Evoked Potential Practice Exam

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  • 1/103 Questions

    An electrode recording from Erb's point is placed

    • On the shoulder
    • 2-3 cm above the clavicle
    • Over the trapezius muscle
    • At the axilla
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About This Quiz

The Evoked Potential Practice Exam evaluates understanding of basic electrophysiology, circuit principles, and neuroanatomy. It covers topics such as atom structure, circuit current calculations, and components of the nervous system, essential for professionals in neuroscience and related fields.

Evoked Potential Practice Exam - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In what age group do early symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually occur?

    • Under 10 years

    • 15-40 years

    • 50-60 years

    • Over5 70 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 15-40 years
    Explanation
    Early symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually occur in the age group of 15-40 years. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It is most commonly diagnosed in young adults, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 15 and 40. These early symptoms can vary widely but often include fatigue, difficulty walking, numbness or tingling in the limbs, muscle weakness, and problems with coordination and balance.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is an effect of temperature on somatosensory evoked potentials?

    • Cooler temperatures tend to accelerate central conduction time

    • Warmer temperatures tend to polarize the stimulus current

    • Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time

    • Warmer temperatures desensitize nerve endings

    Correct Answer
    A. Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time
    Explanation
    Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time because cold temperatures can decrease nerve conduction velocity. This means that the transmission of sensory information from the peripheral nerves to the central nervous system is slowed down, resulting in a delay in the somatosensory evoked potentials.

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  • 4. 

    If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels when recording median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following electrodes should be adjusted first?

    • Cpi

    • Epc

    • Ground electrode

    • Stimulating electrode

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground electrode
    Explanation
    The ground electrode should be adjusted first because it is responsible for providing a reference point for the recording system. If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels, it suggests that the ground electrode may not be properly placed or connected, leading to electrical noise. By adjusting the ground electrode, the interference can be minimized, improving the quality of the recorded median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials.

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  • 5. 

    Voltage information is changed into numerical values for averaging by means of

    • Analog to analog conversion

    • Digital to digital conversion

    • Analog to digital conversion

    • Digital to analog conversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Analog to digital conversion
    Explanation
    Analog to digital conversion is the process of converting voltage information, which is an analog signal, into numerical values, which are digital signals. This conversion allows for easier manipulation, storage, and processing of the voltage information. It involves sampling the analog signal at regular intervals and quantizing the sampled values into discrete digital values. This enables the signal to be represented by a series of numbers that can be averaged or processed using digital systems or algorithms.

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  • 6. 

    In which of the following is the sampling rate of an averager at least twice the frequency fo the fastest sine wave compoenent in the signal to be resolved?

    • Ohm's Law

    • Wiener filtering

    • Nyquist frequency

    • Fourier analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Nyquist frequency
    Explanation
    The Nyquist frequency is the highest frequency that can be accurately represented in a digital signal. According to the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem, the sampling rate must be at least twice the frequency of the highest frequency component in the signal in order to avoid aliasing and accurately reconstruct the original signal. Therefore, in order for the sampling rate of an averager to be at least twice the frequency of the fastest sine wave component in the signal, the Nyquist frequency concept is relevant.

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  • 7. 

     Near Field

    • Corrected visual acuity

    • Stimulus field close to the eyes

    • Area within three feet of eyes

    • Generators close to the recording electrodes

    Correct Answer
    A. Generators close to the recording electrodes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Generators close to the recording electrodes". This refers to the location of the generators, which are the sources of electrical activity, in relation to the recording electrodes. In order to accurately measure and record the electrical signals, the generators need to be close to the recording electrodes. This proximity ensures that the signals are captured effectively and with minimal interference or loss of information.

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  • 8. 

