Human Body And Disorders Exams Prep Test

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  • 1/113 Questions

    Prior to chemical tests for glycosuria, clinicians checked for sweetness of the urine as a sign of

    • Diabetes insipidus.
    • Acute glomerulonephritis.
    • Diabetes mellitus.
    • Renal calculus.
    • Pyelitis
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Human Body And Disorders Exams Prep Test - Quiz
About This Quiz

Are you familiar with the human body and disorders? Here is a quiz to enhance your knowledge. This quiz entails recognizing what protein catabolism is, what is not a function of the kidneys, the renal cortex, what fluid immediately precedes urine, the state of a healthy kidney, and what stimulates the constriction of the glomerular inlet and outlet. The human See morebody is a mystery; let this quiz clear your mind.

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  • 2. 

    This byproduct of protein catabolism constitutes approximately one-half of all nitrogenous waste.

    • Urea

    • Creatinine

    • Ammonia

    • Uric acid

    • Azotemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Urea
    Explanation
    Urea is the correct answer because it is a byproduct of protein catabolism and makes up about half of all nitrogenous waste. Urea is formed in the liver when proteins are broken down and is then excreted by the kidneys in urine. Creatinine is also a waste product of muscle metabolism, but it is not as abundant as urea. Ammonia is a toxic waste product that is converted to urea in the liver. Uric acid is a waste product of purine metabolism and is excreted in urine. Azotemia is a condition characterized by high levels of nitrogenous waste in the blood.

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  • 3. 

    Which of these correctly traces blood flow from the renal artery into the renal cortex?

    • Arcuate a. → interlobar a. → afferent arteriole → interlobular a.

    • Interlobar a. → interlobular a. → segmental a. → arcuate a.

    • Segmental a. → interlobar a. → arcuate a. → interlobular a.

    • Afferent arteriole → interlobular a. → arcuate a. → interlobar a.

    • Segmental a. → arcuate a. → interlobar a. → interlobular a

    Correct Answer
    A. Segmental a. → interlobar a. → arcuate a. → interlobular a.
    Explanation
    The correct answer traces the blood flow from the renal artery into the renal cortex in the following order: segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery, and interlobular artery. This is the correct sequence of blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood to the renal cortex, allowing for the filtration of waste products and reabsorption of water and nutrients in the kidneys.

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  • 4. 

    In the nephron, the fluid that immediately precedes urine is known as

    • Plasma.

    • Glomerular filtrate.

    • Tubular fluid.

    • Renal filtrate.

    • Medullary filtrate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tubular fluid.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is tubular fluid. In the nephron, the fluid that immediately precedes urine is known as tubular fluid. This fluid is formed by the filtration of blood in the glomerulus and then modified through reabsorption and secretion as it passes through the renal tubules. Eventually, the tubular fluid will be further concentrated and transformed into urine as it moves through the collecting ducts and into the renal pelvis.

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  • 5. 

    Normal urine from a healthy person can be expected to contain all of the following except

    • Creatinine

    • Urobilin

    • Glucose

    • Ammonia

    • Magnesium

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose
    Explanation
    Normal urine from a healthy person does not typically contain glucose. Glucose is usually reabsorbed by the kidneys and returned to the bloodstream. The presence of glucose in urine can indicate a condition such as diabetes or kidney disease. Therefore, it is expected that normal urine from a healthy person would not contain glucose.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not found in the ureter?

    • Adventitia

    • Two layers of smooth muscle

    • Three layers of smooth muscle

    • Transitional epithelium

    • Skeletal muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Skeletal muscle
    Explanation
    The ureter is a tube that carries urine from the kidneys to the bladder. It is composed of three layers of smooth muscle, known as the muscularis layer, which helps propel urine through the ureter. The adventitia is the outermost layer of the ureter, providing support and protection. Transitional epithelium is the innermost layer of the ureter, which allows for stretching and expansion. Skeletal muscle is not found in the ureter, as it is not needed for the function of transporting urine.

