Cp Bio 2 Final Exam Review 1 (2013)

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Cp Bio 2 Final Exam Review 1 (2013) - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, how would its alleles be represented?

    • A.

      Tt

    • B.

      TT

    • C.

      Tt

    • D.

      TT

    Correct Answer
    C. Tt
    Explanation
    If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, its alleles would be represented as "tt". In genetics, the letter "t" represents the recessive allele for height, and since the plant is homozygous recessive, it means that both of its alleles are "t". This means that the plant will exhibit the recessive trait for height, regardless of the presence of any dominant alleles.

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  • 2. 

    When an organism has two alleles at a particular locus that are different, the organism is called

    • A.

      Purebred

    • B.

      Dominant

    • C.

      Heterozygous

    • D.

      Recessive

    Correct Answer
    C. Heterozygous
    Explanation
    When an organism has two alleles at a particular locus that are different, it is called heterozygous. This means that the organism has two different versions of a gene, one inherited from each parent. In heterozygous individuals, one allele may be dominant and the other recessive, meaning that the dominant allele will be expressed in the organism's phenotype while the recessive allele remains hidden. Purebred refers to individuals that have two identical alleles at a particular locus, while dominant and recessive describe the expression of a particular allele in the phenotype.

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  • 3. 

    Hair color and eye color are examples of a person's

    • A.

      Recessive traits.

    • B.

      Dominant alleles.

    • C.

      Genotype.

    • D.

      Phenotype.

    Correct Answer
    D. Phenotype.
    Explanation
    Hair color and eye color are examples of a person's phenotype. Phenotype refers to the observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an individual, which are determined by both genetic and environmental factors. Hair color and eye color are traits that can be easily observed and are influenced by a combination of genetic factors (genotype) and environmental factors. Recessive traits and dominant alleles refer to specific patterns of inheritance, while genotype encompasses the entire genetic makeup of an individual.

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  • 4. 

    Mendel's second law of genetics, the law of independent assortment, is one explanation of the

    • A.

      Random fertilization of gametes.

    • B.

      Genetic variation within species.

    • C.

      Greater strength of dominant alleles.

    • D.

      Final stages of gametogenesis.

    Correct Answer
    B. Genetic variation within species.
    Explanation
    Mendel's second law of genetics, the law of independent assortment, states that during gamete formation, the segregation of one pair of alleles is independent of the segregation of another pair of alleles. This means that the different traits carried by different pairs of alleles are inherited independently of each other. As a result, this law explains the genetic variation within species, as it allows for the shuffling and recombination of alleles during sexual reproduction, leading to offspring with unique combinations of traits.

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  • 5. 

    Any of the alternative forms of a gene that occurs at a specific place on a chromosome are known as ___.

    • A.

      Alleles

    • B.

      Genes

    • C.

      Chromosomes

    • D.

      Recessive traits

    Correct Answer
    A. Alleles
    Explanation
    Alleles are alternative forms of a gene that occur at a specific place on a chromosome. They are responsible for variations in traits among individuals. Genes refer to the specific segments of DNA that provide instructions for the production of proteins. Chromosomes are structures that contain genes and are found in the nucleus of cells. Recessive traits are specific characteristics that are only expressed when an individual has two copies of the recessive allele.

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  • 6. 

    A chart or "family tree" that tracks which members of a family have a particular trait is called a ___.

    • A.

      Pedigree

    • B.

      Punnett square

    • C.

      Genetic linkage

    • D.

      DNA sequence

    Correct Answer
    A. Pedigree
    Explanation
    A chart or "family tree" that tracks which members of a family have a particular trait is called a pedigree.

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  • 7. 

    ___ studied traits of pea plants and discovered the two fundamental laws of genetics.

    • A.

      Mendel

    • B.

      Watson and Crick

    • C.

      Mack

    • D.

      Einstein

    Correct Answer
    A. Mendel
    Explanation
    Mendel is the correct answer because he is known for his studies on pea plants and his discovery of the two fundamental laws of genetics. Through his experiments, Mendel established the principles of inheritance, including the laws of segregation and independent assortment, which laid the foundation for modern genetics. Watson and Crick are known for their discovery of the structure of DNA, Mack is not associated with genetics, and Einstein is known for his contributions to physics, not genetics.