    In the central nervous system, a myelin sheath forms around the

    • Axon

    • Glia

    • Cell body

    • Dendrites

    Correct Answer
    A. Axon
    Explanation
    The myelin sheath is a protective covering that forms around the axon, which is the long, slender part of a neuron that transmits electrical signals. The myelin sheath acts as an insulator, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of these signals. Glia cells provide support and insulation for neurons, but they do not form the myelin sheath. The cell body contains the nucleus and other organelles, but it does not have a myelin sheath. Dendrites receive signals from other neurons, but they also do not have a myelin sheath. Therefore, the correct answer is axon.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following cranial nerves is most at risk during acoustic neuroma surgery?

    • VII

    • IX

    • X

    • XI

    Correct Answer
    A. VII
    Explanation
    During acoustic neuroma surgery, the cranial nerve that is most at risk is the facial nerve (VII). Acoustic neuromas are tumors that develop on the vestibular nerve, which is closely associated with the facial nerve. Surgery to remove the tumor can potentially damage the facial nerve, leading to facial weakness or paralysis. Therefore, it is crucial for surgeons to take extra precautions to preserve the integrity of the facial nerve during the procedure.

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  • 10. 

    Clavicular, cervical and scalp sites are commonly used for recording

    • Posterior tibial potentials

    • Brainstem auditory evoked potenetials

    • Median nerve potentials

    • Popliteal fossa potentials

    Correct Answer
    A. Median nerve potentials
    Explanation
    The median nerve is a major nerve in the upper limb that innervates several muscles and provides sensory input to the hand. Recording potentials from the median nerve can provide valuable information about the function and integrity of this nerve. The clavicular, cervical, and scalp sites are commonly used for recording these potentials because they allow for easy access and accurate measurement of the electrical activity generated by the median nerve.

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  • 11. 

    Improper recording techniques can:

    • Be corrected by averaging

    • Be corrected by filtering

    • Not be corrected after the recording is completed

    • Be corrected by adjusting the printer

    Correct Answer
    A. Not be corrected after the recording is completed
    Explanation
    Improper recording techniques refer to errors or mistakes made during the process of recording. These errors may include issues such as noise, distortion, or incorrect levels. While some recording issues can be corrected through techniques like averaging or filtering, once the recording is completed, it becomes difficult or impossible to fix any errors that occurred during the recording process. Therefore, not all recording mistakes can be corrected after the recording is completed.

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  • 12. 

    Somatosensory Evoked Potential

    • Dorsal root

    • Ventral root

    • Choroid plexus

    • Anterior horn cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Dorsal root
    Explanation
    The dorsal root is the correct answer because it is a part of the somatosensory system. It is responsible for carrying sensory information from the peripheral nerves to the spinal cord. The dorsal root contains sensory nerve fibers that transmit signals such as touch, pain, and temperature from the body to the central nervous system. This information is then processed and interpreted by the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to sensory stimuli.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following refers to the phenomenon of fast frequency components of an artifact or signal showing up on an evoked potential at slower frequencies?

    • Delay

    • Smoothing

    • Aliasing

    • Blocking

    Correct Answer
    A. Aliasing
    Explanation
    Aliasing refers to the phenomenon where fast frequency components of an artifact or signal appear as slower frequencies in an evoked potential. This occurs when the sampling rate is too low to accurately capture the high-frequency components, leading to a distorted representation in the slower frequencies.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a key factor in the common mode rejection ratio?

    • Electrode length

    • Electrode placement

    • Far field generators

    • Electrode impedance balance

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrode impedance balance
    Explanation
    The key factor in the common mode rejection ratio is the electrode impedance balance. Common mode rejection ratio (CMRR) is a measure of how effectively a device can reject common mode signals, which are unwanted signals that appear on both input terminals. Electrode impedance balance refers to the equality of impedance between the two electrodes used in a device. A balanced impedance ensures that the device can effectively cancel out common mode signals, resulting in a higher CMRR.

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  • 15. 

    For posterior tibial somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following would be the best ipsilateral location for the ground electrode?