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  • 7. 

    The enterogastric reflex serves to

    • Relax the stomach in preparation for swallowed food.

    • Stimulate acid and enzyme secretion when food enters the stomach.

    • Stimulate intestinal motility when there is food in the stomach.

    • Inhibit gastric motility when there is chyme in the small intestine.

    • Relax the ileocecal valve when chyme is on its way to the colon.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibit gastric motility when there is chyme in the small intestine.
    Explanation
    The enterogastric reflex is a neural reflex that inhibits gastric motility when there is chyme (partially digested food) in the small intestine. This reflex helps to slow down the emptying of the stomach and allows for proper digestion and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.

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  • 8. 

    In a healthy kidney, very little ___ is filtered by the glomerulus.

    • Amino acids

    • Electrolytes

    • Glucose

    • Vitamins

    • Protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Protein
    Explanation
    In a healthy kidney, the glomerulus acts as a filtration unit and is responsible for filtering waste products and excess substances from the blood. Protein is a large molecule that is not normally filtered by the glomerulus, as it is essential for various bodily functions and is usually reabsorbed by the kidney. Therefore, very little protein is filtered by the glomerulus in a healthy kidney.

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  • 9. 

    Assuming all other values are normal, calculate the net filtration pressure in a patient with a drop in capsular hydrostatic pressure to 8 mmHg.

    • 10 mm Hg out

    • 20 mm Hg out

    • 30 mm Hg out

    • 40 mm Hg out

    • 50 mm Hg out

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 mm Hg out
    Explanation
    A drop in capsular hydrostatic pressure to 8 mmHg would decrease the net filtration pressure. The net filtration pressure is calculated by subtracting the sum of the opposing forces (capsular hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure) from the glomerular hydrostatic pressure. Since the question states that all other values are normal and does not provide any information about the other pressures, we can assume they remain constant. Therefore, the net filtration pressure would be 20 mmHg out, as it is the only value that is lower than the initial glomerular hydrostatic pressure of 30 mmHg.

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  • 10. 

    Why is breast milk superior to cow's milk for an infant?

    • Cow's milk provides fewer calories per mL.

    • Cow's milk provides less calcium per mL.

    • Cow's milk provides less phosphorous per mL.

    • Cow's milk has too much protein and minerals in it.

    • It is a myth; cow's milk is equal in quality to breast milk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cow's milk has too much protein and minerals in it.
    Explanation
    Breast milk is considered superior to cow's milk for infants because cow's milk contains excessive amounts of protein and minerals, which can be difficult for an infant's immature digestive system to handle. This can lead to digestive issues and potential kidney damage. Breast milk, on the other hand, is specifically tailored to meet the nutritional needs of infants, providing the right balance of nutrients, including protein and minerals, in a form that is easily digestible and absorbable.

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  • 11. 

    The urine is most likely to be hypotonic when

    • The body's water volume is high.

    • The body's pH is low.

    • The output of antidiuretic hormone is high.

    • The output of natriuretic peptides is high.

    • A person is lost and deprived of drinking water.

    Correct Answer
    A. The body's water volume is high.
    Explanation
    When the body's water volume is high, it means there is an excess of water in the body. This leads to a decrease in the concentration of solutes in the urine, making it hypotonic. In a hypotonic urine, the concentration of solutes is lower compared to the concentration in the blood. This occurs because the excess water is not being reabsorbed by the kidneys, resulting in a larger volume of urine with a lower concentration of solutes.

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  • 12. 

    Amino acids and monosaccharides are absorbed in the ____________, and fatty acids are absorbed in the _______________.

    • Small intestine; large intestine

    • Small intestine; liver

    • Stomach; small intestine

    • Stomach; large intestine

    • Small intestine; small intestine too

    Correct Answer
    A. Small intestine; small intestine too
    Explanation
    Amino acids and monosaccharides are primarily absorbed in the small intestine. However, it is worth noting that a small amount of absorption of these molecules can also occur in the small intestine itself. This is because the small intestine has a large surface area due to the presence of villi and microvilli, which increases the absorption capacity. On the other hand, fatty acids are primarily absorbed in the small intestine as well, through a process called emulsification and subsequent formation of micelles. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes, rather than nutrients like amino acids, monosaccharides, or fatty acids.

