Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement Study Quiz 10

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Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement Study Quiz 10 - Quiz


Study Guide Quiz Questions for fire inspections & code enforcement


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    __________ are a way of staying aware of changes in use or hazardous conditions.

    • A.

      Surveys

    • B.

      Permits

    • C.

      Self inspections

    • D.

      Fire reports

    Correct Answer
    B. Permits
    Explanation
    Permits are a way of staying aware of changes in use or hazardous conditions. Permits are typically required for certain activities or changes in a property, such as construction or renovations. By obtaining permits, individuals or organizations are required to adhere to specific regulations and safety standards, ensuring that any potential hazards or risks are addressed and mitigated. Therefore, permits serve as a means of staying informed and aware of any changes or conditions that may pose a danger.

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  • 2. 

    On a site plan, the north directional symbol USUALLY points toward the:

    • A.

      Magnetic north pole

    • B.

      Right side of the page

    • C.

      Top of the page

    • D.

      True north pole

    Correct Answer
    C. Top of the page
    Explanation
    The north directional symbol on a site plan usually points towards the top of the page. This is because site plans are typically oriented with the top of the page representing north. This convention allows for easy understanding and navigation of the plan, as it aligns with the commonly used north-south orientation. The symbol is not pointing towards the magnetic north pole or the true north pole, as these may not align with the top of the page. The right side of the page is also not the usual direction for the north symbol.

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  • 3. 

    There are four main views of working drawings.  They include ALL of the following EXCEPT the _____ view.

    • A.

      Sectional

    • B.

      Utility

    • C.

      Elevation

    • D.

      Detailed

    • E.

      Plan

    Correct Answer
    B. Utility
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the view that is not included in the four main views of working drawings. The four main views mentioned are sectional, elevation, detailed, and plan. The correct answer, utility, is not one of the four main views. Therefore, the utility view is not included in the main views of working drawings.

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  • 4. 

    When investigating a complaint, a fire inspector should:

    • A.

      Never give the owner advance notice of the investigation

    • B.

      Explain the purpose of the investigation to the owner

    • C.

      Take appropriate departmental action to correct the violations

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Explain the purpose of the investigation to the owner
    C. Take appropriate departmental action to correct the violations
    Explanation
    When investigating a complaint, a fire inspector should explain the purpose of the investigation to the owner. This is important because it helps establish transparency and trust between the inspector and the owner. By explaining the purpose, the owner will have a clear understanding of why the investigation is taking place and what the inspector is looking for. Additionally, the inspector should take appropriate departmental action to correct the violations found during the investigation. This ensures that any potential fire hazards or violations are addressed and resolved in a timely manner to ensure the safety of the property and its occupants.

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  • 5. 

    When an individual building or business owner feels that the local jurisdiction has made an improper code interpretation or decision, the individual may request a:

    • A.

      Hearing in district court or civil court, depending on the degree of hardship

    • B.

      Hearing by the civilian review board

    • C.

      Review by the Board of Appeals

    • D.

      More favorable ruling by the building inspector

    Correct Answer
    C. Review by the Board of Appeals
    Explanation
    When an individual building or business owner disagrees with the local jurisdiction's code interpretation or decision, they can seek a review by the Board of Appeals. This board is responsible for reviewing and deciding on appeals related to code interpretations and decisions made by the local jurisdiction. It provides an avenue for individuals to challenge and potentially overturn the initial decision. The other options mentioned in the question, such as a hearing in court or review by a civilian review board, may also be possible in certain cases but are not specifically mentioned as the correct answer.

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  • 6. 

    Prior to a court case, an inspector should do all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Reinspect the facility the day before the trial

    • B.

      Go over his/her testimony with the prosecutor before entering the courtroom

    • C.

      Appear in proper uniform or be neatly dressed

    • D.