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  • 8. 

    ___ is a pattern of inheritance in which the gene for a trait is located on the X-chromosome, thereby creating disorders that are much more common in males than females.

    • A.

      Incomplete dominance

    • B.

      Co-dominance

    • C.

      Multiple allele

    • D.

      Sex-linked

    Correct Answer
    D. Sex-linked
    Explanation
    Sex-linked inheritance refers to the pattern of inheritance in which a gene for a trait is located on the X-chromosome. This means that the trait is more commonly seen in males, as they only have one X-chromosome, while females have two. If a male inherits a recessive allele for a sex-linked disorder, he will express the disorder because there is no second X-chromosome to mask the effects. Females, on the other hand, need to inherit two recessive alleles to express the disorder. This pattern of inheritance accounts for the higher prevalence of certain disorders in males.

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  • 9. 

    In humans, a ___ cell has ___ chromosomes.

    • A.

      Haploid ... 46

    • B.

      Haploid ... 23

    • C.

      Diploid ... 50

    • D.

      Diploid ... 23

    Correct Answer
    B. Haploid ... 23
    Explanation
    In humans, a haploid cell has 23 chromosomes. Haploid cells are the reproductive cells (sperm and egg) that contain half the number of chromosomes as compared to the diploid cells. Diploid cells, on the other hand, have a complete set of chromosomes, which in humans is 46. Therefore, the correct answer is haploid... 23.

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  • 10. 

    A form of nuclear division that divides a diploid cell into haploid cells and produces gametes is known as ___.

    • A.

      Mitosis

    • B.

      Meiosis

    • C.

      Cellular regeneration

    • D.

      Binary fission

    Correct Answer
    B. Meiosis
    Explanation
    Meiosis is the correct answer because it is the type of nuclear division that occurs in diploid cells to produce haploid cells, specifically gametes. Unlike mitosis, which results in two identical daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, meiosis involves two rounds of division resulting in four non-identical daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Cellular regeneration refers to the process of replacing damaged or lost cells, while binary fission is a form of cell division in prokaryotes.

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  • 11. 

    A cell that has two copies of each chromosome is said to be ___.

    • A.

      Diploid

    • B.

      Haploid

    • C.

      Triploid

    • D.

      A gamete

    Correct Answer
    A. Diploid
    Explanation
    A cell that has two copies of each chromosome is said to be diploid. This means that the cell contains a complete set of chromosomes, with one copy inherited from each parent. This is in contrast to a haploid cell, which only has one copy of each chromosome, and a triploid cell, which has three copies of each chromosome. A gamete, on the other hand, is a specialized haploid cell involved in sexual reproduction.

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  • 12. 

    A female gamete ___.

    • A.

      Is produced in the testes.

    • B.

      Is called an ovum or an egg cell.

    • C.

      Is called a spermatocyte.

    • D.

      Is called a polar body.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is called an ovum or an egg cell.
    Explanation
    The female gamete is called an ovum or an egg cell. The ovum is the reproductive cell produced by the female reproductive system, specifically in the ovaries. It is larger in size compared to the male gamete (sperm) and contains the genetic material necessary for fertilization. The ovum is released from the ovaries during ovulation and travels through the fallopian tubes, where it can be fertilized by a sperm cell.

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  • 13. 

    A(n) ___ involves the insertion or deletion of a single base in a DNA molecule.

    • A.

      Frameshift mutation

    • B.

      Point mutation

    • C.

      Translocation

    • D.

      Mutagen

    Correct Answer
    A. Frameshift mutation
    Explanation
    A frameshift mutation involves the insertion or deletion of a single base in a DNA molecule. This type of mutation disrupts the reading frame of the DNA sequence, causing a shift in the grouping of bases during translation. As a result, the entire sequence of amino acids encoded by the mutated DNA is altered, leading to a non-functional or dysfunctional protein. Frameshift mutations can have significant effects on an organism's phenotype and are often associated with genetic disorders.

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  • 14. 

    Each set of three nucleotides on mRNA coding for an amino acid is referred to as a(n) ___.

    • A.

      Codon

    • B.

      Anticodon

    • C.

      Ribosome

    • D.