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  • 13. 

    The migrating motor complex

    • Milks the chyme toward the colon.

    • Allows a bolus to move down the esophagus.

    • Churns and mixes residue in the descending colon.

    • Churns and mixes a bolus with gastric juices.

    • Propels pancreatic juice down the pancreatic duct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Milks the chyme toward the colon.
    Explanation
    The migrating motor complex refers to a series of contractions that occur in the gastrointestinal tract during fasting periods. These contractions help to propel any remaining food particles, known as chyme, from the stomach towards the colon. This process ensures that the chyme continues to move through the digestive system and prevents it from staying in one place for too long. Therefore, the correct answer is that the migrating motor complex milks the chyme toward the colon.

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  • 14. 

    A patient enters a hospital after a motorcycle accident. He complains of mid-back pain. X-rays reveal both rib and pelvic fractures. His emergency room examination includes urinalysis. Which of the following findings from the urinalysis would most likely suggest trauma to the kidneys from the accident, but not to the urinary bladder?

    • Pyuria

    • Hematuria

    • Albuminuria

    • Uremia

    • Phenylketonuria

    Correct Answer
    A. Albuminuria
    Explanation
    Albuminuria is the presence of albumin in the urine, which is a protein normally found in the blood. In the context of trauma to the kidneys, albuminuria suggests damage to the glomerular filtration barrier, allowing the protein to leak into the urine. This finding is specific to kidney injury and not commonly associated with trauma to the urinary bladder. Pyuria refers to the presence of pus in the urine and can be seen in both kidney and bladder trauma. Hematuria, the presence of blood in the urine, can also be seen in both kidney and bladder trauma. Uremia refers to the buildup of waste products in the blood due to kidney dysfunction and is not specific to trauma. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder and not related to trauma.

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  • 15. 

    All of the following are composed of cuboidal epithelium with the exception of

    • The thin segment of the nephron loop.

    • The thick segment of the nephron loop.

    • The collecting duct.

    • The distal convoluted tubule.

    • The distal convoluted tubule.

    Correct Answer
    A. The thin segment of the nephron loop.
    Explanation
    The thin segment of the nephron loop is composed of simple squamous epithelium, not cuboidal epithelium like the other structures mentioned.

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  • 16. 

    In response to a drop in overall blood pressure, ___ stimulates constriction of the glomerular inlet and even greater constriction of the outlet.

    • Azotemia

    • Sodium chloride

    • Parathyroid hormone

    • Aldosterone

    • Angiotensin II

    Correct Answer
    A. Angiotensin II
    Explanation
    In response to a drop in overall blood pressure, angiotensin II stimulates constriction of the glomerular inlet and even greater constriction of the outlet. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is released by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure. It acts on the blood vessels to constrict them, which helps to increase blood pressure. In the case of the glomerular inlet and outlet, angiotensin II constricts them even more to regulate the flow of blood and maintain proper filtration in the kidneys.

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  • 17. 

    Normally the systemic arterial blood has a Po2 of _____ mm Hg, a Pco2 of _____ mm Hg, and a pH of _____.  

    • 40; 95; 7.4

    • 95; 40; 7.4

    • 7.4; 40; 95

    • 95; 7.4; 40

    • 40; 7.4; 95

    Correct Answer
    A. 95; 40; 7.4
  • 18. 

    Proximal convoluted tubules are responsible for reabsorbing all of the following except

    • Potassium.

    • Sodium chloride.

    • Hydrogen ions.

    • Urea.

    • Water.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrogen ions.
    Explanation
    The proximal convoluted tubules in the kidneys are responsible for reabsorbing various substances from the filtrate back into the bloodstream. These substances include sodium chloride, potassium, urea, and water. However, hydrogen ions are not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubules. Instead, they are secreted into the tubules to help regulate the body's pH levels.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone?

