Final Patho Practise Test

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| By Christa42
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Final Patho Practise Test - Quiz

Georgain college intro to patho I, cummulative final review quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    All of the following are a cause of cellular injury and death except.

    • A.

      Ischemia/Hypoxia

    • B.

      Physical Injury

    • C.

      Chemical Agents

    • D.

      Bacterial Disease

    • E.

      Genetic Defects

    Correct Answer
    D. Bacterial Disease
    Explanation
    Should be ALL infectious disease

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  • 2. 

    Cellular deathStage 1:Stage 2: Necrosis:

    Correct Answer
    - loss of function - swells, ruptures, and dies, release of lysosomal enzymes - large number of cells die and liquefy due to enzymes
    Explanation
    In cellular death, there are two stages mentioned. In stage 1, one of the characteristics is the loss of function in the cells. In stage 2, known as necrosis, the cells undergo swelling, rupture, and ultimately die. As a result of this process, lysosomal enzymes are released. Additionally, a large number of cells die and liquefy due to the action of these enzymes.

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  • 3. 

    How do antibiotics work, and why don't they hurt human cells?

  • 4. 

    Compare bacteria, viruses, and fungi in structure, replication and treatment

  • 5. 

    Where can you find resident flora?

    • A.

      Vagina, blood, skin and, nose

    • B.

      CSF, blood, lungs, stomache, reproductive organs

    • C.

      Rectum, mouth, stomache, skin, nose, colon, urethra, vagina

    • D.

      Vagina, skin, nose, mouth, colon, rectum, urethra, perineum

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Vagina, skin, nose, mouth, colon, rectum, urethra, perineum
    Explanation
    Resident flora refers to the microorganisms that permanently reside in or on a specific area of the body without causing harm. The correct answer includes various body parts where resident flora can be found, such as the vagina, skin, nose, mouth, colon, rectum, urethra, and perineum. These areas provide suitable conditions for microorganisms to thrive and contribute to the body's overall microbiome.

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  • 6. 

    Transmission of infectious agents can be (through)

    • A.

      Direct, inderect, droplets and/or vectors

    • B.

      Sex, mother to fetus, fomite, sneeze and/or ticks

    • C.

      Toliet seat, oral sex, misquetos, spit

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      A and B only

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". This is because transmission of infectious agents can occur through direct contact with an infected person or their bodily fluids (such as through sexual contact or mother-to-fetus transmission), indirect contact with contaminated surfaces or objects (such as fomites or toilet seats), through droplets generated when an infected person coughs or sneezes, and through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks. Therefore, all the options mentioned in the question are valid modes of transmission for infectious agents.

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  • 7. 

    What drug class makes infection easyer

    • A.

      NSAIDS

    • B.

      Beta blockers

    • C.

      Corticosteroids

    • D.

      Stimulants

    • E.

      Antibiotics

    Correct Answer
    C. Corticosteroids
    Explanation
    reduces inflamation - white blood cell response

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  • 8. 

    What is the correct order for the development of an infection

    • A.

      Gain entry, incubation, prodromal, acute, convalescence or chronic

    • B.

      Gain entry, acute, incubation, chronic, prodromal, convalescence

    • C.

      Incubation, gain entry, acute, prodromal, convalescence or chronic

    • D.

      Gain entry, incubation, acute, prodromal, chronic, convalescence

    • E.

      Convalescence, incubation, acute, chronic, prodromal, gain entry

    Correct Answer
    A. Gain entry, incubation, prodromal, acute, convalescence or chronic
    Explanation
    The correct order for the development of an infection is as follows: gain entry, incubation, prodromal, acute, convalescence or chronic. Gain entry refers to the initial entry of the pathogen into the body. Incubation is the period during which the pathogen begins to multiply but does not cause symptoms. Prodromal is the early stage of the infection where mild symptoms may start to appear. Acute is the phase where the infection is at its peak and symptoms are most severe. Convalescence is the period of recovery, and chronic refers to a long-lasting or recurring infection.

