage. It is important to use alternative fire suppression methods, such as clean agent systems, that are specifically designed to protect delicate electronic equipment without causing harm.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following are types of fixed fire extinguishing systems?

    • A.

      Automatic sprinkler sytems, foam systems, carbon dioxide systems, halogenated agent systems, and chemical systems

    • B.

      Automatic sprinkler systems, factory mutual systems, and UL listed systems

    • C.

      Wet sprinkler systems, dry sprinkler systems, deluge systems, fire mutual systems, and hazardous substance systems

    • D.

      Water sprinkler systems, air sprinkler systems, flooding sprinkler systems, and chemical sprinkler systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Automatic sprinkler sytems, foam systems, carbon dioxide systems, halogenated agent systems, and chemical systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes various types of fixed fire extinguishing systems such as automatic sprinkler systems, foam systems, carbon dioxide systems, halogenated agent systems, and chemical systems. These systems are designed to suppress or extinguish fires automatically without the need for human intervention. Automatic sprinkler systems release water or other extinguishing agents when a predetermined temperature is reached, foam systems use foam to smother the fire, carbon dioxide systems displace oxygen to extinguish the fire, halogenated agent systems use chemicals to interrupt the combustion process, and chemical systems release specific chemicals to suppress the fire.

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  • 33. 

    To ensure that sprinkler systems perform properly during a fire, they require:

    • A.

      Maintenance, periodic inspection, and FM listing

    • B.

      Periodic inspection, testing, and UL listing

    • C.

      UL listing, testing and maintenance

    • D.

      Periodic inspection, testing and maintenance

    Correct Answer
    D. Periodic inspection, testing and maintenance
    Explanation
    Sprinkler systems need to be periodically inspected, tested, and maintained in order to ensure their proper functioning during a fire. Periodic inspection helps identify any potential issues or malfunctions in the system, while testing ensures that the sprinklers activate as intended. Maintenance involves regular upkeep and repairs to keep the system in optimal condition. These measures are necessary to guarantee that the sprinkler system will effectively suppress fires and protect the building and its occupants. The options mentioning FM listing and UL listing are not relevant to the question and can be disregarded.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following are parts of a fire door assembly?

    • A.

      Rated fire door

    • B.

      Rated frame assembly

    • C.

      Latching hardware

    • D.

      Door closing hardware

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above." All of the mentioned options are parts of a fire door assembly. A fire door assembly consists of a rated fire door, a rated frame assembly, latching hardware, and door closing hardware. These components work together to create a fire-resistant barrier that helps prevent the spread of fire and smoke in a building.

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  • 35. 

    Standard fire doors include which of the following types?

    • A.

      Horizontal sliding

    • B.

      Vertical sliding

    • C.

      Overhead rolling

    • D.

      Double swinging

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Standard fire doors include all of the mentioned types: horizontal sliding, vertical sliding, overhead rolling, and double swinging. These different types of fire doors provide various options for installation depending on the requirements of the building and the available space. Horizontal sliding fire doors are commonly used in areas with limited headroom, vertical sliding fire doors are suitable for narrow openings, overhead rolling fire doors are often used in industrial settings, and double swinging fire doors are ideal for larger openings. By offering all of these types, standard fire doors can accommodate different architectural and functional needs.

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  • 36. 

    Prior to pumping, the amount of pressure that is expected to be available from a hydrant is called normal _____ pressure.

    • A.

      Atmospheric

    • B.

      Operating

    • C.

      Residual

    • D.

      Grid

    Correct Answer
    B. Operating
    Explanation
    The term "operating pressure" refers to the pressure that is expected to be available from a hydrant during normal pumping operations. This is the pressure that is necessary for the hydrant to function properly and provide water for firefighting or other purposes. The other options, atmospheric pressure, residual pressure, and grid pressure, do not accurately describe the pressure from a hydrant prior to pumping.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following IS NOT a primary water supply source for an automatic sprinkler system?

    • A.

      Public water supply system

    • B.

      Gravity tank

    • C.

      Pressure tank

    • D.

      Fire department water tanker truck

    Correct Answer
    D. Fire department water tanker truck
    Explanation
    A fire department water tanker truck is not a primary water supply source for an automatic sprinkler system because it is not a permanent or reliable source of water. The other options listed, such as the public water supply system, gravity tank, and pressure tank, are all commonly used as primary water supply sources for automatic sprinkler systems.