      Volunteer information to make responses as detailed and complete as possible

    Correct Answer
    D. Volunteer information to make responses as detailed and complete as possible
    Explanation
    Prior to a court case, an inspector should reinspect the facility the day before the trial to ensure that all necessary evidence is gathered and any changes or violations are documented. The inspector should also go over his/her testimony with the prosecutor before entering the courtroom to ensure that they are prepared and present their case effectively. Additionally, the inspector should appear in proper uniform or be neatly dressed to maintain professionalism and credibility. However, the inspector should not volunteer information to make responses as detailed and complete as possible, as this may lead to providing unnecessary or irrelevant information that could weaken their case.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following IS NOT suggested for courtroom procedure or behavior?

    • A.

      Never become argumentative on the witness stand

    • B.

      Make sure that all physical evidence, exhibits, photographs, notes, and reference materials are brought to court

    • C.

      Attempt to answer a question you do not know

    • D.

      Remain impartial - do not give the impression that you have a personal dislike for the defendant

    Correct Answer
    C. Attempt to answer a question you do not know
    Explanation
    In a courtroom procedure, it is not suggested to attempt to answer a question you do not know. It is important to be honest and truthful while providing testimony, and if you do not know the answer to a question, it is better to admit it rather than providing false information. Providing false or incorrect information can undermine your credibility as a witness and can have negative consequences for the case. It is always better to be honest and stick to the facts that you are sure about.

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  • 8. 

    According to NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, a building that provides sleeping facilities for 4 or more residents and is occupied by persons who are generally prevented from protecting themselves because of security measures not under their control, is classified as a/an:

    • A.

      Residential occupancy

    • B.

      Occupancy of unusual structure

    • C.

      Industrial occupancy

    • D.

      Detention and correctional occupancy

    Correct Answer
    D. Detention and correctional occupancy
    Explanation
    According to NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, a building that provides sleeping facilities for 4 or more residents and is occupied by persons who are generally prevented from protecting themselves because of security measures not under their control is classified as a detention and correctional occupancy. This classification is used for facilities such as prisons, jails, and detention centers where the occupants are restricted and require special security measures for their safety.

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  • 9. 

    According to NFPA 101, Life Safety Code, buildings used as a store, market, and other rooms, buildings, or structures used to display and sell merchandise are classified as a/an:

    • A.

      Mercantile occupancy

    • B.

      Business occupancy

    • C.

      Storage occupancy

    • D.

      Place of assembly

    • E.

      Occupancy of unusual structures

    Correct Answer
    A. Mercantile occupancy
    Explanation
    According to NFPA 101, buildings used to display and sell merchandise are classified as mercantile occupancy. This classification is used for buildings that are primarily engaged in the retail sale of goods. It includes stores, markets, and other rooms or structures where merchandise is displayed and sold. This classification helps to ensure that these buildings meet specific safety requirements to protect occupants and prevent fire hazards associated with the storage and sale of merchandise.

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  • 10. 

    Fire drills in educational occupancies SHOULD NOT BE conducted:

    • A.

      During classroom changes, since the students are already in the hallways

    • B.

      During assembly programs, since the students are all in one place making for easy evacuation

    • C.

      During lunch time

    • D.

      At the start of each day

    Correct Answer
    D. At the start of each day
    Explanation
    Fire drills should not be conducted at the start of each day because students and staff may not be fully prepared or aware of the drill. Conducting a fire drill at the beginning of the day can lead to confusion and potential panic, as individuals may not have had time to settle into their routines or become familiar with the emergency procedures. It is important to conduct fire drills at times when students and staff are more likely to be alert and ready to respond effectively to an emergency situation.

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  • 11. 

    The purpose of school fire exit drills is to:

    • A.

      Increase speek in evacuating all children

    • B.

      Instill discipline and order

    • C.

      Ensure that all exits are being used and are not locked

    • D.

      Ensure orderly exit of all personnel under controlled supervision

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensure orderly exit of all personnel under controlled supervision
    Explanation
    The purpose of school fire exit drills is to ensure that all personnel are able to exit the building in an organized and controlled manner. This helps to prevent chaos and panic during an emergency situation and ensures that everyone can safely evacuate the premises. By practicing these drills, individuals become familiar with the evacuation procedures and know how to exit the building efficiently. This also allows for any issues with exits, such as locked doors, to be identified and addressed beforehand, further ensuring the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 12. 

