Exam 4, Micro Study For Final
Exam 4 study guide for final, summer 2010
- 1.
Infection occurs when
- A.
Contaminants are present on the skin
- B.
A person swallows microbes in/on food
- C.
A person inhales microbes in the air
- D.
Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
- E.
All of the choices are correct
Correct Answer
D. Pathogens enter and multiply in body tissuesExplanation
Infection occurs when pathogens, which are disease-causing microorganisms, enter the body tissues and start multiplying. This can happen through various routes such as contaminated objects or surfaces, ingestion of food or water containing microbes, or inhalation of microbes present in the air. Once inside the body, pathogens can cause harm by damaging cells, releasing toxins, or triggering an immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is that infection occurs when pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
All infectious diseases
- A.
Are contagious
- B.
Only occur in human
- C.
Are caused by microorganisms or their products
- D.
Are caused by vectors
- E.
Involve viruses as the pathogens
Correct Answer
C. Are caused by microorganisms or their productsExplanation
Infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms or their products. This means that the diseases are a result of bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites entering the body and causing an infection. These microorganisms can multiply and spread within the body, leading to various symptoms and complications. Understanding that infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms or their products is crucial in developing effective treatments and prevention strategies for these diseases.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which is not terminology used for resident flora
- A.
Pathogenic flora
- B.
Normal flora
- C.
Indigenous flora
- D.
Normal microflora
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Pathogenic floraExplanation
The term "pathogenic flora" refers to microorganisms that can cause disease or infection in the host. On the other hand, "normal flora," "indigenous flora," and "normal microflora" all refer to the microorganisms that naturally inhabit the body without causing harm. Therefore, "pathogenic flora" is not a terminology used for resident flora.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Endogenous infectios agents arise from microbes that are
- A.
In food
- B.
In patients own normal flora
- C.
On fomites
- D.
In the air
- E.
Transmitted from one person
Correct Answer
B. In patients own normal floraExplanation
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are present in a person's own normal flora. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally reside on or within the human body without causing any harm. These microorganisms can include bacteria, fungi, and viruses. Under certain conditions, such as a weakened immune system or a disruption in the balance of the normal flora, these microbes can cause infections. Therefore, endogenous infections occur when the microbes from a person's own normal flora invade and cause illness or disease.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Virulence factors include all of the following except
- A.
Capsules
- B.
Ribosomes
- C.
Exoenzymes
- D.
Endotoxin
- E.
Exotoxin
Correct Answer
B. RibosomesExplanation
Virulence factors are molecules or structures produced by pathogens that contribute to their ability to cause disease. Capsules, exoenzymes, endotoxin, and exotoxin are all examples of virulence factors. Ribosomes, on the other hand, are not considered virulence factors. Ribosomes are cellular structures found in all living organisms, including pathogens, and are responsible for protein synthesis. While ribosomes play a crucial role in the overall functioning of a cell, they do not directly contribute to the pathogenicity or disease-causing abilities of a microorganism.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
These bacteria are opportunistic pathogens. These microbes pose an increased threat for those suffering from cystic fibrosis
- A.
Pseudomonas sp.
- B.
Enterobacteriaceae
- C.
Staphyloicoccus sp.
- D.
Streptococcus sp.
Correct Answer
A. Pseudomonas sp.Explanation
Pseudomonas sp. is the correct answer because it is known to be an opportunistic pathogen, meaning it typically causes infections in individuals with weakened immune systems or underlying health conditions. In this case, the question specifies that the bacteria pose an increased threat for those suffering from cystic fibrosis, indicating that Pseudomonas sp. is the most likely culprit. Enterobacteriaceae, Staphylococcus sp., and Streptococcus sp. may also be pathogenic, but they are not specifically mentioned in relation to cystic fibrosis or opportunistic infections.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Which STD is estimated to be the most prevalent in cases each year in the USA
- A.
Herpex simplex
- B.
AIDS
- C.
Human papillomavirus
- D.
Syphillis
- E.