      Base pair

    Correct Answer
    A. Codon
    Explanation
    A codon refers to a set of three nucleotides on mRNA that codes for a specific amino acid. It is the basic unit of genetic code and plays a crucial role in protein synthesis. The sequence of codons determines the order in which amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain during translation. Therefore, codons are essential for the accurate and efficient translation of genetic information into proteins.

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  • 15. 

    Messenger RNA is formed in the process of ___.

    • A.

      Transcription

    • B.

      Translation

    • C.

      Replication

    • D.

      Mutation

    Correct Answer
    A. Transcription
    Explanation
    Messenger RNA is formed in the process of transcription. Transcription is the process by which the DNA sequence of a gene is used as a template to synthesize a complementary RNA molecule. During transcription, an enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to the DNA and moves along it, synthesizing a single-stranded RNA molecule that is complementary to the DNA sequence. This RNA molecule is called messenger RNA (mRNA) because it carries the genetic information from the DNA to the ribosomes, where it is used as a template for protein synthesis in the process of translation.

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  • 16. 

    The process by which a DNA molecule is copied is ___.

    • A.

      Transcription

    • B.

      Translation

    • C.

      Replication

    • D.

      Mutation

    Correct Answer
    C. Replication
    Explanation
    DNA replication is the process by which a DNA molecule is copied. During replication, the two strands of the DNA molecule separate and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new complementary strand. This results in two identical copies of the original DNA molecule. Transcription, on the other hand, is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template, while translation is the process of synthesizing proteins from RNA. Mutation refers to changes in the DNA sequence.

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  • 17. 

    Watson and Crick, with the help of Rosalind Franklin, were the first to suggest that DNA is ___.

    • A.

      A short molecule

    • B.

      A protein molecule

    • C.

      The shape of a double helix

    • D.

      The genetic material

    Correct Answer
    C. The shape of a double helix
    Explanation
    Watson and Crick, with the help of Rosalind Franklin, were able to determine the structure of DNA. They proposed that DNA is in the shape of a double helix, which consists of two strands that are twisted around each other. This discovery was groundbreaking as it provided crucial insights into how DNA carries and transmits genetic information. It revolutionized the field of genetics and laid the foundation for further advancements in understanding the structure and function of DNA.

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  • 18. 

    Which DNA sequence produced an mRNA strand with the sequence AGUACA?

    • A.

      UCAUGU

    • B.

      TCATGT

    • C.

      GUACAG

    • D.

      CAGTAC

    Correct Answer
    B. TCATGT
    Explanation
    The mRNA strand with the sequence AGUACA can be produced from the DNA sequence TCATGT. In DNA, adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C). Therefore, the complementary mRNA sequence for TCATGT would be AGUACA.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is a pair of complementary bases?

    • A.

      Cytosine and cytosine

    • B.

      Thymine and adenine

    • C.

      Adenine and guanine

    • D.

      Thymine and ctyosine

    Correct Answer
    B. Thymine and adenine
    Explanation
    Thymine and adenine are a pair of complementary bases. In DNA, these two bases always pair together through hydrogen bonds, forming a stable base pair. Thymine always pairs with adenine, and cytosine always pairs with guanine. This complementary base pairing is crucial for the accurate replication and transcription of DNA, as well as for maintaining the genetic code.

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  • 20. 

    There are literally hundreds of thousands of different organic molecules. Which statement best explains how this is possible?

    • A.

      Elements can make an unlimited number of chemical bonds.

    • B.

      Carbon is unique in that it can make four chemical bonds.

    • C.

      Carbon can make twenty bonds to other carbon atoms.

    • D.

      Organic molecules are acidic.

    Correct Answer
    B. Carbon is unique in that it can make four chemical bonds.
    Explanation
    Carbon is able to form four chemical bonds due to its atomic structure. It has four valence electrons, which allows it to form stable covalent bonds with other atoms. This ability to form multiple bonds gives carbon the versatility to create a wide variety of organic molecules, leading to the vast number of different organic compounds in existence.

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  • 21. 

    Organic compounds always contain the element ____.

    • A.

      Carbon

    • B.

      Nitrogen

    • C.

      Oxygen

    • D.