    A sketch depicting the general arrangement of the property in reference to streets, adjacent properties, and other important features is known as a:

    • A.

      Plot plan

    • B.

      Sectional view

    • C.

      Floor plan

    • D.

      Blue print

    Correct Answer
    A. Plot plan
    Explanation
    A plot plan is a sketch that shows the overall layout of a property in relation to streets, neighboring properties, and other significant features. It provides a visual representation of how the property is situated within its surroundings and helps in understanding its orientation and boundaries. Unlike a floor plan or a sectional view, which focus on the internal layout and structure of a building, a plot plan provides a broader perspective of the property's location and context. A blueprint, on the other hand, refers to the detailed technical drawings of a building or structure.

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  • 13. 

    Which item WOULD NOT be considered during a field observation of a site for emergency access?

    • A.

      Fire department access roadways which are wide enough to permit fire apparatus to operate and to pass

    • B.

      Verification of code compliance for the storage, handling, and use of hazardous materials

    • C.

      Physical, topographical, or architectural obstructions

    • D.

      Adequate turning radius

    • E.

      Whether access roads are within minimum building access distance requirements

    Correct Answer
    B. Verification of code compliance for the storage, handling, and use of hazardous materials
    Explanation
    During a field observation of a site for emergency access, verification of code compliance for the storage, handling, and use of hazardous materials would not be considered. This is because the focus of the observation is on factors such as fire department access roadways, physical obstructions, turning radius, and building access distance requirements. The storage, handling, and use of hazardous materials is a separate concern that would be addressed through other inspections or assessments.

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  • 14. 

    The temperature at which a liquid fuel, once ignited, will continue to burn is known as:

    • A.

      Fire point

    • B.

      Vapor temperature

    • C.

      Boiling point

    • D.

      Flash point

    Correct Answer
    A. Fire point
    Explanation
    The fire point is the temperature at which a liquid fuel, once ignited, will continue to burn. This is different from the flash point, which is the temperature at which a liquid fuel will produce enough vapor to ignite but may not sustain a flame. The boiling point refers to the temperature at which a liquid fuel changes into a vapor state. Therefore, the correct answer is fire point.

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  • 15. 

    When a fuel gives of enough vapors so that it can be ignited and burn momentarily, it has reached its:

    • A.

      Fire point

    • B.

      Upper flammable limit

    • C.

      Vapor density

    • D.

      Flash point

    Correct Answer
    D. Flash point
    Explanation
    The flash point is the lowest temperature at which a fuel can vaporize and ignite when exposed to an open flame or spark. It is the temperature at which the fuel gives off enough vapors to create a momentary flash or fire. Once the flash point is reached, the fuel can sustain combustion. Therefore, when a fuel reaches its flash point, it has reached the temperature at which it can be ignited and burn momentarily.

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  • 16. 

    Class B fires involve fuels such as:

    • A.

      Greases or flammable/combustible liquids

    • B.

      Energized electrical equipment

    • C.

      Combustible metals

    • D.

      Ordinary combustibles

    Correct Answer
    A. Greases or flammable/combustible liquids
    Explanation
    Class B fires involve fuels such as greases or flammable/combustible liquids. This means that fires caused by these substances fall under Class B category. Class B fires are typically fueled by substances that are flammable or combustible in nature, such as greases or liquids that can easily catch fire. These fuels can pose a significant fire hazard and require specific methods and extinguishing agents to be effectively controlled and extinguished.

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  • 17. 

    When referring to the L.E.L. of a flammable or combustible liquid, what does the L.E.L. mean?

    • A.

      Lowest Efficiency Level

    • B.

      Life Span Equivalency Label

    • C.

      Lower Explosive Limit

    • D.

      Lowest Evaporation Limit

    Correct Answer
    C. Lower Explosive Limit
    Explanation
    The term L.E.L. stands for Lower Explosive Limit when referring to the L.E.L. of a flammable or combustible liquid. The Lower Explosive Limit is the minimum concentration of vapor in air that can ignite and sustain combustion. Below this limit, the mixture is too lean to burn. The L.E.L. is an important safety consideration as it helps determine the potential for a liquid to explode or catch fire in certain conditions.