Trichomoniasis
Correct Answer
C. Human papillomavirusExplanation
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is estimated to be the most prevalent STD in cases each year in the USA. HPV is a common virus that can be transmitted through sexual contact. It is estimated that around 79 million Americans are currently infected with HPV, and approximately 14 million new cases are reported each year. HPV can lead to various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancer. Therefore, it is crucial to raise awareness about HPV and promote preventive measures such as vaccination and safe sexual practices.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the
- A.
Prodromal stage
- B.
Convalescent stage
- C.
Incubation period
- D.
Period of invasion
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Incubation periodExplanation
The incubation period refers to the time between when a pathogen enters the body and starts multiplying, until the first appearance of symptoms. During this stage, the pathogen is multiplying and spreading within the body, but the individual may not yet experience any noticeable symptoms. This period can vary depending on the specific pathogen and the individual's immune response. Therefore, the incubation period is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of
- A.
Toxemia
- B.
Inflammation
- C.
Sequelae
- D.
A syndrome
- E.
Latency
Correct Answer
B. InflammationExplanation
Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are all common signs and symptoms of inflammation. Inflammation is the body's natural response to injury or infection, and it involves the release of chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the affected area (edema). Swollen lymph nodes are also a common response to inflammation, as they help to filter out harmful substances. Fever, soreness, and abscesses are all indications of the immune system's efforts to fight off the infection or injury.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
The principal government agency responsible for rtacking infectious diseases in the USA is
- A.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
- B.
World Health Organization
- C.
National Institute of Health
- D.
United States Department of Agriculture
- E.
Infections Control Committee
Correct Answer
A. Centers for Disease Control and PreventionExplanation
The correct answer is Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. This agency, also known as CDC, is responsible for tracking and preventing the spread of infectious diseases in the United States. They conduct research, provide guidance on disease control measures, and collaborate with other organizations to protect public health. The World Health Organization (WHO) is an international agency that focuses on global health issues. The National Institute of Health (NIH) primarily focuses on medical research and funding. The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) primarily deals with agricultural and food-related issues. The Infections Control Committee is not a recognized government agency.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is
- A.
Epidemic
- B.
Endemic
- C.
Pandemic
- D.
Sporadic
- E.
Chronic
Correct Answer
B. EndemicExplanation
An endemic disease is one that has a steady frequency over time in a population. Unlike an epidemic, which refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease in a specific area, an endemic disease maintains a consistent level of occurrence within a population. This suggests that the disease is constantly present and does not cause significant fluctuations in its frequency. Therefore, the correct answer is endemic.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the
- A.
Fomite
- B.
Carrier
- C.
Vector
- D.
Reservoir
- E.
Source
Correct Answer
D. ReservoirExplanation
A pathogen's primary, natural habitat where it continues to exist is referred to as a reservoir. This is the place where the pathogen lives and reproduces, allowing it to persist and potentially infect other organisms. Reservoirs can include humans, animals, or environmental sources such as soil or water. By identifying and understanding the reservoirs of a pathogen, it becomes possible to implement effective control measures and prevent the spread of diseases.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
An inanimate object that harborts and transmits a pathogen is a
- A.
Fomite
- B.
Carrier
- C.
Vector
- D.
Reservoir
- E.
Source
Correct Answer
A. FomiteExplanation
A fomite is an inanimate object that can harbor and transmit a pathogen. It can include things like doorknobs, cell phones, or clothing. This is different from a carrier, which refers to a person or animal that can carry and transmit a pathogen without showing any symptoms. A vector is an organism, usually an insect or animal, that can transmit a pathogen from one host to another. A reservoir is a place where a pathogen can live and multiply, such as a body of water or an animal. A source refers to the origin or cause of a pathogen.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
- A.
They are only transmitted by medical personell
- B.
They often involve the patients urinary tract and surgical incisions
- C.
The patients resident flora can be the infectious agent
- D.
Escherichia coli and Staphylococci are common infectious agents
- E.
Medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence
Correct Answer
A. They are only transmitted by medical personellExplanation
Nosocomial infections, also known as healthcare-associated infections, are infections that are acquired in a healthcare setting. These infections can be transmitted through various routes, including direct contact with healthcare personnel, contaminated surfaces, equipment, or even through the air. Therefore, the statement "they are only transmitted by medical personnel" is incorrect. Nosocomial infections can involve various body sites, including the urinary tract and surgical incisions, and can be caused by different infectious agents, such as Escherichia coli and Staphylococci. Medical and surgical asepsis practices are implemented to reduce the occurrence of nosocomial infections.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
When would Koch's Postulates be utilized
- A.