      Organium

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon
    Explanation
    Organic compounds are defined as compounds that contain carbon atoms bonded to hydrogen atoms. Carbon is a unique element that has the ability to form stable covalent bonds with other carbon atoms and a wide variety of other elements, including hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and many others. Therefore, carbon is always present in organic compounds, making it the correct answer.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of RNA?

    • A.

      It contains uracil.

    • B.

      It contains thymine.

    • C.

      It is made of only one strand.

    • D.

      It transfers genes to the ribosome.

    Correct Answer
    B. It contains thymine.
    Explanation
    RNA is a nucleic acid that is similar to DNA but differs in a few key aspects. One of the main differences is that RNA contains uracil instead of thymine. Thymine is only found in DNA, while uracil is found in RNA. Therefore, the statement "It contains thymine" is incorrect as it goes against the characteristic of RNA.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following describes DNA?

    • A.

      It contains uracil.

    • B.

      It contains the sugar ribose.

    • C.

      It controls the production of proteins.

    • D.

      It is made of amino acids.

    Correct Answer
    C. It controls the production of proteins.
    Explanation
    DNA is a molecule that contains the genetic instructions for the development and functioning of all known living organisms. It is composed of nucleotides, which consist of a sugar (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, cytosine, guanine, or thymine). DNA controls the production of proteins through the process of transcription and translation, where the genetic information encoded in DNA is used to synthesize proteins. Therefore, the statement "It controls the production of proteins" accurately describes the role of DNA in the cell.

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  • 24. 

    The functional group -NH2 is called the ____.

    • A.

      Amino group

    • B.

      Acid group

    • C.

      Hydroxide group

    • D.

      Fatty acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Amino group
    Explanation
    The functional group -NH2 is called the amino group. This group consists of a nitrogen atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms, and it is commonly found in organic compounds such as amino acids and proteins. The amino group is responsible for the basic properties of these compounds, as it can accept a proton and form a positive charge.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is a structural form of carbohydrate?

    • A.

      Cellulose

    • B.

      Starch

    • C.

      Enzyme

    • D.

      RNA

    Correct Answer
    A. Cellulose
    Explanation
    Cellulose is a structural form of carbohydrate because it is a complex polysaccharide made up of glucose molecules linked together in a linear chain. It forms the main structural component of the cell walls in plants and provides rigidity and support to plant cells. Starch, on the other hand, is a storage form of carbohydrate, while enzyme and RNA are not carbohydrates at all.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following monomers make up a lipid?

    • A.

      Glycerol and fatty acid

    • B.

      Glycerol and amino acids

    • C.

      Glycerol and nucleic acids

    • D.

      Thymine and guanine

    Correct Answer
    A. Glycerol and fatty acid
    Explanation
    Lipids are composed of glycerol and fatty acids. Glycerol is a three-carbon molecule with hydroxyl groups attached to each carbon, while fatty acids are long hydrocarbon chains with a carboxyl group at one end. The hydroxyl groups of glycerol react with the carboxyl groups of fatty acids through dehydration synthesis, forming ester bonds. This process results in the formation of triglycerides, which are the main components of lipids. Therefore, the correct answer is glycerol and fatty acid.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is NOT a nucleotide found in DNA?

    • A.

      Adenine

    • B.

      Cytosine

    • C.

      Uracil

    • D.

      Guanine

    Correct Answer
    C. Uracil
    Explanation
    Uracil is not a nucleotide found in DNA. DNA is composed of four nucleotides: adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine. Uracil, on the other hand, is found in RNA instead of DNA. RNA uses uracil instead of thymine as one of its nucleotides. Therefore, uracil is the correct answer as it is not a nucleotide found in DNA.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is a polymer of nucleotides?

    • A.

      Nucleic Acid

    • B.

      Protein

    • C.

      Carbohydrate

    • D.

      Lipid

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleic Acid
    Explanation
    Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids, which include DNA and RNA. They are composed of a sugar molecule, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. These nucleotides join together through phosphodiester bonds to form a long chain, resulting in the formation of nucleic acids. Proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids are not polymers of nucleotides, making nucleic acid the correct answer.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is a polymer of amino acids?

    • A.

      Protein

    • B.

      Carbohydrate

    • C.

      Lipid

    • D.