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  • 38. 

    Two causes of increased resistance or friction loss in water mains are:

    • A.

      Encrustations and conduction

    • B.

      Sedimentation and encrustation

    • C.

      Elasticity and conduction

    • D.

      Sedimentation and elasticity

    Correct Answer
    B. Sedimentation and encrustation
    Explanation
    Sedimentation refers to the process of particles settling at the bottom of the water mains, which can cause blockages and reduce the flow of water. Encrustation, on the other hand, refers to the buildup of mineral deposits on the inner walls of the pipes, further narrowing the passage and increasing resistance. These two factors, sedimentation and encrustation, contribute to increased resistance or friction loss in water mains.

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  • 39. 

    _____ will completely line the interior of a pipe and will gradually cause a restricted diameter.

    • A.

      Lead deposits

    • B.

      Sedimentation

    • C.

      Encrustations

    • D.

      Mud deposits

    Correct Answer
    C. Encrustations
    Explanation
    Encrustations refer to the accumulation of mineral deposits on the inner surface of a pipe. Over time, these deposits can gradually build up and cause a restricted diameter within the pipe, reducing its flow capacity. This can lead to issues such as reduced water pressure or clogs in the pipe. Therefore, encrustations are the most suitable option to explain the given statement.

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  • 40. 

    _____ deposits consist of mud, clay, and dead organisms.

    • A.

      Valve

    • B.

      Sedimentary

    • C.

      Tuberculation

    • D.

      Encrustation

    Correct Answer
    B. Sedimentary
    Explanation
    Sedimentary deposits are formed by the accumulation of mud, clay, and dead organisms over time. These materials settle and solidify, creating layers of sedimentary rock. This process can occur in bodies of water such as lakes and oceans, where the particles gradually settle to the bottom and form layers. Sedimentary deposits are important in understanding Earth's history and can contain valuable information about past environments and life forms.

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  • 41. 

    A fire hydrant that receives water from only one direction is called a:

    • A.

      One way hydrant

    • B.

      Steamer hydrant

    • C.

      Circulating feed hydrant

    • D.

      Dead end hydrant

    Correct Answer
    D. Dead end hydrant
    Explanation
    A fire hydrant that receives water from only one direction is called a dead end hydrant. This term refers to a hydrant that does not have a circulating feed, meaning it does not receive water from multiple directions. Instead, it receives water from a single source, making it a dead end for water flow.

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  • 42. 

    It is very important that, during plans review of a building, the fire inspector is knowledgeable in ______ and _____.

    • A.

      Sprinkler systems, fire alarms

    • B.

      Zoning, sprinkler systems

    • C.

      Fire alarms, zoning

    • D.

      Planning, fire alarms

    Correct Answer
    A. Sprinkler systems, fire alarms
    Explanation
    During plans review of a building, the fire inspector needs to be knowledgeable in sprinkler systems and fire alarms. This is because these two components play a crucial role in fire safety and prevention. Sprinkler systems are designed to detect and extinguish fires, while fire alarms provide early warning to occupants and emergency responders. Understanding how these systems work and being familiar with the relevant codes and regulations is essential for a fire inspector to ensure that the building is compliant and adequately protected against fire hazards.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following are part of a means of egress?

    • A.

      Corridor, stairs, alley

    • B.

      Overhead door, non rated corridor, alley

    • C.

      Through kitchen, corridor, street

    • D.

      Through mechanical room, fenced in yard, street

    Correct Answer
    A. Corridor, stairs, alley
    Explanation
    A means of egress refers to the path that people can use to exit a building in case of an emergency. Corridors, stairs, and alleys are all part of a means of egress as they provide a safe and accessible route for people to evacuate the building. These elements are specifically designed to facilitate the movement of individuals towards a safe location outside the building. The other options mentioned do not fulfill the criteria of a means of egress as they either do not provide a clear exit path or are not designed for safe evacuation.

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  • 44. 

    A means of egress consists of three distinct components:

    • A.

      Exit access, exit, and exit discharge

    • B.

      Exit, exit access, and enclosed hallway

    • C.

      Exit discharge, passage way, and ramp

    • D.