    • Arm

    • Calf

    • Mastoid

    • Sole of the foot

    Correct Answer
    A. Calf
    Explanation
    The calf would be the best ipsilateral location for the ground electrode because it is closer to the posterior tibial nerve, which is the nerve being stimulated in this test. Placing the ground electrode in the calf allows for more accurate measurement of the somatosensory evoked potentials generated by the posterior tibial nerve. The arm, mastoid, and sole of the foot are not as close to the nerve and may not provide as accurate results.

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  • 16. 

    Delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials which mimic a conductive hearing loss are most likely caused by

    • Otitis

    • Rhinitis

    • Gingivitis

    • Conjunctivitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Otitis
    Explanation
    Delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials which mimic a conductive hearing loss are most likely caused by otitis. Otitis refers to inflammation or infection of the ear, which can affect the transmission of sound to the brain. This inflammation or infection can lead to a delay in the brain's response to auditory stimuli, resulting in delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials. Rhinitis, gingivitis, and conjunctivitis are not directly related to the ear and would not typically cause these delays in auditory responses.

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  • 17. 

    Motor Threshold

    • Minimum stimulus intensity that results in a twitch in the appropriate muscle group

    • The level at which stimulation is first felt

    • Two times sensory threshold

    • The level which the patient is able to relax and tolerate the stimulus

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimum stimulus intensity that results in a twitch in the appropriate muscle group
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Minimum stimulus intensity that results in a twitch in the appropriate muscle group." The motor threshold refers to the minimum level of stimulus intensity required to elicit a twitch in the specific muscle group being targeted. This threshold varies among individuals and is an important measure in assessing muscle function and nerve excitability. It helps determine the appropriate intensity for therapeutic interventions such as electrical stimulation or transcranial magnetic stimulation.

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  • 18. 

    Afferent Nerves

    • Control ability to speak

    • Control emotional responses

    • Conduct impulses toward the central nervous system

    • Conduct impules away from the central nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct impulses toward the central nervous system
    Explanation
    Afferent nerves are responsible for conducting impulses toward the central nervous system. These nerves transmit sensory information from the body's periphery, such as touch, temperature, and pain, to the brain and spinal cord. This allows the central nervous system to receive and process sensory input, which is essential for various functions, including speech and emotional responses.

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  • 19. 

    Masking is recommended to eliminate

    • Asymmetry in latency and amplitude

    • False negative from the ipsilateral ear

    • Bone-conducted responses from the "non-stimulated" ear

    • False positive from the ipsilateral ear

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone-conducted responses from the "non-stimulated" ear
    Explanation
    Masking is recommended to eliminate bone-conducted responses from the "non-stimulated" ear. When conducting a hearing test, bone-conducted responses can be detected in both the stimulated and non-stimulated ear. These responses can interfere with the results and cause false positives or false negatives. By using masking, a noise is introduced to the non-stimulated ear to prevent it from responding to the sound stimulation. This helps to ensure that the responses obtained are only from the ear being tested, reducing asymmetry in latency and amplitude and improving the accuracy of the results.

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  • 20. 

    Paresthesia

    • Fainting

    • Tingling

    • Weakness

    • Dizziness

    Correct Answer
    A. Tingling
    Explanation
    Tingling is a sensation often described as pins and needles or a prickling feeling. It is commonly associated with paresthesia, a condition characterized by abnormal sensations in the body. While fainting, weakness, and dizziness can also be symptoms of various medical conditions, tingling specifically refers to the abnormal sensation of pins and needles, making it the correct answer in this context.

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  • 21. 

    In which of the following conditions is the P100 of the pattern reversal visual evoked potential prolonged?

    • Myopia

    • Conjunctivitis

    • Hysterical blindness

    • Optic nerve dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    A. Optic nerve dysfunction
    Explanation
    The P100 component of the pattern reversal visual evoked potential is a measure of the time it takes for the brain to process visual information. Optic nerve dysfunction refers to a condition where the optic nerve, which transmits visual signals from the eye to the brain, is not functioning properly. When the optic nerve is dysfunctional, there may be delays or disruptions in the transmission of visual information to the brain, leading to a prolonged P100 latency. This can be seen in conditions such as optic neuritis, optic nerve compression, or optic nerve damage.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following is determined by adding values and dividing by the number of values included?