      Nucleic Acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Protein
    Explanation
    Protein is a polymer of amino acids. Proteins are large, complex molecules made up of chains of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds. These chains fold into specific three-dimensional structures, which determine their function in the body. Proteins are essential for many biological processes and play a crucial role in the structure, function, and regulation of cells and tissues.

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  • 30. 

    What is the main function of the Krebs cycle?

    • A.

      Breaking down pyruvate molecules to form molecules of NADH and oxygen

    • B.

      Forming citric acid to make NADH, water, and carbon dioxide

    • C.

      Producing molecules that carry high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain

    • D.

      Bonding coenzyme A to pyruvate

    Correct Answer
    C. Producing molecules that carry high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain
    Explanation
    The main function of the Krebs cycle is to produce molecules that carry high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain. This is an essential step in cellular respiration, as it generates ATP, the main source of energy for cells. The Krebs cycle breaks down pyruvate molecules and forms NADH, which carries high-energy electrons to the electron transport chain. This chain then uses these electrons to generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. It is important to note that the other options mentioned in the question are not the main function of the Krebs cycle.

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  • 31. 

    Which phrase best describes the electron transport chain in photosynthesis?

    • A.

      A chain of photosynthetic proteins located in the stroma

    • B.

      A collection of enzymes used to make ADP

    • C.

      A series of proteins located in the thylakoid membrane

    • D.

      A group of enzymes that carries energy to the Calvin cycle

    Correct Answer
    C. A series of proteins located in the thylakoid membrane
    Explanation
    The electron transport chain in photosynthesis is a series of proteins located in the thylakoid membrane. This chain is responsible for transferring electrons from one protein to another, generating a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane. This proton gradient is then used to produce ATP through chemiosmosis. Therefore, the correct answer is "a series of proteins located in the thylakoid membrane."

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  • 32. 

    The process by which plants use sunlight to make glucose is called ___.

    • A.

      Photosynthesis

    • B.

      Cellular respiration

    • C.

      The cell cycle

    • D.

      Mitosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Photosynthesis
    Explanation
    Photosynthesis is the correct answer because it is the process by which plants use sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. During photosynthesis, plants capture the energy from sunlight and use it to produce glucose, which serves as their main source of energy. This process occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells and is essential for the survival of plants and the production of oxygen in the atmosphere.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following takes place in the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

    • A.

      Sugars are made.

    • B.

      Energy is captured.

    • C.

      Chlorophyll is pumped.

    • D.

      Carbon dioxide is formed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Energy is captured.
    Explanation
    In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, energy from sunlight is captured by chlorophyll molecules in the chloroplasts of plant cells. This energy is used to convert water molecules into oxygen and high-energy molecules such as ATP and NADPH. These energy-rich molecules are then used in the light-independent reactions (also known as the Calvin cycle) to produce sugars, such as glucose, through the process of carbon fixation. Therefore, the correct answer is "Energy is captured."

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  • 34. 

    The main light-absorbing molecules found in plant leaves are called

    • A.

      Chloroplasts

    • B.

      Thylakoids

    • C.

      Chlorophyll

    • D.

      Grana

    Correct Answer
    C. Chlorophyll
    Explanation
    Chlorophyll is the correct answer because it is the main light-absorbing pigment found in plant leaves. It is responsible for capturing light energy during photosynthesis and converting it into chemical energy. Chlorophyll molecules are located within the chloroplasts, which are the organelles responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells. Thylakoids are membrane-bound compartments within the chloroplasts where the chlorophyll molecules are located. Grana are stacks of thylakoids. Therefore, while thylakoids, chloroplasts, and grana are all involved in photosynthesis, chlorophyll is the specific molecule responsible for absorbing light.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following statements best describes the process of photosynthesis?

    • A.

      Plants use oxygen to make simple sugars.

    • B.

      Chlorophyll builds sugars in the thylakoid membrane.

    • C.

      Light breaks down water molecules and releases carbon dioxide.

    • D.

      Chloroplasts absorb sunlight and store chemical energy.

    Correct Answer
    D. Chloroplasts absorb sunlight and store chemical energy.
    Explanation
    Chloroplasts are the organelles in plant cells responsible for photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, chloroplasts absorb sunlight through the pigment chlorophyll and convert it into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. This chemical energy is then used to synthesize glucose and other organic molecules from carbon dioxide and water. Therefore, the statement "Chloroplasts absorb sunlight and store chemical energy" best describes the process of photosynthesis.

