4N051 Set B Vol 1

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  • 1/108 Questions

    Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

    • Antigen
    • Antibody
    • Pathogen
    • Micro-organism
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled '4n051 set b vol 1' assesses knowledge on pathogens, disease transmission, and infection stages. It is designed for learners aiming to understand infectious diseases, focusing on aspects like pathogen types, incubation periods, and precautions in medical settings.

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  • 2. 

    Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?

    • Sporozoa

    • Chlamydia

    • Rickettsiae

    • Mysoplasma

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporozoa
    Explanation
    Sporozoa is the correct answer because it is a classification of organisms that includes the parasites responsible for causing malaria. These organisms are single-celled and have complex life cycles that involve both human and mosquito hosts. They are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes and cause the disease by invading and multiplying within red blood cells.

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  • 3. 

    Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

    • Illness

    • Virulence

    • Incubation

    • Convalescence

    Correct Answer
    A. Incubation
    Explanation
    The stage of infection that refers to the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease is called incubation. During this stage, the infectious agent is multiplying within the body, but the person does not yet show any signs or symptoms of the disease. This period can vary depending on the specific infectious agent and the individual's immune response.

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  • 4. 

    The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through

    • Cilia

    • Sneezing

    • Handwashing

    • The lumphatic system

    Correct Answer
    A. Cilia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cilia. Cilia are tiny hair-like structures found in the mucous membrane that help filter and trap foreign bodies such as dust, pollen, and bacteria. They move in coordinated waves, pushing the trapped particles out of the respiratory system and preventing them from entering further into the body. Sneezing and handwashing are not directly involved in the filtration process, although they can help remove some foreign bodies from the respiratory system. The lymphatic system is responsible for the removal of waste and toxins from the body, but it is not directly related to the filtration of foreign bodies in the mucous membrane.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?

    • Airborne

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Enteric

    Correct Answer
    A. Enteric
    Explanation
    Enteric is not a type of transmission-based precaution. Transmission-based precautions are infection control measures used to prevent the spread of specific infectious agents. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that are spread through small airborne particles, droplet precautions are used for diseases that are spread through larger droplets, and contact precautions are used for diseases that are spread through direct contact with an infected person or contaminated surfaces. Enteric precautions, on the other hand, refer to specific precautions taken for diseases that are spread through the gastrointestinal tract, such as by fecal-oral route.

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  • 6. 

    Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored,negative air pressure?

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Airborne

    • Respiratory

    Correct Answer
    A. Airborne
    Explanation
    Airborne transmission-based precautions require monitoring and negative air pressure. This means that the room or area where the patient is located should have a ventilation system that ensures air flows into the room but does not escape into other areas. This prevents the spread of infectious particles that may be suspended in the air, such as those transmitted by tuberculosis or measles. Monitoring is necessary to ensure that the negative air pressure is maintained and that the precautions are effective in preventing the spread of the airborne pathogens.

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  • 7. 

    What is the most serious type of meningitis?

    • Viral

    • Serum

    • Bacterial

    • Pneumococcal

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial
    Explanation
    Bacterial meningitis is the most serious type of meningitis because it is caused by bacteria that can rapidly multiply and spread in the bloodstream, leading to inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. This type of meningitis can cause severe complications, such as brain damage, hearing loss, and even death, if not promptly treated with antibiotics. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, is usually less severe and resolves on its own without specific treatment. Serum and pneumococcal are not types of meningitis, but rather terms related to blood and a specific bacterium, respectively.

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  • 8. 

    One of the most common and seroius complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

    • Pelvic inflammatory disease

    • Irregular menstral cycles

    • Vaginal discharge

    • Chlamydia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
    Explanation
    Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various complications in females. One of the most common and serious complications is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, or ovaries, causing inflammation and potential damage to these reproductive organs. It can result in chronic pelvic pain, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and other long-term complications. Therefore, PID is a significant concern for females with gonorrhea, making it the correct answer.

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  • 9. 

    Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organsims?