    • Decreased urine volume

    • Decreased urine molarity

    • Increased urine volume

    • Increased urine salinity

    • Increased urine acidity

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased urine volume
    Explanation
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released by the pituitary gland and its main function is to regulate water balance in the body. When ADH is released, it acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, leading to decreased urine volume. Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine volume.

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  • 20. 

    A lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli is

    • Cor pulmonale.

    • Pulmonary hemosiderosis.

    • Emphysema.

    • Atelectasis.

    • Collapsed lung.

    Correct Answer
    A. Emphysema.
    Explanation
    Emphysema is a lung disease characterized by the destruction of the alveoli, resulting in abnormally large air sacs with reduced surface area for gas exchange. This leads to difficulty in breathing and decreased oxygenation of the blood. Cor pulmonale refers to right-sided heart failure caused by lung disease, pulmonary hemosiderosis is a condition where iron accumulates in the lungs, atelectasis is the collapse of a lung or part of it, and a collapsed lung refers to the partial or complete collapse of the lung due to air or gas accumulation outside the lung or within the lung itself.

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  • 21. 

    Which is not a function of the kidneys?

    • They regulate osmolarity of the body fluids

    • They fight osteoporosis by synthesizing vitamin D.

    • They help control blood pressure.

    • They release waste into the bloodstream.

    • They indirectly increase oxyhemoglobin.

    Correct Answer
    A. They release waste into the bloodstream.
    Explanation
    The kidneys do not release waste into the bloodstream. Instead, they filter waste products from the bloodstream and excrete them in the form of urine. This is one of the main functions of the kidneys, along with regulating osmolarity of body fluids, synthesizing vitamin D, helping control blood pressure, and indirectly increasing oxyhemoglobin levels.

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  • 22. 

    Which renal structure is responsible for producing hypertonic urine by reabsorbing water while allowing metabolic wastes and NaCl to pass through?

    • Glomerulus

    • Proximal convoluted tubule

    • Distal convoluted tubule

    • Collecting duct

    • Nephron loop

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting duct
    Explanation
    The collecting duct is responsible for producing hypertonic urine by reabsorbing water while allowing metabolic wastes and NaCl to pass through. This structure plays a crucial role in concentrating the urine by reabsorbing water back into the bloodstream and allowing the passage of solutes such as metabolic wastes and NaCl. This selective reabsorption helps in maintaining the body's water and electrolyte balance. The other structures mentioned, such as the glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, and nephron loop, also play important roles in the renal system but are not primarily responsible for producing hypertonic urine.

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  • 23. 

    Atrial natriuretic peptide reduces blood volume and pressure by all of the following means except

    • Increasing glomerular filtration rate.

    • Inhibiting renin and aldosterone secretion.

    • Inhibiting the action of ADH on the kidney.

    • Inhibiting NaCl reabsorption by the collecting duct.

    • Preventing sodium loss in the urine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventing sodium loss in the urine.
    Explanation
    Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is a hormone released by the heart in response to increased blood volume and pressure. It acts to reduce blood volume and pressure by various mechanisms. ANP inhibits renin and aldosterone secretion, which leads to decreased reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys. It also inhibits the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the kidney, which reduces water reabsorption. ANP inhibits NaCl reabsorption by the collecting duct, further promoting water and sodium excretion. However, preventing sodium loss in the urine would not contribute to reducing blood volume and pressure, therefore it is the exception in this case.

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  • 24. 

    Which of these is the site of contact digestion?

    • Gastric pits

    • Surface of the gastric mucosa

    • Intestinal crypts

    • Brush border of the small intestine

    • Cytoplasm in the cells of the small intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. Brush border of the small intestine
    Explanation
    The brush border of the small intestine is the site of contact digestion. The brush border refers to the microvilli on the surface of the intestinal epithelial cells. These microvilli greatly increase the surface area available for digestion and absorption of nutrients. Enzymes located on the brush border, such as sucrase, lactase, and maltase, break down disaccharides into monosaccharides, which can then be absorbed by the cells. Therefore, the brush border plays a crucial role in the digestion of carbohydrates in the small intestine.