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  • 36. 

    What is the term for the jelly-like substance that is contained inside the cell membrane?

    • A.

      Cytoplasm

    • B.

      Nucleus

    • C.

      Organelle

    • D.

      DNA

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytoplasm
    Explanation
    Cytoplasm is the correct answer because it refers to the jelly-like substance that fills the space between the cell membrane and the nucleus. It contains various organelles and is responsible for supporting and protecting the cell's internal structures. The other options, nucleus, organelle, and DNA, are not correct as they do not specifically refer to the jelly-like substance inside the cell membrane.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is a characteristic of S phase?

    • A.

      Cell growth and normal function.

    • B.

      Cell growth and preparation for mitosis.

    • C.

      Nuclear membrane reforms.

    • D.

      DNA is replicated.

    Correct Answer
    D. DNA is replicated.
    Explanation
    The S phase of the cell cycle is the phase where DNA replication occurs. During this phase, the cell's DNA is duplicated to prepare for cell division. The other options mentioned, such as cell growth and normal function, cell growth and preparation for mitosis, and nuclear membrane reforms, are not specific to the S phase and can occur during other phases of the cell cycle. Therefore, the correct characteristic of the S phase is that DNA is replicated.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is a characteristic of prophase?

    • A.

      Nuclear membrane breaks down.

    • B.

      Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

    • C.

      Sister chromatids are pulled to opposite sides of the cell.

    • D.

      The cytoplasm splits.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
    Explanation
    During prophase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing the chromosomes to become visible. This is an important characteristic of prophase because it marks the beginning of mitosis or meiosis. The breakdown of the nuclear membrane allows for the separation and movement of the chromosomes during cell division. This process is crucial for the proper distribution of genetic material to the daughter cells.

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  • 39. 

    What is the main function of the Golgi apparatus?

    • A.

      Convert solar energy to chemical energy

    • B.

      Communicate with other cells

    • C.

      Process and deliver proteins

    • D.

      Copy genetic material

    Correct Answer
    C. Process and deliver proteins
    Explanation
    The Golgi apparatus is responsible for processing and delivering proteins within the cell. It receives proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum, modifies them by adding sugars or lipids, and packages them into vesicles for transport to their final destinations. This organelle plays a crucial role in the sorting, processing, and packaging of proteins, ensuring that they are correctly targeted and transported to their intended locations within the cell or outside of it.

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  • 40. 

    Unlike a eukaryoteic cell, a prokaryotic cell does not have...

    • A.

      DNA.

    • B.

      A nucleus.

    • C.

      Cytoplasm.

    • D.

      A cell membrane.

    Correct Answer
    B. A nucleus.
    Explanation
    A prokaryotic cell does not have a nucleus. Unlike eukaryotic cells, which have a defined nucleus enclosed within a membrane, prokaryotic cells have their DNA floating freely in the cytoplasm. This lack of a nucleus allows prokaryotic cells to have a simpler structure and function. Instead of a nucleus, prokaryotic cells have a nucleoid region where the DNA is concentrated.

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  • 41. 

    Which phrase best describes the effect of a catalyst on a chemical reaction?

    • A.

      Decreases the rate of reaction

    • B.

      Increases the temperature

    • C.

      Decreases the activation energy

    • D.

      Increases the volume of the reactants

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreases the activation energy
    Explanation
    A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur. Activation energy is the energy needed to break the bonds of the reactants and initiate the reaction. By decreasing the activation energy, a catalyst allows the reaction to happen more easily and quickly. Therefore, the phrase "decreases the activation energy" best describes the effect of a catalyst on a chemical reaction.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following organelles can be found on the surface of the endoplasmic reticulum?

    • A.

      Golgi apparatus

    • B.

      Mitochondria

    • C.

      Ribosomes

    • D.

      Centrioles

    Correct Answer
    C. Ribosomes
    Explanation
    Ribosomes can be found on the surface of the endoplasmic reticulum. This is because the endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis, and ribosomes are the cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. The endoplasmic reticulum provides a platform for ribosomes to attach and carry out protein synthesis, either on its surface (rough endoplasmic reticulum) or in its cytoplasm (smooth endoplasmic reticulum). Therefore, ribosomes are the correct answer.