    • Mean

    • Mode

    • Median

    • Standard deviation

    Correct Answer
    A. Mean
    Explanation
    The mean is determined by adding all the values together and then dividing by the number of values included. It provides the average value of a set of numbers and is commonly used to represent the central tendency of a data set.

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  • 23. 

    The troubleshooting method to best determine the source of a nonphysiologic artifact is:

    • View the raw input

    • Decrease sensitivity

    • Decrease the high frequency filter

    • Increase the low frequency filter

    Correct Answer
    A. View the raw input
    Explanation
    Viewing the raw input is the best troubleshooting method to determine the source of a nonphysiologic artifact because it allows for a direct examination of the unprocessed data. By looking at the raw input, any abnormalities or interference can be identified more easily, providing valuable insights into the source of the artifact. Decreasing sensitivity, decreasing the high frequency filter, and increasing the low frequency filter may help to reduce artifacts, but they do not directly address the root cause of the artifact. Therefore, viewing the raw input is the most effective approach.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory?

    • III

    • VI

    • VIII

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. VIII
    Explanation
    Cranial nerve VIII, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, is purely sensory. It is responsible for transmitting auditory and vestibular information from the inner ear to the brain. This nerve plays a crucial role in hearing and balance, making it purely sensory in function. Cranial nerves III, VI, and X have both sensory and motor functions, making them not purely sensory.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following results from averaging an evoked potential?

    • Noise is reduced

    • Random activity summates

    • Signal amplitude decreases

    • Stimulus artifact appears smaller

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise is reduced
    Explanation
    Averaging an evoked potential involves combining multiple trials of the same stimulus to reduce random variations and enhance the underlying signal. By averaging, the random noise that is present in each individual trial gets cancelled out, resulting in a reduction of noise. This allows for a clearer and more reliable representation of the evoked potential, making it easier to detect and analyze the true signal of interest.

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  • 26. 

    What is the typical MINIMUM common mode rejction ratio of in-phase signals recommended for evoked potential instruments?

    • 1,000:1

    • 5,000:1

    • 10,000:1

    • 50,000:1

    Correct Answer
    A. 10,000:1
    Explanation
    The typical MINIMUM common mode rejection ratio of in-phase signals recommended for evoked potential instruments is 10,000:1. This means that the instrument is capable of rejecting common mode noise by a factor of 10,000. This high rejection ratio is important in evoked potential measurements as it helps to minimize interference from external sources and improve the accuracy of the recorded signals.

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  • 27. 

    The recommended amplitude resolution of the analog to digital converter must be a MINIMUM of

    • 2 bits

    • 4 bits

    • 8 bits

    • 16 bits

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 bits
    Explanation
    The recommended amplitude resolution of the analog to digital converter must be a minimum of 8 bits because an 8-bit ADC can represent 2^8 = 256 different levels or values. This level of resolution allows for more accurate and precise conversion of analog signals into digital data. With a higher number of bits, the ADC can capture and distinguish smaller changes in the analog signal, resulting in a more faithful representation of the original signal. Therefore, a minimum of 8 bits is necessary for most applications to ensure sufficient resolution and accuracy.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is the time from the beginning to the end of each evoked potential sweep?

    • Rate

    • Latency

    • Real Time

    • Analysis Time

    Correct Answer
    A. Analysis Time
    Explanation
    The analysis time refers to the duration from the start to the end of each evoked potential sweep. This is the period during which the data is being processed and analyzed. It is different from the other options provided, such as rate, latency, and real time, which do not specifically pertain to the duration of the evoked potential sweep.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following would best enhance resolution of evoked potential waveforms?