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  • 25. 

    The small intestine has a very large absorptive surface associated with all these structures except

    • Circular folds (plicae circulares).

    • Intestinal length.

    • Microvilli.

    • Villi.

    • Rugae

    Correct Answer
    A. Rugae
    Explanation
    The small intestine has a very large absorptive surface due to the presence of circular folds (plicae circulares), microvilli, and villi. These structures increase the surface area available for absorption of nutrients. However, rugae are not associated with the absorptive surface of the small intestine. Rugae are found in the stomach and urinary bladder, and they allow for expansion and contraction of these organs.

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  • 26. 

    _____________ break(s) down _______________.

    • Lactase; glucose

    • Peptidases; proteins

    • Lipases; micelles

    • Lactose; lactase

    • Nucleases; nucleotides

    Correct Answer
    A. Peptidases; proteins
    Explanation
    Peptidases are enzymes that break down proteins into smaller peptides or amino acids. Therefore, the correct answer is "Peptidases; proteins" because peptidases break down proteins.

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  • 27. 

    Each of the following lists some of the tissue layers of the digestive tract. Which one has them in correct order from lumen to external surface?

    • Lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa

    • Serosa, lamina propria, submucosa, muscularis mucosae, muscularis externa

    • Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis mucosae, muscularis externa, lamina propria

    • Mucosa, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, lamina propria

    • Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, lamina propria, serosa

    Correct Answer
    A. Lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
    Explanation
    The correct answer is lamina propria, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa. This is the correct order of the tissue layers from the lumen (innermost) to the external surface (outermost) of the digestive tract. The lamina propria is a layer of connective tissue that lies just beneath the epithelial lining of the mucosa. The muscularis mucosae is a thin layer of smooth muscle that helps to move and mix the contents of the digestive tract. The submucosa is a layer of connective tissue that contains blood vessels, nerves, and glands. The muscularis externa is a layer of smooth muscle that helps to propel food through the digestive tract. The serosa is the outermost layer of the digestive tract, which provides protection and support.

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  • 28. 

    Acid reflux into the esophagus ("heartburn") is normally prevented by

    • Pharyngeal constrictors.

    • The upper esophageal sphincter.

    • The lower esophageal sphincter (LES).

    • Esophageal glands.

    • Pharyngeal and buccal sphincters.

    Correct Answer
    A. The lower esophageal sphincter (LES).
    Explanation
    The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is responsible for preventing acid reflux into the esophagus. This sphincter is located at the junction between the esophagus and the stomach, and its main function is to close off the opening between these two organs to prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. When the LES is functioning properly, it acts as a barrier to keep stomach contents in the stomach. However, if the LES weakens or relaxes abnormally, acid can escape and cause heartburn or acid reflux.

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  • 29. 

    The ______________ of the small intestine is/are similar to the _________________ of the stomach.

    • Villi; pyloric glands

    • Rugae; Peyer patches

    • Intestinal crypts; gastric pits

    • Goblet cells; parietal cells

    • Pyloric sphincter; ileocecal valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Intestinal crypts; gastric pits
    Explanation
    The correct answer is intestinal crypts; gastric pits. The small intestine and stomach both have structures that aid in their respective functions. The intestinal crypts in the small intestine are responsible for producing digestive enzymes and absorbing nutrients from food. Similarly, the gastric pits in the stomach contain cells that secrete gastric juices, including hydrochloric acid and enzymes, to break down food. Both structures play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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  • 30. 

    Which of these correctly traces blood flow from the renal cortex to the renal vein?

    • Interlobular v. → interlobar v. → segmental v. → renal v.

    • Arcuate v. → interlobar v. → segmental v. → renal v.

    • Interlobar v. → interlobular v. → arcuate v. → renal v.