    • Medical sepsis

    • Medical asepsis

    • Surgical sepsis

    • Surgical asepsis

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical asepsis
    Explanation
    Surgical asepsis refers to practices designed to eliminate all micro-organisms. This term specifically relates to procedures performed in a surgical setting, where it is crucial to maintain a sterile environment to prevent infections. Surgical asepsis involves techniques such as hand hygiene, wearing sterile gloves and gowns, and using sterile instruments and supplies to minimize the risk of introducing harmful micro-organisms into the surgical site.

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  • 10. 

    Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

    • Disinfectant

    • Antiseptic

    • Detergent

    • Antitoxin

    Correct Answer
    A. Antiseptic
    Explanation
    Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on non-living surfaces, antiseptics are specifically formulated to be safe for use on skin and other living tissues. They are commonly used to clean wounds, prevent infections, and promote healing. Antiseptics work by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi, making them an effective tool in preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings and everyday life.

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  • 11. 

    What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?

    • Airborne

    • Droplet

    • Contact

    • Reverse

    Correct Answer
    A. Reverse
    Explanation
    Patients who are highly susceptible to infection are placed in reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a type of protective measure where patients are isolated to prevent them from being exposed to harmful pathogens. This is commonly done for individuals with compromised immune systems or those who have undergone organ transplants. The goal of reverse isolation is to minimize the risk of infection by creating a controlled environment that is free from potential sources of infection.

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  • 12. 

    What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?

    • You must don a gown,mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient

    • Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions

    • Give the patient a gown,mask, and gloves to wear before transport

    • Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Give the patient a gown,mask, and gloves to wear before transport
    Explanation
    When transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department, it is important to give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport. This is because these protective measures help to prevent the spread of infection to others and maintain a safe environment. By providing the patient with these items, it reduces the risk of transmission of infectious agents and ensures the safety of both the patient and healthcare personnel.

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  • 13. 

    An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is

    • A storage cart

    • An isolation cart

    • The suppl room

    • The nurse's station

    Correct Answer
    A. An isolation cart
    Explanation
    An isolation cart is an acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit because it provides a designated space to store necessary supplies and equipment for the isolation unit. It allows for easy access to items needed for patient care without having to leave the isolation area. This helps maintain infection control protocols by minimizing the risk of contamination from outside sources. The isolation cart can be stocked with personal protective equipment, medications, and other essential items, ensuring that healthcare providers have everything they need within close proximity to the patient.

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  • 14. 

    When using a mask in an isolation unit. put the mask on

    • After entering the unit. and take it off before leaving

    • After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off before leaving

    • Before entering, and take it off after leaving

    Correct Answer
    A. Before entering, and take it off before leaving
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "before entering, and take it off before leaving." This means that the mask should be put on before entering the isolation unit and taken off before leaving the unit. This ensures that the mask is worn while inside the unit to prevent the spread of any airborne particles, and is removed before leaving to avoid carrying any contaminants outside of the unit.

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  • 15. 

    What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?

    • Cleaning

    • Disinfection

    • Pasteurization

    • Decontamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Cleaning
    Explanation
    The first step in preparing objects for sterilization is cleaning. This involves removing dirt, debris, and organic material from the objects to ensure that they are free from any potential contaminants. Cleaning is necessary before any further sterilization methods can be applied, as sterilization is most effective on clean surfaces. Disinfection, pasteurization, and decontamination are all important steps in the sterilization process, but they come after the initial cleaning step.

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  • 16. 

    How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?

    • 3 minutes

    • 5 minutes

    • 10 minutes

    • 12 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 minutes
    Explanation
    During the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer, an item is immersed in the sterilant for 12 minutes. This duration is necessary to ensure that the sterilant effectively kills all microorganisms and pathogens present on the item, thus ensuring its complete sterilization. A longer immersion time allows for a more thorough sterilization process, reducing the risk of contamination.

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  • 17. 

    Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

    • Formaldehydes

    • Hydrochloric acid

    • Phenolics

    • Alcohol

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrochloric acid
    Explanation
    Hydrochloric acid is not commonly used as a disinfecting agent. While formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol are commonly used disinfectants, hydrochloric acid is primarily used for cleaning and industrial purposes, such as removing rust and scale from metal surfaces. It is a strong acid that can cause severe damage to living tissues and is not typically used for disinfection due to its corrosive and harmful nature.

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  • 18. 

    How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?

    • Daily

    • Daily and weekly

    • Daiy and monthly

    • Weekly and monthly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily and weekly
    Explanation
    Steam sterilizers need to be cleaned and inspected regularly to ensure proper functioning and prevent contamination. Cleaning and inspecting them daily helps to remove any residue or debris that may have accumulated during use. Additionally, inspecting them daily allows for early detection of any potential issues or malfunctions. Cleaning and inspecting them weekly provides a more thorough cleaning and allows for a more detailed inspection of the sterilizer's components. This regular maintenance routine helps to ensure the sterilizer's effectiveness and longevity.

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  • 19. 

    Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every

    • Load

    • Other load

    • 12 hours

    • 24 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every 24 hours. This is important to ensure that the sterilizer is functioning properly and effectively sterilizing the equipment. Regular testing helps to identify any issues or malfunctions early on, allowing for timely maintenance or repairs. Running diagnostic tests every 24 hours also aligns with industry standards and guidelines for sterilization processes.

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  • 20. 

    How often should biological testing be conduced and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers?

    • Every load

    • Every 30 loads

    • At least once per day

    • At least once a week

    Correct Answer
    A. At least once per day
    Explanation
    Biological testing should be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers at least once per day. This is important to ensure the effectiveness of the sterilization process and to maintain the safety of the sterilized items. Regular testing helps to identify any potential issues or malfunctions in the sterilizer, allowing for timely maintenance or repairs. It also helps to comply with regulatory requirements and quality assurance standards in healthcare facilities.

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  • 21. 

    Which basic human need category is rest included in?

    • Safety

    • Security

    • Self-esteem

    • Physiological

    Correct Answer
    A. Physiological
    Explanation
    Rest is included in the physiological category of basic human needs. This category refers to the fundamental biological requirements for survival, such as food, water, sleep, and shelter. Rest is essential for the body to recover and rejuvenate, allowing for proper functioning and overall well-being. Therefore, it falls under the physiological category as a necessary need for human beings.

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  • 22. 

    Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?

    • Vitamins A

    • Vitamins K

    • Ascorbic acid

    • B-complex vitamins

    Correct Answer
    A. B-complex vitamins
    Explanation
    B-complex vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells. This group of vitamins includes vitamin B12, folate, and other B vitamins. Vitamin B12 is essential for the synthesis of DNA, which is important for the production of red blood cells. Folate helps in the formation of red blood cells and prevents certain types of anemia. Other B vitamins, such as vitamin B6 and riboflavin, also play a role in the production and maturation of red blood cells. Therefore, B-complex vitamins are necessary for the proper functioning and production of red blood cells.

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  • 23. 

    Plasma lipids include what three substances?

    • Vitamins, minerals, and herbs

    • Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats

    • Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride

    • Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
    Explanation
    Plasma lipids are a type of fat found in the bloodstream. They are essential for various bodily functions. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol are the three main substances that make up plasma lipids. Triglycerides are the most common type of fat in the body and are used for energy storage. Phospholipids are important for cell structure and function. Cholesterol is necessary for the production of hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids. These three substances play vital roles in maintaining overall health and are included in plasma lipids.

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  • 24. 

    What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

    • Iron

    • Soy

    • Niacin

    • Calcium

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Iron is a crucial component of hemoglobin, as it binds to oxygen and allows it to be transported to different tissues and organs. Without sufficient iron, the body cannot produce enough hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron deficiency anemia. Therefore, iron is essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin.

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  • 25. 

    What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?