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  • 18. 

    The upper and lower concentrations of a vapor that will produce a flame at a given pressure and temperature are called:

    • A.

      Flash points

    • B.

      Vapor densities

    • C.

      Flammable and explosive limits

    • D.

      Burning points

    Correct Answer
    C. Flammable and explosive limits
    Explanation
    The upper and lower concentrations of a vapor that will produce a flame at a given pressure and temperature are referred to as flammable and explosive limits. These limits indicate the range of vapor concentrations in which a mixture can ignite and sustain combustion. Above the upper limit, the mixture is too rich in vapor to ignite, while below the lower limit, the mixture is too lean. Understanding these limits is crucial for ensuring safety in environments where flammable substances are present.

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  • 19. 

    The percentage of a flammable substance in air that will burn when in contact with an ignition source BEST defines:

    • A.

      Ignition temperature

    • B.

      Boiling point

    • C.

      Flammable/explosive limit

    • D.

      Flash point

    Correct Answer
    C. Flammable/explosive limit
    Explanation
    The flammable/explosive limit refers to the range of concentrations of a flammable substance in air that can ignite or explode when exposed to an ignition source. It indicates the lower and upper limits of the substance's concentration in the air, beyond which it will not burn. This term is used to determine the safety precautions required when handling flammable substances and to prevent potential accidents or explosions.

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  • 20. 

    Vapor density is used to evaluate the relative weights of _______ in much the same way as specific gravity is used to evaluate _______.

    • A.

      Solids, liquids

    • B.

      Air, solids

    • C.

      Gases, liquids

    • D.

      Liquids, air

    Correct Answer
    C. Gases, liquids
    Explanation
    Vapor density is used to evaluate the relative weights of gases in much the same way as specific gravity is used to evaluate liquids.

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  • 21. 

    Choose the BEST answer regarding the difference between compressed and liquefied gases at normal temperatures.  Within a pressurized container:

    • A.

      Compressed gases are in both a liquid and gaseous state

    • B.

      Compressed gases are only in a gaseous state

    • C.

      Liquefied gases are only in a liquid state

    • D.

      Liquiefied gases are in a gaseous state only

    Correct Answer
    B. Compressed gases are only in a gaseous state
    Explanation
    Compressed gases are only in a gaseous state because they are stored at high pressures, which keeps the gas in a condensed form. Liquefied gases, on the other hand, are gases that have been cooled and condensed into a liquid state. Therefore, compressed gases remain in a gaseous state while liquefied gases exist in a liquid state.

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  • 22. 

    In a closed area, gases with vapor density of less than one will:

    • A.

      Rise and not concentrate near the ceiling

    • B.

      Rise and concentrate near the ceiling

    • C.

      Settle and not concentrate at the floor

    • D.

      Settle and concentrate at the floor

    Correct Answer
    B. Rise and concentrate near the ceiling
    Explanation
    Gases with vapor density less than one are lighter than air, so they will rise. Additionally, these gases have a tendency to concentrate near the ceiling due to their lighter nature. This is because lighter gases are less affected by gravity and are more likely to accumulate in higher areas. Therefore, the correct answer is that gases with vapor density less than one will rise and concentrate near the ceiling.

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  • 23. 

    Vapor density is defined as the weight of ______ as compared to the weight of an equal volume of ______.

    • A.

      Gas, air

    • B.

      Air, gas

    • C.

      Liquid, air

    • D.

      Air, liquid

    Correct Answer
    A. Gas, air
    Explanation
    Vapor density is a measure of the weight of a gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of air. It helps in determining the relative density of a gas and is commonly used in various scientific and industrial applications. By comparing the weight of a gas to the weight of an equal volume of air, we can understand its density and how it behaves in relation to air.

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  • 24. 

    On above-ground inside storage tanks for flammable or combustible liquid storage tanks, automatic closing, heat-actuated valves are required on:

    • A.

      All piping connections

    • B.

      Piping connections above the liquid level

    • C.