    • Segmental v. → arcuate v. → interlobar v. → renal v.

    • Interlobular v. → arcuate v. → interlobar v. → renal v.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interlobular v. → arcuate v. → interlobar v. → renal v.
    Explanation
    The correct answer traces the blood flow correctly from the renal cortex to the renal vein. It starts with the interlobular veins, which drain blood from the renal cortex. The blood then flows into the arcuate veins, which are located at the boundary between the renal cortex and medulla. From there, it goes into the interlobar veins, which travel through the renal columns. Finally, the blood enters the renal vein, which carries it out of the kidney.

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  • 31. 

    The _______________ synthesizes bile acids by metabolizing ____________________.

    • Duodenum; neutral fats

    • Ileum; bilirubin

    • Gallbladder; cholesterol

    • Pancreas; bile salts

    • Liver; cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver; cholesterol
    Explanation
    The liver synthesizes bile acids by metabolizing cholesterol.

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  • 32. 

    These nutrients are all absorbed without being digested except

    • Water.

    • Vitamins.

    • Proteins.

    • Minerals.

    • Cholesterol.

    Correct Answer
    A. Proteins.
    Explanation
    Proteins are the only nutrients that require digestion before they can be absorbed by the body. Digestion breaks down proteins into amino acids, which can then be absorbed into the bloodstream. In contrast, water, vitamins, minerals, and cholesterol do not require digestion and can be directly absorbed by the body.

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  • 33. 

    ____________ transport lipids to the surface of the intestinal absorptive cells, which process them into _________________.

    • Fat droplets; micelles

    • Fat droplets; chylomicrons

    • Micelles; fat globules

    • Micelles; chylomicrons

    • Fat globules; micelles

    Correct Answer
    A. Micelles; chylomicrons
    Explanation
    Micelles are small structures formed by the aggregation of lipids in the small intestine. They aid in the absorption of lipids by increasing their surface area for digestion by enzymes. Chylomicrons, on the other hand, are large lipoprotein particles that transport dietary lipids, such as triglycerides, from the intestinal cells into the lymphatic system and eventually into the bloodstream. Therefore, micelles transport lipids to the surface of the intestinal absorptive cells, which process them into chylomicrons.

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  • 34. 

    Total saturation of protein transporters for a given solute in the renal tubules would result in

    • Reabsorption of all the solute.

    • A renal clearance of zero.

    • Appearance of that solute in the urine.

    • Absence of that solute from the urine.

    • A net filtration pressure of 1.0.

    Correct Answer
    A. Appearance of that solute in the urine.
    Explanation
    When the protein transporters in the renal tubules are fully saturated with a given solute, it means that they are unable to reabsorb any more of that solute back into the bloodstream. This leads to the solute being unable to be reabsorbed and therefore appearing in the urine. So, the correct answer is the appearance of that solute in the urine.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following would lead to anemic hypoxia?

    • Sickle-cell disease

    • Emphysema

    • Squamous-cell carcinoma

    • Asthma

    • Atelectasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Sickle-cell disease
    Explanation
    Anemic hypoxia occurs when there is a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Sickle-cell disease is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to become abnormally shaped and rigid. These abnormal cells can block blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues and organs. This reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity can result in anemic hypoxia. Emphysema, squamous-cell carcinoma, asthma, and atelectasis may cause other types of hypoxia, but not specifically anemic hypoxia.

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  • 36. 

    Vital capacity consists of  

    • Inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory volume.

    • Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume.

    • Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume.

    • Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume.

    • Respiratory volume + tidal volume.

    Correct Answer
    A. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume.
    Explanation
    Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a maximum inhalation. It is calculated by adding the expiratory reserve volume (the amount of air that can still be exhaled after a normal exhalation) to the tidal volume (the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during normal breathing) and the inspiratory reserve volume (the amount of air that can still be inhaled after a normal inhalation). Therefore, the correct answer is expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume.

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  • 37. 

    Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to _____ oxygen molecules.  

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to 4 oxygen molecules.

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  • 38. 

    Hypocalcemia stimulates

    • A decrease in aldosterone production.

    • Secretion of parathyroid hormone.

    • Secretion of renin.

    • An increase in blood urea nitrogen.

    • Vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretion of parathyroid hormone.
    Explanation
    Hypocalcemia refers to low levels of calcium in the blood. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body. When calcium levels are low, the parathyroid glands secrete more PTH, which stimulates the release of calcium from bones, increases calcium absorption in the intestines, and reduces calcium excretion in the kidneys. Therefore, in the case of hypocalcemia, the correct answer is the secretion of parathyroid hormone.

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  • 39. 

                      Which two substances are most useful for determining a patient's glomerular filtration rate?

    • Insulin and glucose

    • Inulin and creatinine

    • Sodium and water

    • Albumin and inulin

    • Insulin and urea

    Correct Answer
    A. Inulin and creatinine
    Explanation
    Inulin and creatinine are the most useful substances for determining a patient's glomerular filtration rate. Inulin is a plant polysaccharide that is freely filtered by the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed or secreted by the renal tubules. Therefore, its clearance provides an accurate measure of the glomerular filtration rate. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism that is also freely filtered by the glomerulus and minimally reabsorbed by the renal tubules. Its clearance is commonly used as an estimate of the glomerular filtration rate in clinical practice.

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  • 40. 

    Chemical digestion breaks down ____________ into _____________.

    • Proteins; nucleotides

    • Amino acids; proteins

    • Polysaccharides; amino acids

    • Nucleic acids; nucleotides

    • Fatty acids; cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleic acids; nucleotides
    Explanation
    Chemical digestion is the process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules by the action of enzymes. In this case, chemical digestion breaks down nucleic acids into nucleotides. Nucleic acids are large molecules that contain genetic information, such as DNA and RNA. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids, consisting of a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. Therefore, the correct answer is "nucleic acids; nucleotides."

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  • 41. 

    Men have only one ____________ but have two of all the rest of these.

    • Bulbourethral gland(s)

    • Prostate gland(s)

    • Ejaculatory duct(s)

    • Seminal vesicle(s)

    • Corpus(ora) cavernosum(a)

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostate gland(s)
    Explanation
    Men have only one prostate gland but have two of all the rest of these. This is because the prostate gland is a single gland located just below the bladder, while the other options listed (bulbourethral glands, ejaculatory ducts, seminal vesicles, corpus cavernosum) are all paired structures found in the male reproductive system. The prostate gland plays a crucial role in producing and secreting seminal fluid, which helps nourish and transport sperm during ejaculation.

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  • 42. 

    _____________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete __________.

    • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); LH

    • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); androgen-binding protein (ABP)

    • Luteinizing hormone (LH); androgen-binding protein (ABP)

    • Luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone

    • Luteinizing hormone (LH); estrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone
    Explanation
    Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete testosterone.

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  • 43. 

    Scuba divers breathe a nitrogen-oxygen mixture rather than pure compressed oxygen in order to avoid

    • The bends.

    • Oxygen toxicity.

    • Rapture of the deep.

    • Caisson disease.

    • Hypoxemic hypoxia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen toxicity.
    Explanation
    Scuba divers breathe a nitrogen-oxygen mixture rather than pure compressed oxygen in order to avoid oxygen toxicity. Breathing pure oxygen at high pressures and for extended periods can lead to oxygen toxicity, which can cause seizures, lung damage, and other serious health issues. By diluting the oxygen with nitrogen, scuba divers can reduce the risk of oxygen toxicity and safely explore underwater environments.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate?

    • Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole

    • A drop in oncotic pressure

    • Vasodilation of the afferent arteriole

    • Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole

    • An increase in osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole
    Explanation
    Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole would reduce the glomerular filtration rate. The afferent arteriole supplies blood to the glomerulus, where filtration occurs. When the afferent arteriole constricts, it reduces the amount of blood flow into the glomerulus, thereby decreasing the glomerular filtration rate. This constriction decreases the pressure within the glomerulus, leading to a decrease in the filtration of waste products and excess fluids from the blood.