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  • 9. 

    What is the difference between septicemia and bactermia

    • A.

      Nothing, they are the same thing.

    • B.

      Speticmia is with viruses and bactermia is with bacteria

    • C.

      Septicmia is a systemic infection and bactermia is an ifection in the resident flora

    • D.

      Septicmia is a systemic infection and bactermia is bacteria in the blood

    Correct Answer
    D. Septicmia is a systemic infection and bactermia is bacteria in the blood
    Explanation
    The correct answer is septicemia is a systemic infection and bacteremia is bacteria in the blood. Septicemia refers to a severe infection that has spread throughout the bloodstream, causing systemic symptoms. Bacteremia specifically refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood, which may or may not cause symptoms. Therefore, the two terms are not interchangeable, as septicemia is a type of infection that can result from bacteremia, but bacteremia does not always lead to septicemia.

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  • 10. 

    Which is not a diagnostic test for infection?

    • A.

      Blood pressure

    • B.

      Swabs/cultures

    • C.

      Sputum sample

    • D.

      Blood test (ESR)

    • E.

      Fever - therometer

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure
    Explanation
    Blood pressure is not a diagnostic test for infection because it measures the force of blood against the walls of the arteries and is used to assess cardiovascular health, not to detect or diagnose infections. Infections are typically diagnosed through tests such as swabs/cultures, sputum samples, and blood tests (ESR) which can detect the presence of pathogens or abnormal immune responses. Fever, measured with a thermometer, can also be an indicator of infection but is not a specific diagnostic test.

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  • 11. 

    Treatment for infection

    Correct Answer
    antibiotics
    antifungals
    antiviral
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes antibiotics, antifungals, and antiviral medications. These are all types of treatments that can be used to combat infections. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, and antiviral medications are used to treat viral infections. Depending on the type of infection, the appropriate treatment option can be determined.

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  • 12. 

    Which is correct about inflamtion?

    • A.

      It's very bad

    • B.

      Ends always in "yme"

    • C.

      Is intended to localize and remove injurous agent

    • D.

      Can only be immediate, never delayed or prolonged

    • E.

      Systemic effects are: erythema, edema, pain, and diminished function

    Correct Answer
    C. Is intended to localize and remove injurous agent
    Explanation
    Inflammation is a natural response of the body to injury or infection. It is intended to localize and remove injurious agents, such as bacteria or damaged cells, from the affected area. This process involves the recruitment of immune cells, release of chemical mediators, and increased blood flow to the site of injury. Inflammation is not always bad; it is a crucial part of the body's defense mechanism.

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  • 13. 

    Chronic inflamation

    • A.

      Is a disease

    • B.

      Less swelling but more macrophages, lymphocytes and fibroblasts

    • C.

      More scare tissue

    • D.

      Granuloma formation

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because chronic inflammation is a disease characterized by less swelling but more macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts. It also leads to the formation of more scar tissue and granulomas. Therefore, all the options mentioned in the question are true and contribute to chronic inflammation.

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  • 14. 

    In healing _________ means minimal damage, everything comes back together

    Correct Answer
    resolution
    Explanation
    Resolution refers to the process of healing where minimal damage occurs and everything comes back together. It involves the restoration of tissues and cells to their original state, resulting in the healing of wounds or injuries. In this context, resolution implies a complete and successful healing process without any significant long-term effects or complications.

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  • 15. 

    In healing ___________ means deviding cells such as in the skin or liver.

    Correct Answer
    regneration
    Explanation
    In healing, regeneration refers to the process of dividing cells, such as in the skin or liver, to repair and replace damaged or lost tissue. This process allows the body to restore its normal structure and function after injury or disease.

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  • 16. 