      None of the piping connections

    • D.

      All piping connections below the liquid level

    Correct Answer
    D. All piping connections below the liquid level
    Explanation
    Automatic closing, heat-actuated valves are required on all piping connections below the liquid level in above-ground inside storage tanks for flammable or combustible liquid storage tanks. This is because these valves are designed to automatically close in the event of a fire or high temperature, preventing the release of flammable or combustible liquids. By having these valves on all piping connections below the liquid level, it ensures that in the event of a fire, the flow of flammable or combustible liquids can be quickly shut off to minimize the risk of explosion or further spread of fire.

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  • 25. 

    Inside storage tanks containing Class I, II, or III-A liquids must have vent pipes which terminate:

    • A.

      Outside the building

    • B.

      At least 12 feet above tank

    • C.

      At least 5 feet above tank

    • D.

      At least 3 feet above fill pipe

    Correct Answer
    A. Outside the building
    Explanation
    Vent pipes inside storage tanks containing Class I, II, or III-A liquids must terminate outside the building. This is important for safety reasons as it allows for the release of any vapors or gases that may build up inside the tank. By terminating the vent pipes outside the building, any potential hazards are kept away from the occupied areas, reducing the risk of fire or explosion.

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  • 26. 

    Containers that are approved for flammable and combustible liquids should have HOW MANY devices that will provide sufficient venting capacity to limit the internal pressure of the containers to 10 psi or 30 percent of the bursting pressure of the container?

    • A.

      One or more

    • B.

      Three or more

    • C.

      Four or more

    • D.

      Not required

    Correct Answer
    A. One or more
    Explanation
    Containers that are approved for flammable and combustible liquids should have one or more devices that will provide sufficient venting capacity to limit the internal pressure of the containers. This is important to prevent the containers from bursting or exploding due to excessive pressure buildup. Having one or more venting devices ensures that there is adequate release of pressure to maintain the safety of the container and its contents.

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  • 27. 

    The diked area surrouding above ground flammable liquid storage tanks must have a volume large enough to contain:

    • A.

      The volume of half of the tanks within the diked area

    • B.

      Half of the volume of the largest tank

    • C.

      Entire volume that could be released from the largest tank

    • D.

      The volume of all the tanks within the diked area

    Correct Answer
    C. Entire volume that could be released from the largest tank
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "entire volume that could be released from the largest tank." This is because the purpose of the diked area is to contain any potential spills or leaks from the storage tanks. Therefore, the volume of the diked area must be able to hold the entire volume that could potentially be released from the largest tank.

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  • 28. 

    Dip tank operations must be located in noncombustible buildings.  At what floor level in noncombustible buildings must dip tank operations be located?

    • A.

      Not above the third floor

    • B.

      Not above the second floor

    • C.

      Not below the ground floor

    • D.

      Not above or below the ground floor

    Correct Answer
    D. Not above or below the ground floor
    Explanation
    Dip tank operations must be located in noncombustible buildings to ensure safety. The correct answer states that dip tank operations should not be located above or below the ground floor. This is because having dip tank operations on higher floors increases the risk of fire spreading to other parts of the building, while having them on lower floors may pose difficulties in terms of ventilation and access for emergency response. Therefore, it is important to keep dip tank operations on the ground floor to minimize the potential hazards associated with the operation.

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  • 29. 

    To avoid trapping cryogenic liquids in piping, which choice for installed piping is the safest?

    • A.

      A pressure relief device every 100 ft and piping sloped up from the container

    • B.

      A pressure relieve device between every two shut off valves and piping sloped up from the container

    • C.

      A pressure relief device every 90 ft and piping sloped down from the container

    • D.

      A pressure relief device between every two shut off valves and piping sloped down from the container

    Correct Answer
    B. A pressure relieve device between every two shut off valves and piping sloped up from the container
    Explanation
    Installing a pressure relief device between every two shut off valves and piping sloping up from the container is the safest choice to avoid trapping cryogenic liquids in piping. This configuration allows for the safe release of excess pressure at regular intervals, preventing the build-up of pressure that could potentially trap the cryogenic liquids. Additionally, the upward slope of the piping helps to ensure that any liquid present in the piping is able to flow back towards the container, further reducing the risk of trapping.