    • Decrease sensitivity

    • Decrease filter band width

    • Increase stimulation rate

    • Increase number of averaged stimuli

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase number of averaged stimuli
    Explanation
    Increasing the number of averaged stimuli would best enhance resolution of evoked potential waveforms. Averaging multiple stimuli helps to reduce random noise and improve the signal-to-noise ratio, resulting in a clearer and more accurate representation of the evoked potential waveform. By increasing the number of stimuli that are averaged together, the overall signal strength increases, making it easier to identify and analyze the waveform. This technique is commonly used in neurophysiology and can be particularly useful when studying weak or subtle evoked potentials.

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  • 30. 

    Using the International 10-20 electrode placements, if the measurement from nasion to inion is 30 cm, what is the distance from Fz to Cz?

    • 6 cm

    • 9 cm

    • 12 cm

    • 18 cm

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 cm
    Explanation
    The International 10-20 electrode placement system is a standardized method used to accurately position electrodes on the scalp for EEG recordings. The nasion is the bridge of the nose, and the inion is the external bump at the base of the skull. The distance between these two points is 30 cm. In the 10-20 system, Fz is the electrode placement on the midline of the forehead, and Cz is the electrode placement on the midline of the scalp. Since Fz and Cz are both on the midline, their distance should be half of the nasion to inion measurement. Therefore, the distance from Fz to Cz would be 6 cm.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the primary reason for performing multimodality evoked potentials on a patient suspected of having multiple sclerosis?

    • To adjust dosage of medication

    • To relieve neurologic symptoms

    • To determine the presence of multifocal lesions

    • To evaluate peripheral nerve integrity

    Correct Answer
    A. To determine the presence of multifocal lesions
    Explanation
    Performing multimodality evoked potentials on a patient suspected of having multiple sclerosis is primarily done to determine the presence of multifocal lesions. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that affects the central nervous system, causing damage to the myelin sheath of nerve fibers. Multimodality evoked potentials can help identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the nerves, indicating the presence of lesions in different areas of the nervous system. This information is crucial for diagnosing multiple sclerosis and planning appropriate treatment strategies.

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  • 32. 

    Essential for reducing stimulus artifact and for patient safety:

    • Stimulation isolation unit

    • Auto switching for stimulation

    • Bipolar cautery

    • Monopolar cautery

    Correct Answer
    A. Stimulation isolation unit
    Explanation
    A stimulation isolation unit is essential for reducing stimulus artifact and ensuring patient safety. This unit is designed to isolate the stimulation circuit from the rest of the electrical system, preventing any interference or damage caused by electrical currents. It helps in providing a clean and accurate stimulation signal without any artifacts or disturbances. This is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment during medical procedures. Additionally, it ensures patient safety by preventing any electrical shocks or harm that could be caused by the stimulation.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the folowing is involved in the visual system?

    • Lateral geniculate

    • Dorsal column

    • Pyramidal tract

    • Medial Lemniscus

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral geniculate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Lateral geniculate." The visual system involves several structures, including the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN). The LGN is a part of the thalamus and plays a crucial role in relaying visual information from the optic nerve to the visual cortex in the brain. It receives input from the retina and sends visual signals to the primary visual cortex for further processing. The dorsal column, pyramidal tract, and medial lemniscus are not directly involved in the visual system, making them incorrect options.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following waveforms is elicited by a subject attending to rare stimuli?

    • N50

    • N100

    • P200

    • P300

    Correct Answer
    A. P300
    Explanation
    The P300 waveform is elicited by a subject attending to rare stimuli. This waveform is a positive deflection in the event-related potential (ERP) that occurs approximately 300 milliseconds after the presentation of the rare stimulus. It is often associated with cognitive processes such as attention, memory, and decision-making. The P300 waveform is commonly used in research and clinical settings to study and assess cognitive function.

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  • 35. 