To determine the cause of a ptients illeness in a hospital microbiology labe
- B.
To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
- C.
To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology lab
- D.
To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
- E.
Whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem
Correct Answer
C. To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology labExplanation
Koch's Postulates are a set of guidelines used to determine the cause of a disease. They involve isolating and culturing the suspected pathogen, infecting a healthy organism with the cultured pathogen, re-isolating the same pathogen from the newly infected organism, and demonstrating that it is the same as the original pathogen. Therefore, Koch's Postulates would be utilized in a microbiology lab to determine the cause of a new disease.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Components of the first line of defense include all of the following except
- A.
The tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin
- B.
Nasal hairs
- C.
Flushing action of tears and blinking
- D.
Flushing action of urine
- E.
Phagocytic white blood cells
Correct Answer
E. Phagocytic white blood cellsExplanation
The first line of defense includes physical barriers and mechanisms that prevent pathogens from entering the body. The tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin acts as a physical barrier, preventing pathogens from penetrating the skin. Nasal hairs help to filter out and trap pathogens from entering the respiratory system. The flushing action of tears and blinking helps to wash away pathogens from the surface of the eyes. The flushing action of urine helps to eliminate pathogens from the urinary tract. Phagocytic white blood cells, on the other hand, are part of the second line of defense, as they actively engulf and destroy pathogens that have entered the body.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Nonspecific chemical defense include
- A.
Lysozyme
- B.
Lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat
- C.
Skins acidic PH and fatty acid
- D.
All of the abvove
Correct Answer
D. All of the abvoveExplanation
The correct answer is "all of the above" because nonspecific chemical defense includes lysozyme, lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat, and the skin's acidic pH and fatty acid. These are all examples of chemical substances or conditions that help protect the body from pathogens or harmful substances. Lysozyme is an enzyme that can break down the cell walls of bacteria, lactic acid creates an acidic environment that inhibits the growth of bacteria, electrolytes in sweat can help flush out toxins, and the skin's acidic pH and fatty acid create a barrier against pathogens. Therefore, all of these mechanisms contribute to nonspecific chemical defense.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Which cell type is phagocytotic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate inot macrophages
- A.
Basophil
- B.
Eosinophil
- C.
Nuetrophil
- D.
Monocyte
- E.
Lymphocyte
Correct Answer
D. MonocyteExplanation
Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that are phagocytic, meaning they can engulf and digest foreign particles. They have the ability to migrate out of the bloodstream and into body tissues, where they can differentiate into macrophages. Macrophages play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and destroying pathogens, dead cells, and other debris. Therefore, monocytes are the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Diapedesis is the
- A.
Loss of blood due to hemorhaging
- B.
Production of only red blood cells
- C.
Production of white blood cells
- D.
Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding
- E.
Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissue
Correct Answer
E. Migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissueExplanation
Diapedesis refers to the migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissue. This process is an essential part of the immune response, allowing white blood cells to leave the bloodstream and enter the surrounding tissues to fight off infections or respond to inflammation. During diapedesis, white blood cells squeeze through the walls of blood vessels and move towards the site of infection or tissue damage. This helps to localize the immune response and facilitate the clearance of pathogens or damaged cells.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Plasma cells
- A.
Function in cell mediated immunity
- B.
Are derived from T-lymphocytes
- C.
Function in blood clotting
- D.
Produce and secrete antibodies
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. Produce and secrete antibodiesExplanation
Plasma cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for producing and secreting antibodies, which are proteins that help to neutralize and eliminate harmful pathogens such as bacteria and viruses. This process is known as humoral immunity. Therefore, the correct answer is that plasma cells produce and secrete antibodies.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
The circulating subastances that affect the hypothalmus and initiate fever are
- A.
Complement
- B.
Interferons
- C.
Leukotrienes
- D.
Pyrogens
- E.