    In healing _______________________ means creation of scar tissue, not eleastic, undifferentiated, filler

    Correct Answer
    Replacement
    Explanation
    In healing, the term "replacement" refers to the process of creating scar tissue to repair damaged or injured tissue. This scar tissue is not elastic, undifferentiated, or filler, but rather serves as a substitute for the original tissue. The word "replacement" accurately describes the formation of scar tissue during the healing process.

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  • 17. 

    List the 6 stages of the healing process and possible complications.

  • 18. 

    What is not a effect of burn injury

    • A.

      Hypertension

    • B.

      Respiratory complications

    • C.

      Pain

    • D.

      Infection

    • E.

      Increased metabolic rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertension
    Explanation
    shock/hypertension

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  • 19. 

    A disease caused by medical intervention

    Correct Answer
    iatrogenic
    Explanation
    Iatrogenic refers to a disease or condition that is caused by medical intervention. This means that the disease or condition is a direct result of a medical treatment, procedure, or medication. It can occur due to various reasons such as medical errors, complications from surgery, adverse reactions to medications, or infections acquired in a healthcare setting. The term iatrogenic is used to describe situations where the healthcare provider unintentionally causes harm to the patient while trying to provide medical care.

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  • 20. 

    Which does not relate to cancer

    • A.

      Angiogenesis

    • B.

      Neoplasm

    • C.

      Non-differentiated tumors

    • D.

      Functional apoptosis

    • E.

      Cancer cell

    Correct Answer
    D. Functional apoptosis
    Explanation
    Functional apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in normal physiological conditions to maintain tissue homeostasis. It does not directly relate to cancer because cancer cells often evade apoptosis, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and tumor formation. In contrast, angiogenesis, neoplasm, non-differentiated tumors, and cancer cells are all directly associated with cancer development and progression.

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  • 21. 

    Immunity can be aquired by

    • A.

      Active natural

    • B.

      Active artificial

    • C.

      Active complacent

    • D.

      Passive natural

    • E.

      Passive artifical

    Correct Answer
    C. Active complacent
  • 22. 

    1. Humoral immunity is with (B or T cells)2. Cell mediated Immunity is with (B or T cells)

    Correct Answer
    1. B 2. T
    B,T
    Explanation
    Humoral immunity is primarily mediated by B cells, which produce antibodies that can neutralize pathogens or mark them for destruction by other immune cells. On the other hand, cell-mediated immunity is mainly carried out by T cells, which directly attack infected cells or coordinate immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is 1. B for humoral immunity and 2. T for cell-mediated immunity. However, it is worth noting that both B and T cells play a role in both types of immunity, but their contributions are more prominent in the respective types mentioned.

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  • 23. 

    What are the types of antibodies and what do they react to?

  • 24. 

    List the 4 types of hypersenitivity reactions

  • 25. 

    Compare and contrast bengn tumors and malignant tumors

  • 26. 

    Using the TMN staging of Tumors what are the stages 1 threw 4?

  • 27. 

    _____________________ puts cacium into the bones (Vitamine D or Calcitonin)

    Correct Answer
    Calcitonin
    Explanation
    Calcitonin is a hormone that helps regulate calcium levels in the body. It works by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue and releasing calcium into the bloodstream. By inhibiting osteoclast activity, calcitonin promotes the deposition of calcium into the bones, ultimately strengthening them. Therefore, calcitonin is the correct answer as it is the hormone that puts calcium into the bones.

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  • 28. 

    Compare and contrast Acidosis and Alkalosis

  • 29. 

    The three stages of stress are:

    • A.

      Alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion

    • B.

      Trigger stage, exhaustion stage, acceptance stage

    • C.

      Alarm, anger, disbelief, depression, acceptance

    • D.

      Denial, angery, depresion, acceptance

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion. These three stages represent the general pattern of response to stress. The alarm stage is the initial reaction to a stressor, where the body prepares for fight or flight. The resistance stage is the body's attempt to adapt and cope with the ongoing stressor. Finally, the exhaustion stage occurs when the body's resources are depleted, leading to physical and emotional exhaustion.

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  • 30. 