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  • 43. 

    Which organelle is the storehouse for most of a cell's genetic information?

    • A.

      Nucleus

    • B.

      Mitochondrion

    • C.

      Centriole

    • D.

      Chloroplast

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleus
    Explanation
    The nucleus is the storehouse for most of a cell's genetic information. It contains the cell's DNA, which carries the instructions for the cell's functions and characteristics. The DNA is organized into structures called chromosomes, which are located within the nucleus. The nucleus also controls the cell's activities by regulating the expression of genes and directing the synthesis of proteins. Therefore, the nucleus plays a crucial role in storing and controlling the genetic information of a cell.

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  • 44. 

    In the diagram to the right, what is structure B?

    • A.

      Folded inner membrane

    • B.

      Mitochondrial matrix

    • C.

      Stroma

    • D.

      Thylakoid membrane

    Correct Answer
    B. Mitochondrial matrix
    Explanation
    Structure B in the diagram refers to the mitochondrial matrix. The mitochondrial matrix is the space enclosed by the inner membrane of the mitochondria. It contains enzymes responsible for the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle) and fatty acid oxidation, as well as mitochondrial DNA and ribosomes. This compartment plays a crucial role in the production of ATP through cellular respiration.

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  • 45. 

    In the diagram to the right, what is structure A?

    • A.

      Folded inner membrane

    • B.

      Mitochondrial matrix

    • C.

      Stroma

    • D.

      Thylakoid membrane

    Correct Answer
    A. Folded inner membrane
  • 46. 

    The part of cellular respiration in which glucose is broken down is called

    • A.

      Photosynthesis.

    • B.

      Aerobic respiration.

    • C.

      Electron transport.

    • D.

      Glycolysis.

    Correct Answer
    D. Glycolysis.
    Explanation
    Glycolysis is the correct answer because it is the first step in cellular respiration where glucose is broken down into pyruvate. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and does not require oxygen. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy, while aerobic respiration and electron transport are later stages in cellular respiration that require oxygen.

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  • 47. 

    Where does glycolysis take place?

    • A.

      Cytoplasm

    • B.

      Mitochondrial matrix

    • C.

      Mitochondrial inner membrane

    • D.

      Chloroplast

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytoplasm
    Explanation
    Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that breaks down glucose into pyruvate. It is the first step in cellular respiration and occurs in the cytoplasm of cells. The cytoplasm is the fluid-filled region of the cell where many cellular processes take place. Therefore, glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm.

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  • 48. 

    ___ is known as the universal solvent.

    • A.

      Water

    • B.

      Acetone

    • C.

      Alcohol

    • D.

      Cytoplasm

    Correct Answer
    A. Water
    Explanation
    Water is known as the universal solvent because it has the ability to dissolve a wide variety of substances. This is due to its unique molecular structure, which allows it to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules. These hydrogen bonds break apart the solute particles and surround them, effectively dissolving them in the water. This property of water is essential for many biological and chemical processes, as it allows for the transportation of nutrients and waste products within living organisms and facilitates chemical reactions.

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  • 49. 

    Which effect of natural selection is depicted in the graph?

    • A.

      Directional selection

    • B.

      Disruptive selection

    • C.

      Stabilizing selection

    • D.

      Sexual selection

    Correct Answer
    A. Directional selection
    Explanation
    The graph shows a shift in the population towards one extreme phenotype, indicating that individuals with that phenotype have a higher fitness. This is characteristic of directional selection, where the average phenotype of a population changes over time in response to environmental changes or new selection pressures.

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  • 50. 

    Which effect of natural selection is depicted in the graph?

    • A.

      Directional selection

    • B.

      Disruptive selection

    • C.

      Stabilizing selection

    • D.

      Sexual selection

    Correct Answer
    B. Disruptive selection
    Explanation
    The graph in question likely shows a pattern where individuals with extreme traits on both ends of the spectrum have a higher fitness compared to individuals with intermediate traits. This leads to a split in the population, with one group favoring one extreme trait and the other group favoring the opposite extreme. This pattern is characteristic of disruptive selection, where natural selection favors extreme traits over intermediate ones.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Christopher Mack
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