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  • 30. 

    The objective of a residential inspection program is to:

    • A.

      Attain proper life safety conditions

    • B.

      Prevent fires

    • C.

      Educate the property owner and occupants about fire safety

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The objective of a residential inspection program is to attain proper life safety conditions, prevent fires, and educate the property owner and occupants about fire safety. By achieving these goals, the program aims to ensure the safety and well-being of residents in residential buildings.

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  • 31. 

    The colder of two bodies will always absorb heat until both objects are the same temperature is explained by the Law of ____ which is a natural law of physics.

    • A.

      Specific Heat

    • B.

      Heat Transfer

    • C.

      Latent Heat of Vaporization

    • D.

      Atomic Weight

    Correct Answer
    B. Heat Transfer
    Explanation
    The Law of Heat Transfer states that heat flows from a hotter object to a colder object until both objects reach the same temperature. This is because heat is a form of energy that naturally seeks to distribute itself evenly. Therefore, the colder body will absorb heat from the hotter body until equilibrium is reached. This law is a fundamental principle in physics that explains the transfer of thermal energy between objects.

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  • 32. 

    The principle which MOST CLOSELY describes how water extinguishes fire is:

    • A.

      Removal of fuel

    • B.

      Reduction of temperature

    • C.

      Exclusion of oxygen

    • D.

      Inhibition of a chain reaction

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduction of temperature
    Explanation
    Water extinguishes fire by reducing the temperature of the fuel and the surrounding area. When water is applied to a fire, it absorbs heat from the flames, causing the temperature to decrease. This decrease in temperature prevents the fire from sustaining itself and eventually leads to its extinguishment.

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  • 33. 

    During the first phase of a fire, the oxygen concentration within the room contains approximately _____ percent oxygen.

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      79

    Correct Answer
    C. 20
    Explanation
    During the first phase of a fire, the oxygen concentration within the room contains approximately 20 percent oxygen. This is because oxygen is required for combustion, and in the early stages of a fire, there is still a significant amount of oxygen available in the room. As the fire progresses and consumes the available oxygen, the concentration will decrease.

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  • 34. 

    A fire in the presence of a higher than normal concentration of oxygen will:

    • A.

      Burn slower than normal

    • B.

      Burn faster than normal

    • C.

      Not be effected by the oxygen

    • D.

      Not burn if oxygen is too rich

    Correct Answer
    B. Burn faster than normal
    Explanation
    When there is a higher than normal concentration of oxygen present, it provides more oxygen molecules for the fire to react with. This increased availability of oxygen allows for more efficient combustion, resulting in a faster burning rate.

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  • 35. 

    _________ is electrial heat energy resulting from inadequately insulated electrical materials.

    • A.

      Dielectric heating

    • B.

      Induction heating

    • C.

      Friction heating

    • D.

      Leakage current heating

    Correct Answer
    D. Leakage current heating
    Explanation
    Leakage current heating is electrical heat energy resulting from inadequately insulated electrical materials. When there is a leakage current in a circuit, it causes resistance and generates heat. This can occur when there is a fault in the insulation of electrical materials, allowing current to leak through and create heat.

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  • 36. 

    Mechanical heat energy initated by the movement between objects in contact with one another defines:

    • A.

      Dielectric heating

    • B.

      Heat of friction

    • C.

      Static electricity

    • D.

      Resistance heating

    Correct Answer
    B. Heat of friction
    Explanation
    Heat of friction refers to the heat energy generated when two objects in contact with each other move relative to each other, creating friction. Friction is the resistance encountered when two surfaces slide or rub against each other. As the objects move, the friction between them converts mechanical energy into heat energy. This heat energy is referred to as the heat of friction. It is important to note that the other options mentioned in the question, such as dielectric heating, static electricity, and resistance heating, do not specifically involve the movement between objects in contact, making them incorrect answers.

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  • 37. 

    The amount of heat generated through the process of oxidation is known as:

    • A.