    BAEPs are relatively independent of

    • Consciousness

    • Age

    • Stimulus intensity

    • Stimulus rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Consciousness
    Explanation
    BAEPs (Brainstem Auditory Evoked Potentials) are electrical responses recorded from the brainstem in response to auditory stimuli. The correct answer, consciousness, suggests that the generation of BAEPs does not depend on a person's level of awareness or wakefulness. In other words, even if someone is unconscious or asleep, their brainstem can still produce BAEPs in response to auditory stimuli. Age, stimulus intensity, and stimulus rate may affect the characteristics of BAEPs, but they do not determine their presence or absence.

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  • 36. 

    A patient with a left homonymous hemianopsia most likely has a lesion of the

    • Right midbrain

    • Right optic tract

    • Left temporal lobe

    • Left occipital cortex

    Correct Answer
    A. Right optic tract
    Explanation
    A patient with a left homonymous hemianopsia, which is a loss of vision in the left visual field of both eyes, most likely has a lesion of the right optic tract. The optic tracts carry visual information from the optic chiasm to the brain. Since the left visual field is processed in the right side of the brain, a lesion in the right optic tract would disrupt the transmission of visual information from the left visual field to the right side of the brain, resulting in a loss of vision in the left visual field.

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  • 37. 

    Compared to surface electrodes, needle recording electrodes tend to have

    • Higher impedance

    • Better high frequency responses

    • Less risk of transmitting diseases

    • Less distortion of low frequencies

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher impedance
    Explanation
    Needle recording electrodes tend to have higher impedance compared to surface electrodes. Impedance refers to the opposition of an electrical circuit to the flow of current. Higher impedance means that the electrode has more resistance to the flow of electrical signals. In the case of needle recording electrodes, the higher impedance allows for more precise and accurate recording of electrical activity in the body. This is because higher impedance reduces the interference from surrounding tissues and minimizes signal distortion.

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  • 38. 

    Accurate electrode placment of CP4 is most critical for simulaton of what nerves?

    • Left median

    • Right median

    • Left tibial

    • Right tibial

    Correct Answer
    A. Left median
    Explanation
    The accurate electrode placement of CP4 is most critical for the simulation of the left median nerves.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is characteristic of alternating click polarity?

    • Produces abnormal I-V latencies

    • Has no effect on wave I amplitude

    • Is recommended for testing premature infants

    • Cancels the stimulus artifact

    Correct Answer
    A. Cancels the stimulus artifact
    Explanation
    Alternating click polarity refers to the technique of reversing the polarity of the stimulus click between consecutive presentations. This method is used to cancel out the stimulus artifact, which is an electrical artifact that occurs when the stimulus is presented. By reversing the polarity, the artifact is effectively eliminated, allowing for more accurate measurement of the auditory evoked potentials. Therefore, the given answer that alternating click polarity cancels the stimulus artifact is correct.

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  • 40. 

    The nucleus of an atom contains

    • Anions

    • Electrons

    • Protons

    • Cations

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons
    Explanation
    The nucleus of an atom contains protons. Protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit. Electrons, on the other hand, are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus. Anions and cations are charged ions that result from the gain or loss of electrons, but they are not found in the nucleus itself.

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  • 41. 

    The long latency auditory EP, also called the cognitive EP or oddball paradyme, is the

    • CNV

    • FFT

    • ECOG

    • P300

    Correct Answer
    A. P300
    Explanation
    The correct answer is P300. The P300 is a long latency auditory event-related potential (EP) that is also known as the cognitive EP or oddball paradigm. It is a positive deflection in the brain's electrical activity that occurs approximately 300 milliseconds after a person is presented with a rare or unexpected stimulus. The P300 is often used in cognitive neuroscience research to study attention, memory, and information processing.

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  • 42. 

    If the trials are not reproducible

    • Turn on your notch filter

    • Perform an additional trial

    • Decrase the signal to noise ratio

    • Discontinue the procedure

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform an additional trial
    Explanation
    Performing an additional trial is the most appropriate action if the trials are not reproducible. By conducting another trial, it allows for a chance to verify the results and determine if the issue lies in the experimental setup or other factors. This helps to ensure the reliability and accuracy of the data collected.