Lysozymes
Correct Answer
D. PyrogensExplanation
Pyrogens are substances that can affect the hypothalamus and trigger a fever response in the body. They can be either endogenous (produced by the body itself) or exogenous (coming from outside the body). Pyrogens stimulate the release of prostaglandins, which then act on the hypothalamus to increase the body's temperature set-point. This leads to various physiological changes in the body, such as increased metabolism and shivering, in order to raise the body temperature to the new set-point.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Which is incorrect about complement
- A.
Composed of at least 26 blood protiens
- B.
Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen
- C.
Act in a cascade reaction
- D.
Involves a classical pathway
- E.
Involves an alternate pathway
Correct Answer
B. Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogenExplanation
The complement system is a group of proteins in the blood that are involved in the immune response. It is not composed of at least 26 blood proteins, as there are actually over 30 proteins in the complement system. Additionally, the complement system is not only activated during a response to a pathogen, but can also be activated by other stimuli such as immune complexes or certain antibodies. The complement system acts in a cascade reaction, where the activation of one protein leads to the activation of the next in a sequential manner. It involves both classical and alternate pathways for activation. Therefore, the statement that is incorrect is "composed of at least 26 blood proteins".Rate this question:
-
- 23.
The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
- A.
Initiation of the cascade
- B.
Production of inflammatory cytokines
- C.
Ring shaped protein consisting of many C9 proteins, digests holes in bacterial cell membrane and virus envelopes
- D.
Cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b
- E.
C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane
Correct Answer
C. Ring shaped protein consisting of many C9 proteins, digests holes in bacterial cell membrane and virus envelopesExplanation
The correct answer is the ring-shaped protein consisting of many C9 proteins, which digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes. This stage is known as the membrane attack stage because it involves the formation of a complex called the membrane attack complex (MAC). The MAC is formed by the sequential binding of C5b, C6, C7, C8, and multiple C9 proteins. Once assembled, the MAC forms a pore in the target cell's membrane, leading to cell lysis and destruction of the pathogen. This process is an essential part of the immune response against bacterial infections and viral infections.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained except
- A.
Eosinophils
- B.
Monocytes
- C.
Neutrophils
- D.
Basophils
- E.
They are all granulocytes
Correct Answer
B. MonocytesExplanation
Monocytes are not considered granulocytes because they lack prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained. Granulocytes, on the other hand, have visible granules in their cytoplasm. Eosinophils, neutrophils, and basophils are all examples of granulocytes as they possess these granules. Therefore, the correct answer is monocytes.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The contribution of B cells is mainly in
- A.
Inflamation
- B.
Humoral immunity
- C.
Complement activity
- D.
Cell mediated immunity
- E.
Phagocytosis
Correct Answer
B. Humoral immunityExplanation
B cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in humoral immunity. Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells in response to the presence of foreign substances, such as pathogens. These antibodies then circulate in the bloodstream and bind to the antigens on the surface of the pathogens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells or neutralizing their harmful effects. Therefore, the main contribution of B cells is in humoral immunity rather than inflammation, complement activity, cell-mediated immunity, or phagocytosis.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
- A.
Basophils
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Neutrophils
- D.
Monocytes
- E.
Lymphocytes
Correct Answer
B. EosinophilsExplanation
Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response against parasitic worms and fungi. They release toxic substances that help to destroy these pathogens, and also regulate inflammation and allergic reactions. Eosinophils are attracted to sites of infection or inflammation by chemical signals released by the invading parasites or fungi. Once at the site, they can phagocytose (engulf) the pathogens and release their toxic granules to kill them. Therefore, eosinophils are particularly effective in targeting and eliminating parasitic worms and fungi.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
- A.
Are the result of genetic expression.
- B.
Function in recognition of self molecules.
- C.
Recieve and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system.
- D.
Aid in cellular development.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
Correct Answer
E. All of the choices are correct.Explanation
The cell surface markers involved in immune reactions can result from genetic expression, function in the recognition of self molecules, receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells, and aid in cellular development. Therefore, all of the choices are correct.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
The major histocompatability complex is
- A.
A group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system.
- B.
A set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
- C.
Also known as the complement system.
- D.