      Heat of solution

    • B.

      Heat of decomposition

    • C.

      Heat of combustion

    • D.

      Spontaneous heating

    Correct Answer
    C. Heat of combustion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is heat of combustion. Heat of combustion refers to the amount of heat released when a substance undergoes complete combustion with oxygen. It is a measure of the energy content of the substance and is commonly used to calculate the energy released during the burning of fuels.

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  • 38. 

    Heat that is released by the mixture of matter within certain liquids is known as:

    • A.

      Heat of solution

    • B.

      Heat of decomposition

    • C.

      Heat of combustion

    • D.

      Spontaneous heating

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat of solution
    Explanation
    Heat of solution refers to the heat that is released or absorbed when a solute dissolves in a solvent. This process involves the breaking of solute-solute and solvent-solvent interactions and the formation of new solute-solvent interactions. The heat of solution can be either exothermic (heat is released) or endothermic (heat is absorbed) depending on the nature of the solute and solvent and the conditions of the solution.

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  • 39. 

    Heat that results from passing an electrial force through a conductor defines ______ heating.

    • A.

      Resistance

    • B.

      Dielectric

    • C.

      Induction

    • D.

      Frictional

    Correct Answer
    A. Resistance
    Explanation
    Resistance heating is the process of heating a conductor by passing an electrical current through it, which results in the generation of heat. This heat is produced due to the resistance offered by the conductor to the flow of electric current. As the current passes through the conductor, the resistance causes the conversion of electrical energy into heat energy, thus defining resistance heating.

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  • 40. 

    Heating of an organic substance without an external heat source is known as:

    • A.

      Spontaneous heating

    • B.

      Heat of decomposition

    • C.

      Dielectric heating

    • D.

      Frictional heat

    Correct Answer
    A. Spontaneous heating
    Explanation
    Spontaneous heating refers to the process of organic substances heating up without the need for an external heat source. This can occur due to various reasons such as exothermic reactions, oxidation, or the release of stored energy. It is a self-sustaining process that can lead to combustion if not controlled.

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  • 41. 

    The release of heat usually due to bacterial action best defines:

    • A.

      Spontaneous heating

    • B.

      Heat of decomposition

    • C.

      Heat of compression

    • D.

      Heat of solution

    Correct Answer
    B. Heat of decomposition
    Explanation
    Heat of decomposition refers to the release of heat that occurs when a compound breaks down into simpler substances. This process is often caused by the action of bacteria, which break down organic matter and release heat as a byproduct. Therefore, the release of heat usually due to bacterial action aligns with the definition of heat of decomposition.

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  • 42. 

    The three methods of heat transfer are:

    • A.

      Conflagration, combustion, and contact

    • B.

      Fuel, heat, and oxygen

    • C.

      Conduction, radioactivity, and direct flame contact

    • D.

      Convection, conduction, and radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Convection, conduction, and radiation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is convection, conduction, and radiation. These are the three main methods of heat transfer. Convection refers to the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids or gases. Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects. Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, such as from the sun.

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  • 43. 

    The concept of heat flow specifies that heat:

    • A.

      Will flow from a hot substance to a cold substance

    • B.

      Will flow from a cold substance to a hot substance

    • C.

      Will vaporize a liquid thereby also reducing itself

    • D.

      Can travel through a building by one or four methods

    Correct Answer
    A. Will flow from a hot substance to a cold substance
    Explanation
    Heat flows from a hot substance to a cold substance due to the difference in temperature between the two substances. This is known as the principle of thermal equilibrium, where heat naturally moves from areas of higher temperature to areas of lower temperature in order to reach a state of balance.

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  • 44. 

    In order to have spontaneous heating, the substance MUST BE:

    • A.

      Insulated

    • B.

      Organic

    • C.

      Inorganic

    • D.

      Exposed to sunlight

    Correct Answer
    B. Organic
    Explanation
    Organic substances have the ability to undergo spontaneous heating due to their composition and chemical properties. This is because organic materials contain carbon-based compounds that can undergo exothermic reactions, such as oxidation, which can generate heat. In contrast, inorganic substances do not typically have the same ability to undergo spontaneous heating. Insulation and exposure to sunlight are not necessary conditions for spontaneous heating to occur in organic substances.