    • Rest and activity

    • Pain free and rest

    • Activity and pain free

    • Pain free and exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain free and rest
    Explanation
    The physiological need of rest includes two actions: being pain free and engaging in rest. Resting allows the body to recover and recharge, while being pain free ensures that the body is not experiencing any discomfort or physical distress. Both of these actions are essential for maintaining overall physical well-being and promoting optimal health.

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  • 26. 

    What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?

    • Babinski

    • Grasping

    • Rooting

    • Moro

    Correct Answer
    A. Moro
    Explanation
    The Moro reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs. This reflex is also known as the startle reflex and is a normal response in newborns. It is believed to be a protective mechanism that helps the infant respond to potential dangers and stimuli in their environment.

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  • 27. 

    A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age

    • 12 months

    • 18 months

    • 24 months

    • 30 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 months
    Explanation
    A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age 24 months because by this age, most children have gone through a significant growth spurt and have developed enough to reach this weight milestone. At 24 months, toddlers have been exposed to a variety of foods and have developed their eating skills, which contributes to their weight gain. Additionally, their physical activity levels have increased, helping them to build muscle and gain weight. Therefore, by the age of 24 months, it is expected for a toddler to weigh four times their birth weight.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

    • Blood pressure screenings

    • Assessing current fitness status

    • Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants

    • Providing sercives designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle

    Correct Answer
    A. Blood pressure screenings
    Explanation
    Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they are a common and important component of health assessments. By regularly monitoring employees' blood pressure, companies can identify potential health risks and provide appropriate interventions or resources to promote a healthy lifestyle. Blood pressure screenings can help detect conditions such as hypertension or other cardiovascular problems, allowing for early intervention and prevention.

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  • 29. 

    What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12?

    • Gastirc acid

    • Intrinsic factor

    • Hydrogen ions

    • Red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Intrinsic factor
    Explanation
    Intrinsic factor is a substance that the body needs in order to absorb vitamin B12. It is a protein produced by the stomach lining that binds to vitamin B12 and allows it to be absorbed in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be properly absorbed and utilized by the body.

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  • 30. 

    B12 deficiency are first noted by

    • Aplastic anemia

    • Hemolytic anemia

    • Pernicious anemia

    • Sickle cell anemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pernicious anemia
    Explanation
    Pernicious anemia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. It occurs when the body is unable to absorb enough B12 from the gastrointestinal tract. Symptoms of pernicious anemia include fatigue, weakness, pale skin, shortness of breath, and neurological problems. This condition is different from other types of anemia, such as aplastic anemia, hemolytic anemia, and sickle cell anemia, which have different causes and symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is pernicious anemia as it is specifically associated with B12 deficiency.

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  • 31. 

    Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through

    • Dehydration

    • Packaging

    • Cooking

    • Freezing

    Correct Answer
    A. Freezing
    Explanation
    Freezing is the process of preserving food by lowering its temperature below freezing point, which can cause a loss in the concentration of Vitamin B6. Freezing can lead to the degradation of nutrients, including Vitamin B6, due to enzymatic reactions and oxidative processes. Therefore, freezing food sources can result in a decrease in the concentration of Vitamin B6.

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  • 32. 

    Large doses or vitamin C cause all of the following except

    • Heartburn

    • Constipation

    • Kidney stones

    • Abdominal cramps

    Correct Answer
    A. Constipation
    Explanation
    Large doses of vitamin C can cause several side effects, including heartburn, kidney stones, and abdominal cramps. However, constipation is not typically associated with high doses of vitamin C. In fact, vitamin C is often used to treat constipation due to its ability to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Therefore, constipation is the exception among the listed side effects caused by large doses of vitamin C.

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  • 33. 

    Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except

    • Digitalis

    • Calcium

    • Mineral oil

    • Thiazide diuretics

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Vitamin D interacts with digitalis, mineral oil, and thiazide diuretics, but it does not interact with calcium. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium from the diet and regulates calcium levels in the blood. It works with calcium to support bone health and prevent conditions like osteoporosis.