Located in the thymus gland.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
Correct Answer
B. A set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.Explanation
The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. MHC cell receptors are proteins found on the surface of cells that play a crucial role in the immune system. These receptors help the immune system identify and distinguish between self and non-self cells, allowing the immune system to recognize and eliminate foreign substances such as pathogens. The MHC genes are highly polymorphic, meaning they exist in many different forms, which contributes to the diversity and effectiveness of the immune response.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Class II MHC genes code for
- A.
Certain secreted complement componets.
- B.
Self receptors recognized by natural killer cells.
- C.
All HLA antigens
- D.
Receptors located primarily on macrphages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
Correct Answer
D. Receptors located primarily on macrphages, dendritic cells, and B cells.Explanation
Class II MHC genes code for receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. These receptors are involved in the presentation of antigens to helper T cells. Class II MHC molecules are found on the surface of these antigen-presenting cells and bind to antigens that have been internalized and processed. This interaction is crucial for the activation of the immune response and the coordination of the adaptive immune system. Therefore, the answer choice "receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells" is correct.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following except
- A.
Two identical heavy polypeptide chains.
- B.
Two identical light polypeptide chains.
- C.
Disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains.
- D.
Four antigen binding sites.
- E.
A vaiable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.
Correct Answer
D. Four antigen binding sites.Explanation
Immunoglobulin molecules are made up of two identical heavy polypeptide chains and two identical light polypeptide chains. These chains are held together by disulfide bonds. Each polypeptide chain has a variable and constant region. However, immunoglobulin molecules typically have two antigen binding sites, not four.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elict an immune response are termed
- A.
Antigentic determinant.
- B.
Hapten.
- C.
Antigen binding sites.
- D.
Variable region.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
Correct Answer
B. Hapten.Explanation
A small foreign molecule that cannot elicit an immune response on its own is called a hapten. Haptens can become immunogenic when they bind to larger carrier molecules, such as proteins, and form a complex. This complex can then be recognized by the immune system and trigger an immune response. Antigenic determinants refer to specific regions on an antigen that are recognized by antibodies, while antigen binding sites are the regions on antibodies that bind to antigens. The variable region refers to the region of an antibody that is responsible for its specificity in recognizing and binding to antigens.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Superantigens are
- A.
Body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign.
- B.
Cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members.
- C.
Bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a times greater rate then other antigens.
- D.
Those that evoke allergic reactions.
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
Correct Answer
C. Bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a times greater rate then other antigens.Explanation
Superantigens are bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a much higher rate than other antigens. These toxins are produced by certain bacteria and have the ability to bind to both the T cell receptor and the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class II molecules on antigen-presenting cells. This binding results in the activation of a large number of T cells, leading to an excessive immune response. Superantigens can cause a variety of symptoms, including fever, inflammation, and tissue damage.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Antigen presenting cells
- A.
Include dendritic cells.
- B.
Include macrophages.
- C.
Engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogentic.
- D.
Hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface.
- E.
All of the choices are correct.
Correct Answer
E. All of the choices are correct.Explanation
All of the choices are correct because antigen presenting cells, such as dendritic cells and macrophages, have the ability to engulf and modify antigens to make them more immunogenic. They also hold and present the processed antigens on their cell membrane surface, allowing them to interact with immune cells and initiate an immune response. Therefore, all the statements mentioned in the answer are true and contribute to the role of antigen presenting cells in the immune system.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Mold spores and animal dander are cinsidered to be wich type af allergen?
- A.
Ingestant
- B.
Inhalant
- C.
Injectant
- D.
Contactant
- E.
None of the choices are correct.
Correct Answer
B. InhalantExplanation
Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be inhalant allergens because they are typically breathed in through the air and can trigger allergic reactions in individuals who are sensitive to them. These allergens can cause symptoms such as sneezing, coughing, wheezing, and itchy eyes when inhaled.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the
- A.
Sensitizing dose
- B.
Provocative dose
- C.
Allergic dose
- D.
Hypersensitivity dose
- E.
Desensitizing dose
Correct Answer
A. Sensitizing doseExplanation
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the sensitizing dose because it refers to the first exposure to an allergen that triggers an immune response and sensitizes the body to that specific allergen. This sensitization process can lead to the development of allergies and hypersensitivity reactions upon subsequent exposures to the same allergen. The other options, such as provocative dose, allergic dose, hypersensitivity dose, and desensitizing dose, do not accurately describe the initial encounter with an allergen.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time?