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  • 45. 

    Pepsinogen is produced by ____________ and is activated by ___________.

    • Chief cells; carbonic anhydrase (CAH) secreted by parietal cells

    • Chief cells; hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by parietal cells

    • Parietal cells; hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by chief cells

    • Parietal cells; carbonic anhydrase (CAH) secreted by chief cells

    • Enteroendocrine cells; carbonic anhydrase (CAH) secreted by parietal cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Chief cells; hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by parietal cells
    Explanation
    Pepsinogen, the inactive form of the enzyme pepsin, is produced by chief cells in the stomach. It is then activated into pepsin by hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by parietal cells. Therefore, the correct answer is "chief cells; hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by parietal cells."

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  • 46. 

    _____________ is associated with food stretching the stomach and activating myenteric and vagovagal reflexes, which in turn stimulate gastric secretions.

    • The cephalic phase

    • The gastric phase

    • The intestinal phase

    • The gastrointestinal phase

    • The mesenteric phase

    Correct Answer
    A. The gastric phase
    Explanation
    The gastric phase is associated with food stretching the stomach and activating myenteric and vagovagal reflexes, which in turn stimulate gastric secretions. During this phase, the stomach releases gastrin, which stimulates the secretion of gastric acid and enzymes. This phase is primarily triggered by the presence of food in the stomach and helps to prepare the stomach for digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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  • 47. 

    Because of the great deal of active transport that occurs here, the _________ of all the nephrons collectively account for about 6% of one's daily resting ATP and caloric consumption.

    • Proximal convoluted tubules

    • Distal convoluted tubules

    • Loops of Henle

    • Glomerul

    • Collecting ducts

    Correct Answer
    A. Proximal convoluted tubules
    Explanation
    The proximal convoluted tubules are responsible for a significant amount of active transport, which requires ATP and consumes calories. This active transport is necessary for reabsorbing important substances such as glucose, amino acids, and ions back into the bloodstream. Due to the high energy demand of active transport in the proximal convoluted tubules, it accounts for about 6% of one's daily resting ATP and caloric consumption.

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  • 48. 

    A hospital patient produces 4 mL/min of urine with a urea concentration of 8 mg/mL. Venous blood draw reveals urea concentration of 0.4 mg/mL. What is the percentage of cleared urea from glomerular filtrate?

    • 40%

    • 56

    • 64%

    • 72%

    • 80%

    Correct Answer
    A. 64%
    Explanation
    The percentage of cleared urea from glomerular filtrate can be calculated using the formula: (urine concentration - blood concentration) / urine concentration * 100. In this case, the urine concentration is 8 mg/mL and the blood concentration is 0.4 mg/mL. Plugging these values into the formula, we get (8 - 0.4) / 8 * 100 = 7.6 / 8 * 100 = 0.95 * 100 = 95%. Therefore, the correct answer is 95%.

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  • 49. 

    Why are several digestive enzymes secreted as zymogens?

    • Because this saves one step in their synthesis

    • Because gastric cells do not have the necessary enzymes for their synthesis

    • So they start digesting intracellular proteins of the gastric cells more quickly

    • So they act only in the stomach lumen and do not digest intracellular proteins

    • So they can start digesting dietary proteins more quickly

    Correct Answer
    A. So they act only in the stomach lumen and do not digest intracellular proteins
    Explanation
    Several digestive enzymes are secreted as zymogens to ensure that they act only in the stomach lumen and do not digest intracellular proteins. Zymogens are inactive forms of enzymes that are converted into their active forms when needed. This prevents the enzymes from prematurely digesting intracellular proteins within the gastric cells themselves. By remaining inactive until they reach the stomach lumen, the enzymes can then start digesting dietary proteins more quickly and efficiently.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 20, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Orangejuice1120

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