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  • 34. 

    A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of

    • Rickets

    • Night blindness

    • Pernicious anemia

    • Prolonged clotting times

    Correct Answer
    A. Prolonged clotting times
    Explanation
    A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is prolonged clotting times. Vitamin E is known to have anticoagulant properties, meaning it can interfere with the normal clotting process in the body. When there is an excess of vitamin E in the system, it can lead to prolonged clotting times, making it more difficult for the blood to clot properly. This can result in excessive bleeding and an increased risk of hemorrhage. Therefore, prolonged clotting times serve as a clear indication of a vitamin E overdose.

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  • 35. 

    Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?

    • Ulcerative colitis

    • Herparin overdose

    • Malabsorption syndromes

    • Prolonged use of salicylates

    Correct Answer
    A. Herparin overdose
    Explanation
    Vitamin K is not used to treat herparin overdose because herparin is an anticoagulant medication that prevents blood clotting, while vitamin K is involved in the clotting process. Therefore, administering vitamin K would counteract the effects of herparin and potentially lead to unwanted clotting.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the folowing vitamins is not a fat-soluble?

    • Vitamin A

    • Vitamin C

    • Vitamin E

    • Vitamin K

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin C
    Explanation
    Vitamin C is not a fat-soluble vitamin. Unlike fat-soluble vitamins, which are stored in the body's fat tissues and can accumulate to toxic levels, vitamin C is water-soluble. This means that it dissolves in water and is not stored in the body. Instead, it is easily excreted through urine. Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that acts as an antioxidant, helps in collagen synthesis, and supports the immune system. It is found in various fruits and vegetables, and its deficiency can lead to scurvy.

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  • 37. 

    Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

    • During a blood transfusion

    • As a result of not using table salt

    • When an individual is unable to sink in water

    • Through an excessive amount of fluid loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is through an excessive amount of fluid loss. Sodium chloride, also known as salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is a significant loss of fluids through sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or excessive urination, it can lead to a deficiency of sodium chloride. This deficiency can cause symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, dizziness, and low blood pressure. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

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  • 38. 

    Half-normal saline solution is represented by

    • 0.2%

    • 0.40%

    • 0.45%

    • 0.50%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.45%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.45% because a half-normal saline solution is typically represented by a concentration of 0.45%. This means that the solution contains 0.45 grams of salt per 100 milliliters of water, resulting in a concentration of 0.45%.

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  • 39. 

    Potassium helps to maintain

    • Facial muscle tone

    • Clarity of eye sight

    • Heartbeat regulation

    • Alertness in the cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    A. Heartbeat regulation
    Explanation
    Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the normal functioning of the heart. It helps regulate the electrical impulses that control the heartbeat, ensuring that the heart beats at a steady and regular pace. Potassium also helps in maintaining the balance of fluids in the body, which is essential for proper heart function. Therefore, it is responsible for heartbeat regulation.

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  • 40. 

    Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except

    • Diabetes

    • Gastric ulcers

    • Cardiac disease

    • Renal impairment

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Diabetes is not a contraindication for administering potassium. Potassium supplementation may be required in individuals with diabetes who have low potassium levels due to certain medications or conditions. However, caution should be taken when administering potassium to individuals with gastric ulcers, cardiac disease, and renal impairment, as these conditions may increase the risk of adverse effects associated with potassium supplementation.

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  • 41. 

    Oral iron supplements should not be taken with

    • Coffee, cranberry, or water

    • Orange or grapefruit juice

    • Soda, water, or milk

    • Tea, milk, or coffee

    Correct Answer
    A. Tea, milk, or coffee
    Explanation
    Tea, milk, or coffee should not be taken with oral iron supplements because they contain compounds that can inhibit the absorption of iron in the body. These beverages contain tannins and polyphenols, which can bind to the iron and form complexes that are not easily absorbed by the digestive system. Therefore, it is recommended to take oral iron supplements with water or juice that does not contain these compounds to ensure optimal absorption of iron in the body.