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  • 45. 

    The two types of valves found in water supply distribution systems are:

    • A.

      Gate and indicating

    • B.

      Ball and check

    • C.

      Screw and yoke

    • D.

      Indicating and nonindicating

    Correct Answer
    D. Indicating and nonindicating
    Explanation
    The correct answer is indicating and nonindicating. In water supply distribution systems, indicating valves are used to show the position of the valve, whether it is open or closed. Nonindicating valves, on the other hand, do not have this feature and do not provide any indication of the valve position. These types of valves serve different purposes in the system and are used in different applications depending on the need for valve position indication.

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  • 46. 

    The four fundamental components of a modern water system are:

    • A.

      Source, mains, feeders and risers

    • B.

      Primary, secondary, standpipes and subscriber connections

    • C.

      Pipes, valves, hydrants, and pumps

    • D.

      Source, treatment plant, means of moving, and delivery system

    Correct Answer
    D. Source, treatment plant, means of moving, and delivery system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "source, treatment plant, means of moving, and delivery system." This answer accurately identifies the four fundamental components of a modern water system. The source refers to the origin of the water, such as a river or reservoir. The treatment plant is responsible for purifying the water to make it safe for consumption. The means of moving refers to the infrastructure, such as pipes and pumps, that transport the water from the treatment plant to the delivery points. The delivery system ensures that the water reaches the end-users, such as households or businesses.

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  • 47. 

    In an assembly area of less concentrated use, such as a conference room or dining room measuring 150 feet by 200 feet, what would be the occupant load, is a load factor of 15 sq. ft per person is used?

    • A.

      1,000

    • B.

      2,000

    • C.

      500

    • D.

      5,000

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,000
    Explanation
    In this question, the occupant load is calculated by dividing the total area of the assembly area (150 feet by 200 feet) by the load factor of 15 square feet per person. The calculation would be (150 ft x 200 ft) / 15 sq. ft per person = 2,000 people. Therefore, the correct answer is 2,000.

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  • 48. 

    The primary method used in determining the occupant load of a structure or part of a structure is the ______ method.

    • A.

      Floor area

    • B.

      Building height

    • C.

      Occupancy classification

    • D.

      Building exit

    • E.

      Aisle

    Correct Answer
    A. Floor area
    Explanation
    The primary method used in determining the occupant load of a structure or part of a structure is the floor area method. This method calculates the number of occupants based on the available floor space and the specific occupancy requirements and regulations. By measuring the floor area and applying the appropriate occupancy factor, the occupant load can be accurately determined.

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  • 49. 

    During an inspection of a building, the first area to be inspected should be the:

    • A.

      Roof

    • B.

      Basement

    • C.

      Interior

    • D.

      Exterior

    Correct Answer
    D. Exterior
    Explanation
    During an inspection of a building, it is important to start with the exterior area. This is because the exterior of a building is exposed to various elements such as weather conditions, pests, and structural issues. Inspecting the exterior first allows for identification of any visible damages, cracks, or signs of wear and tear. It also helps in assessing the overall condition of the building, including its foundation, walls, windows, doors, and any potential safety hazards. By starting with the exterior, inspectors can gather important information about the building and prioritize their inspection process accordingly.

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  • 50. 

    A self-closing fire door is one that:

    • A.

      Closes when heat activates the closing device

    • B.

      Closes by magnetic controls

    • C.

      After being opened, returns to the closed position

    • D.

      Is a Class B door only

    Correct Answer
    C. After being opened, returns to the closed position
    Explanation
    A self-closing fire door is designed to automatically close after being opened, ensuring that it returns to the closed position. This feature is important in preventing the spread of fire and smoke, as it helps to compartmentalize different areas of a building and limit the movement of fire. By automatically closing, the door helps to maintain the integrity of fire-rated barriers and protect occupants and property from the dangers of fire.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 28, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 20, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Tribecca09
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