      Escalator, fire escapte, and stairs

    Correct Answer
    A. Exit access, exit, and exit discharge
    Explanation
    A means of egress refers to the path or route that people can use to exit a building during an emergency. It consists of three distinct components: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. The exit access is the portion of the means of egress that leads to an exit, such as a hallway or corridor. The exit is the actual point of departure from the building, which could be a door or stairwell. Finally, the exit discharge is the area outside the building where people can safely gather after exiting. These three components work together to ensure a safe and efficient evacuation during emergencies.

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  • 45. 

    When panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to open the door by apply a force of NOT MORE THAN _____ pounds.

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      15

    • D.

      20

    Correct Answer
    C. 15
    Explanation
    When panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to open the door by applying a force of not more than 15 pounds. This is because panic hardware is designed to allow for easy and quick egress in emergency situations, such as a fire or other life-threatening events. By limiting the force required to open the door to 15 pounds or less, it ensures that even individuals with limited strength or mobility can easily open the door and escape to safety.

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  • 46. 

    When illumination of exits is required, it must be continous during occupancy and floors must be illuminated at not less than 1 footcandle lumens (1X) measured at the:

    • A.

      Floor

    • B.

      Ceiling

    • C.

      Wall

    • D.

      Ceiling and floor

    Correct Answer
    A. Floor
    Explanation
    When illumination of exits is required, it must be continuous during occupancy and floors must be illuminated at not less than 1 footcandle lumens (1X) measured at the floor. This means that the minimum level of illumination should be provided at the floor level to ensure visibility and safety for occupants. Illumination at other levels such as the ceiling or wall may not be sufficient for effectively lighting the path to the exits. Therefore, the correct answer is floor.

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  • 47. 

    When two or more exits from an occupancy are required, they shall be located:

    • A.

      Remote from each other

    • B.

      Remote as long as travel distance is not too long

    • C.

      Remote as to provide same travel distance for 80% of the occupants

    • D.

      An equal distance from all occupants

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote from each other
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "remote from each other". When two or more exits are required in an occupancy, they should be located at a distance from each other. This ensures that in the event of an emergency, occupants have multiple options to safely exit the building, reducing congestion and potential hazards. Having exits remote from each other also helps to prevent a single point of failure, as one exit may become inaccessible due to fire or other emergencies.

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  • 48. 

    Cooking equipment must have a clearance of at least _____ inches to any combustible material.

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      12

    • D.

      18

    Correct Answer
    D. 18
    Explanation
    Cooking equipment must have a clearance of at least 18 inches to any combustible material. This is necessary to prevent the risk of fire. Combustible materials, such as wood or fabric, can easily catch fire if they come into contact with the heat generated by cooking equipment. By having a clearance of 18 inches, there is enough space for air circulation and to prevent the heat from reaching the combustible materials. This helps to ensure the safety of the cooking area and reduce the chances of a fire hazard.

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  • 49. 

    It is essential, in order for fire inspectors to be effective, that they know:

    • A.

      The hazards involving equipment and processes found in their jurisdiction

    • B.

      All codes involving all types of equipment or processes

    • C.

      Only the codes based on past problems with which the jurisdiction had dealt

    • D.

      The hazards involved in industrial occupancies

    Correct Answer
    A. The hazards involving equipment and processes found in their jurisdiction
    Explanation
    Fire inspectors need to be aware of the hazards involving equipment and processes found in their jurisdiction in order to be effective. This knowledge allows them to identify potential risks and take appropriate measures to prevent fires and ensure the safety of the public. By understanding the specific hazards present in their jurisdiction, fire inspectors can develop targeted inspection plans, enforce relevant codes and regulations, and educate businesses and residents on necessary safety measures. This knowledge also enables them to respond effectively in emergency situations and mitigate the impact of fires.

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  • 50. 

    A key element of an emergency plan, common to all types of occupancies is:

    • A.

      An approved inspector's report

    • B.

      The need to evacuate the structure in a timely and efficient manner

    • C.

      Notifying the fire department of any emergency

    • D.

      Making sure all areas of the building are accessible

    Correct Answer
    B. The need to evacuate the structure in a timely and efficient manner
    Explanation
    In an emergency plan, regardless of the type of occupancy, the most important key element is the need to evacuate the structure in a timely and efficient manner. This means that all occupants should be able to quickly and safely exit the building to avoid any potential harm or danger. Evacuation procedures should be well-defined and practiced regularly to ensure that everyone knows what to do in case of an emergency. This is crucial for the safety and well-being of all individuals within the building.

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