    Explain the body's response to stress include (ADH, Aldosterone, epinephrine, and cortisol)

  • 31. 

    This genetic defect has a femal phenotype and is an X linked genetic disorder.

    Correct Answer
    Turner's Syndrome
    Explanation
    Turner's Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females and is caused by a missing or incomplete X chromosome. This defect leads to a variety of physical and developmental abnormalities, including short stature, infertility, heart problems, and learning difficulties. Since it is an X-linked disorder, it means that the affected gene is located on the X chromosome.

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  • 32. 

    Describe how blood flows threw the heart.

  • 33. 

    True or false: The pericardium is the inner layer conected to heart and diaphram and thoratic cavity

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The pericardium is not the inner layer connected to the heart, diaphragm, and thoracic cavity. The pericardium is actually the outermost layer of the heart, consisting of a tough, fibrous sac that surrounds and protects the heart. The inner layer connected to the heart is called the epicardium.

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  • 34. 

    True of False: Myocardium is the muscular layer of the heart, thicker on the left side

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The myocardium is indeed the muscular layer of the heart. It is responsible for the contraction and pumping action of the heart, allowing it to circulate blood throughout the body. The myocardium is thicker on the left side of the heart because the left ventricle, which is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, requires more forceful contractions. Therefore, the statement "Myocardium is the muscular layer of the heart, thicker on the left side" is true.

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  • 35. 

    True or False: Endocardium is the inner layer of the heart and has the septum and all the valves.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The endocardium is indeed the inner layer of the heart. It lines the chambers of the heart and covers the valves. It is composed of a thin layer of endothelial cells and connective tissue. The septum, which separates the right and left sides of the heart, is also part of the endocardium. Therefore, the statement that the endocardium is the inner layer of the heart and contains the septum and valves is true.

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  • 36. 

    __________________: two sets of vessels join so there is continious blood flow caused by a clot or cardiovascular exercise.

    Correct Answer
    anastamoses
    Explanation
    Anastomoses refers to the connection or joining of two sets of vessels, which allows for continuous blood flow. This can occur due to the formation of a clot or as a result of cardiovascular exercise.

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  • 37. 

    What is preload and what is after load?

    • A.

      After load is the reistance the heart has to overcome on the left side

    • B.

      Preload is the venous return

    • C.

      Preload is the blood tha comes into the IVC and SVC

    • D.

      A and B

    • E.

      A and B and C

    Correct Answer
    E. A and B and C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A and B and C. Preload refers to the volume of blood that enters the heart's ventricles during diastole, which includes the blood that comes into the inferior vena cava (IVC) and superior vena cava (SVC). Afterload, on the other hand, is the resistance that the heart needs to overcome in order to pump blood out of the left side. Therefore, both A and B and C are correct explanations for preload and afterload.

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  • 38. 

    Explain the difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.

  • 39. 

    Which is not a cause of a myocardial infarction

    • A.

      Thrombus

    • B.

      Hypoxia

    • C.

      Vasospasm

    • D.

      Emboli

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypoxia
    Explanation
    Hypoxia refers to a deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching the tissues of the body. While hypoxia can contribute to the progression of a myocardial infarction, it is not a direct cause of it. A myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is primarily caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries, which can be due to the formation of a thrombus (blood clot), vasospasm (narrowing of blood vessels), or emboli (clots or other foreign material that travel through the bloodstream).

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  • 40. 

    Which is not a type of shock.

    • A.

      Hypervolemic shock

    • B.

      Vasogenic shock

    • C.

      Anaphalectic shock

    • D.

      Septic shock

    • E.

      Cardiogenic shock

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypervolemic shock
    Explanation
    hypovolemic - loss of blood

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  • 41. 

    Where does red blood come from

    • A.

      Spleen

    • B.

      Flat irregular bones

    • C.

      Stomache

    • D.

      Brain

    • E.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    B. Flat irregular bones
    Explanation
    bone marrow

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 23, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Christa42
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