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  • 43. 

    The number of recording channels for full-field VEP should be

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Four
    Explanation
    The correct answer is four because full-field VEP (Visual Evoked Potential) is a technique used to measure the electrical activity in the visual cortex of the brain in response to visual stimuli. It requires multiple recording channels to accurately capture the signals from different areas of the brain. Having four recording channels allows for a more comprehensive and detailed analysis of the brain's response to visual stimuli.

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  • 44. 

    What is the equation for calculating visual angle in minutes of arc?

    • 2F/60

    • 3438/WxD

    • 3438 x W/D

    • 3438 x D/W

    Correct Answer
    A. 3438 x W/D
    Explanation
    The equation for calculating visual angle in minutes of arc is given by 3438 x W/D. This equation takes into account the constant 3438 and the variables W (width) and D (distance). By multiplying the width by 3438 and dividing it by the distance, we can determine the visual angle in minutes of arc.

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  • 45. 

    What type of responses are subcortical evoked potentials?

    • Far field

    • Near field

    • Visual field

    • Receptive field

    Correct Answer
    A. Far field
    Explanation
    Subcortical evoked potentials refer to electrical responses generated by the brainstem and subcortical structures in response to sensory stimuli. These responses are considered "far field" because they are recorded from electrodes placed on the scalp, indicating that the electrical activity originates from a distant source. This term distinguishes subcortical evoked potentials from "near field" potentials, which are recorded directly from the cortex. Therefore, the correct answer is "Far field."

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  • 46. 

    Which obligate peak of an MNSEP can vary in latency with level of alertness of the patient?

    • N20

    • P14

    • N18

    • N13

    Correct Answer
    A. N20
    Explanation
    The N20 peak of an MNSEP refers to the negative peak that occurs approximately 20 milliseconds after a stimulus is presented. This peak is generated by the sensory cortex and can vary in latency with the level of alertness of the patient. As the patient becomes more alert, the latency of the N20 peak may decrease, indicating faster processing of sensory information. Therefore, the N20 peak is the correct answer as it is the only option that mentions a peak that can vary in latency with the level of alertness.

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  • 47. 

    What effect on P100 does a decrease in screen luminance have?

    • Latency increases, amplitude decreases

    • Amplitude increases, latency decreases

    • Latency decreased, amplitude decreases

    • Latency increases, amplitude increases

    Correct Answer
    A. Latency increases, amplitude decreases
    Explanation
    A decrease in screen luminance refers to a decrease in the brightness of the screen. This decrease in brightness would lead to a delay in the brain's response, resulting in an increase in latency. Additionally, the decrease in screen luminance would also cause a decrease in the amplitude of the P100 waveform, which represents the brain's visual processing. Therefore, the correct answer is that latency increases and amplitude decreases.

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  • 48. 

    If the volrage in a circuit is 400 volts and the resistance is 50 ohms, the current equals

    • 8 ohms

    • 20,000 ohms

    • 8 amperes

    • 20,000 amperes

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 amperes
    Explanation
    The current in a circuit can be calculated using Ohm's Law, which states that current (I) is equal to voltage (V) divided by resistance (R). In this case, the voltage is given as 400 volts and the resistance is given as 50 ohms. By dividing 400 volts by 50 ohms, we get a current of 8 amperes.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following most likely results in increased firing of a neuron?

    • Inhibitory presynaptic potential

    • Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

    • Excitatory postsynaptic potential

    • Hyperpolarization of resting membrane potential

    Correct Answer
    A. Excitatory postsynaptic potential
    Explanation
    An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is a temporary depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane that brings the neuron closer to its threshold and increases the likelihood of firing an action potential. This occurs when neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, causing ion channels to open and allowing positive ions to enter the cell. As a result, the membrane potential becomes less negative, making it easier for the neuron to reach the threshold and generate an action potential.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 13, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Jacobsd

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