- A.
Degranulation
- B.
Bonding of allergin to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
- C.
Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
- D.
Histamine acts on smooth muscle
- E.
Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vasuclar permeability
Correct Answer
B. Bonding of allergin to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophilsExplanation
When an allergen enters the body for a second time, it will bond to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils. This bonding triggers the release of chemical mediators, such as histamine and prostaglandins, from these cells. Histamine acts on smooth muscle, causing contraction and symptoms like itching, sneezing, and watery eyes. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, leading to inflammation and swelling. This immune response is known as degranulation, where the mast cells and basophils release their stored mediators to combat the allergen.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Allergic patients recieving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing
- A.
Desensitization
- B.
Sensitazation
- C.
Tissue matching
- D.
Degranulation
- E.
Non of the above
Correct Answer
A. DesensitizationExplanation
Desensitization is the process of gradually exposing allergic patients to small, controlled injections of specific allergens in order to reduce their sensitivity or allergic reactions to those allergens. This treatment aims to build up the patient's tolerance over time and reduce the severity of their allergic symptoms. It is an effective method for managing allergies and can improve the patient's quality of life by reducing the need for medication and minimizing the risk of severe allergic reactions.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
When trafted tissue such as bone marrow contatins passenger lymphocytes what could result
- A.
Host rejection of graft
- B.
Graft versus host disease
- C.
Formation of autoantibodies
- D.
Hypogammaglobulemia
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Graft versus host diseaseExplanation
When transplanted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes, it can result in graft versus host disease. This occurs when the immune cells from the donor tissue recognize the recipient's body as foreign and attack it. This immune response can lead to a variety of symptoms and complications, including skin rash, liver damage, and gastrointestinal issues. It is a potentially serious condition that requires medical intervention.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is
- A.
AIDS
- B.
Adesnosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
- C.
DiGeorge syndrome
- D.
Agammaglobulemia
- E.
Type I diabetes
Correct Answer
A. AIDSExplanation
A secondary acquired immunodeficiency refers to a condition where the immune system becomes weakened or compromised due to external factors, such as infections or certain medications. AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, is a prime example of a secondary acquired immunodeficiency. It is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) which attacks and destroys the immune system, leaving the body vulnerable to various infections and diseases.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
The receptors on macrophages that bind to antigen non-specifically and illicit a non specific response and signals to the adaptive immunity response
- A.
T-cell Receptor
- B.
Toll-like receptor
- C.
B cell receptor
- D.
IgD
- E.
MHC class II
Correct Answer
B. Toll-like receptorExplanation
Toll-like receptors are a type of receptor found on macrophages that play a crucial role in the innate immune response. These receptors recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) on various microbes, such as bacteria and viruses, and initiate a non-specific immune response. This response includes the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and the activation of adaptive immunity. Toll-like receptors are essential for the detection of pathogens and the initiation of an immune response, making them the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
Any heighrtened or inappropriate immune response, an exaggerated, misdeirected expression of immune responses resulting in tissue damage is called a/an
- A.
Autoimmune disease
- B.
Immunodeficiency
- C.
Hypersensitivity
- D.
Transfusion reaction
- E.
Desenstitization
Correct Answer
C. HypersensitivityExplanation
Hypersensitivity refers to an exaggerated or inappropriate immune response that leads to tissue damage. It occurs when the immune system overreacts to a harmless substance or allergen, causing symptoms such as inflammation, itching, and swelling. This can happen in conditions like allergies and asthma. Unlike autoimmune diseases, where the immune system mistakenly attacks the body's own cells and tissues, hypersensitivity reactions are triggered by external factors. Immunodeficiency refers to a weakened immune system, transfusion reaction is a response to incompatible blood transfusion, and desensitization is a process used to reduce hypersensitivity reactions.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause
- A.
Recipient antibody activiating the complement cascade to attack the RBC's
- B.
Fever and anemia
- C.
Systemic shock and kidney failure
- D.
Massive hemolysis of the donor RBC's
- E.