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  • 42. 

    Which route is injectable iron administered?

    • Intra muscular

    • Intra venous

    • Transdermal

    • Z-track

    Correct Answer
    A. Intra muscular
    Explanation
    Injectable iron is administered intramuscularly. This means that the iron is injected into the muscle tissue, typically in the upper arm or thigh. This route of administration allows for the iron to be absorbed into the bloodstream more slowly, providing a sustained release of the medication. Intravenous administration would involve directly injecting the iron into a vein, while transdermal administration would involve applying a patch or gel to the skin. Z-track is a technique used to administer injections, but it is not a specific route of administration for injectable iron.

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  • 43. 

    When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as

    • Attraction

    • Catabolism

    • Anabolism

    • Cataclysm

    Correct Answer
    A. Anabolism
    Explanation
    Anabolism is the correct answer because it refers to the process of building larger molecules from smaller molecules. This is the opposite of catabolism, which involves breaking down larger molecules into smaller ones. Cataclysm and attraction are unrelated to the process of constructing larger molecules from smaller ones.

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  • 44. 

    Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of

    • Muscle

    • Protein

    • Glucose

    • Enzyme

    Correct Answer
    A. Enzyme
    Explanation
    Cellular metabolism refers to the chemical reactions that occur within a cell to maintain life. These reactions are regulated and controlled by specific molecules called enzymes. Enzymes act as catalysts, speeding up the rate of these reactions. In the context of cellular metabolism, enzymes play a crucial role in breaking down glucose, a sugar molecule, to produce energy. Therefore, the correct answer is enzyme, as it is the specific kind of protein that controls cellular metabolism.

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  • 45. 

    Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

    • Salts

    • Acids

    • Catalyzed

    • Synthesized

    Correct Answer
    A. Acids
    Explanation
    Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions (H+) when dissolved in water. This process is known as ionization. Therefore, electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are known for their sour taste, ability to react with metals, and ability to turn blue litmus paper red. They have a pH value less than 7 and can conduct electricity when dissolved in water.

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  • 46. 

    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by

    • Excessive thirst and nocturia

    • Acetone in the breath and urine

    • Constant hunger despite calorie intake

    • Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetone in the breath and urine
    Explanation
    When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, the body produces ketones as a byproduct. Acetone is one type of ketone that can be detected in the breath and urine. Therefore, the presence of acetone in the breath and urine can indicate that the body is metabolizing fats at a high rate. This can be a sign of conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis or a ketogenic diet.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

    • Protect against disease at the cellular level

    • The body's only defense against infection

    • Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body

    • Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect against disease at the cellular level
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are responsible for protecting the body against diseases at the cellular level. They play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and destroying foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses, that may cause harm to the body. Leukocytes are involved in various immune responses, including inflammation and antibody production, to ensure the body's defense against infection and disease.

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  • 48. 

    The two main categories of leukocytes are

    • Agranulocytes and basopjils

    • Granulocytes and agranulocytes

    • Neurtophils and granulocytes

    • Monophils and lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Granulocytes and agranulocytes
    Explanation
    Granulocytes and agranulocytes are the two main categories of leukocytes. Granulocytes are characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm, which contain various enzymes and proteins involved in immune responses. They are further divided into three subtypes: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Agranulocytes, on the other hand, do not have visible granules in their cytoplasm. They include monocytes and lymphocytes, which play important roles in immune responses such as antigen presentation and antibody production. Therefore, the correct answer is granulocytes and agranulocytes.

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  • 49. 

    Neutrophils are also known as

    • Polypeptides

    • Polysaccharides

    • Multigranulocytes

    • Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are characterized by their multi-lobed nucleus, hence the name "polymorphonuclear leukocytes". They are a crucial component of the immune system and play a key role in fighting off infections. Neutrophils are not polypeptides or polysaccharides, as these terms refer to different types of molecules. While neutrophils do contain granules, they are not specifically referred to as "multigranulocytes".

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 17, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Lowtron

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