All of these choices
Correct Answer
E. All of these choicesExplanation
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause a recipient's antibodies to activate the complement cascade, leading to an attack on the red blood cells (RBCs). This can result in fever and anemia. Additionally, it can lead to systemic shock and kidney failure. Furthermore, the transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause massive hemolysis of the donor's RBCs. Therefore, all of these choices are potential consequences of transfusing the wrong blood type.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Hypersensitivity type II involves
- A.
Recation that lyse foreign cells
- B.
Antibodies, complement, leading to lysis of foreign cell
- C.
Transfusion reactions such as ABO blood groups
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Hypersensitivity type II involves reactions that lyse foreign cells through the action of antibodies and complement. This type of hypersensitivity is responsible for transfusion reactions, such as those related to ABO blood groups. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."Rate this question:
-
- 44.
The immunoglobulins found on the surface of B cells is/are
- A.
IgM
- B.
IgG
- C.
IgD
- D.
IgM and IgG
- E.
IgE and IgA
Correct Answer
C. IgDExplanation
IgD is found on the surface of B cells.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
- A.
IgM
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgD
- D.
IgE
- E.
IgG
Correct Answer
E. IgGExplanation
When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly IgG. This is because IgG is the main immunoglobulin found in the gamma globulin fraction of serum. IgG is the most abundant antibody in the bloodstream and is responsible for long-term immunity against pathogens.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies
- A.
They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them
- B.
They carry high nuimbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies
- C.
Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines
- D.
They are found mainly in the lymph nodes
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. They are found mainly in the lymph nodesExplanation
Mast cells and basophils are not mainly found in the lymph nodes. They are found in various tissues throughout the body, including the skin, respiratory tract, and gastrointestinal tract, where they play a crucial role in allergic reactions. When triggered by a specific allergen, they degranulate and release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, leading to allergy symptoms. They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies, and their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Cyto T cells
- A.
Stimulate B cell proliferation
- B.
Lack specificty for a target cell
- C.
Secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells
- D.
Secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cellsExplanation
Cyto T cells are a type of cytotoxic T cells that are responsible for directly killing infected or abnormal cells. They do this by secreting granzymes and perforins, which are proteins that cause damage to the target cells. This mechanism helps eliminate cells that pose a threat to the body, such as virus-infected cells or cancer cells. Therefore, the given answer, "secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells," is correct as it accurately describes one of the main functions of Cyto T cells.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
An example of artifical passive immunity would be
- A.
Chicken pox infection is followed by lifelong immunity
- B.
Chicken pox vaccine triggers exteded immunity to chickenpox
- C.
Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus afer exposure to the disease
- D.
A fetus acuiring materanl IgG to the chicken pox virus accros the placenta
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus afer exposure to the diseaseExplanation
Artificial passive immunity refers to providing a person with pre-formed antibodies to a specific pathogen. In this case, giving a person immune serum globulins (which contain antibodies) after exposure to the chickenpox virus provides immediate protection against the disease. This is an example of artificial passive immunity because the person is not producing their own antibodies, but rather receiving them from an external source. The other options mentioned do not involve the direct administration of pre-formed antibodies and therefore do not represent artificial passive immunity.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except
- A.
A higher titer of anitbody is produced than the primary response
- B.
A longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response
- C.
A quicker rate of antibody synthesis thatn the primary response
- D.
It is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced
- E.
It is also known as the anamnestic response
Correct Answer
D. It is mostly IgM antibodies that are producedExplanation
The secondary response to an antigen is characterized by a higher titer of antibody production compared to the primary response, a longer persistence of antibody, and a quicker rate of antibody synthesis. However, it is not mostly IgM antibodies that are produced during the secondary response. Instead, the secondary response is characterized by the production of mainly IgG antibodies. The secondary response is also known as the anamnestic response, as it is a memory response that occurs upon re-exposure to the same antigen.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
Hemopoiesis is the
- A.
Loss of blood due to hemorrhaging
- B.
Production of only red blood cells
- C.
Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
- D.
Plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding
- E.
Migration of white blood cells from the blood to the tissue
Correct Answer
C. Production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and plateletsExplanation
Hemopoiesis refers to the process of producing new blood cells in the body. This includes the production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 16, 2010Quiz Created by
Smoore2
Back to top