Evoked Potential Practice Exam

103 Questions | Total Attempts: 1389

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Evoked Potential Practice Exam

Review questions for the ABRET EP examination


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The nucleus of an atom contains
    • A. 

      Anions

    • B. 

      Electrons

    • C. 

      Protons

    • D. 

      Cations

  • 2. 
    If a 4 ohm resistor and a 2 ohm resistor are wired in series across a 6 volt battery, what is the curernt across each resistor?
    • A. 

      1 amp

    • B. 

      2 amps

    • C. 

      1.5 amps across the larger adn 3 amps across the smaller

    • D. 

      4 amps across the larger and 1.5 amps across the smaller

  • 3. 
    If the volrage in a circuit is 400 volts and the resistance is 50 ohms, the current equals
    • A. 

      8 ohms

    • B. 

      20,000 ohms

    • C. 

      8 amperes

    • D. 

      20,000 amperes

  • 4. 
    Somatosensory Evoked Potential
    • A. 

      Dorsal root

    • B. 

      Ventral root

    • C. 

      Choroid plexus

    • D. 

      Anterior horn cell

  • 5. 
    Afferent Nerves
    • A. 

      Control ability to speak

    • B. 

      Control emotional responses

    • C. 

      Conduct impulses toward the central nervous system

    • D. 

      Conduct impules away from the central nervous system

  • 6. 
    Which of the folowing is involved in the visual system?
    • A. 

      Lateral geniculate

    • B. 

      Dorsal column

    • C. 

      Pyramidal tract

    • D. 

      Medial Lemniscus

  • 7. 
    Blind Spot
    • A. 

      Lens

    • B. 

      Fovea

    • C. 

      Macula

    • D. 

      Optic Disc

  • 8. 
    Posterior Fossa
    • A. 

      Knee

    • B. 

      Brain stem

    • C. 

      Cauda equina

    • D. 

      Temporal lobe

  • 9. 
    Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory?
    • A. 

      III

    • B. 

      VI

    • C. 

      VIII

    • D. 

      X

  • 10. 
    The decussation of the pyramids take place at what level?
    • A. 

      Pons

    • B. 

      Cervial medullary junction

    • C. 

      Cerebellum

    • D. 

      Diencephalon

  • 11. 
    Resting Membrane Potential
    • A. 

      -7uV

    • B. 

      -70uV

    • C. 

      -7mV

    • D. 

      -70mV

  • 12. 
    Which of the following most likely results in increased firing of a neuron?
    • A. 

      Inhibitory presynaptic potential

    • B. 

      Inhibitory postsynaptic potential

    • C. 

      Excitatory postsynaptic potential

    • D. 

      Hyperpolarization of resting membrane potential

  • 13. 
    Amplitude of an evoked potential depends on which of the following physiiological actions in a sensory pathway?
    • A. 

      The velocity of the neural impulses

    • B. 

      The synchrony with which neural impulses travel

    • C. 

      The number of normal neural generators sequentially excited

    • D. 

      The number of cortical or subcortical generators simultaneously activated.

  • 14. 
    All components of brainstem auditory evoked potential waveforms reach adult configuratiion by what age?
    • A. 

      1-2 months

    • B. 

      3-6 months

    • C. 

      1-2 years

    • D. 

      3-4 years

  • 15. 
    In what age group do early symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually occur?
    • A. 

      Under 10 years

    • B. 

      15-40 years

    • C. 

      50-60 years

    • D. 

      Over5 70 years

  • 16. 
    Paresthesia
    • A. 

      Fainting

    • B. 

      Tingling

    • C. 

      Weakness

    • D. 

      Dizziness

  • 17. 
    A patient with a left homonymous hemianopsia most likely has a lesion of the
    • A. 

      Right midbrain

    • B. 

      Right optic tract

    • C. 

      Left temporal lobe

    • D. 

      Left occipital cortex

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is a partial paralysis of the lower extremities?
    • A. 

      Hemiplegia

    • B. 

      Hemiparesis

    • C. 

      Paraplegia

    • D. 

      Paraparesis

  • 19. 
    Compared to electrode impedance, the input impedance of the amplifier should be
    • A. 

      Equal

    • B. 

      Lower

    • C. 

      Higher

    • D. 

      Variable

  • 20. 
    What is the typical MINIMUM common mode rejction ratio of in-phase signals recommended for evoked potential instruments?
    • A. 

      1,000:1

    • B. 

      5,000:1

    • C. 

      10,000:1

    • D. 

      50,000:1

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is the usual polarity convention for recording a brainstem auditory evoked potential?
    • A. 

      Positivity at the ear produces an upward deflection

    • B. 

      Negativity at the ear produces a downward deflection

    • C. 

      Negativity at the vertex produces an upward deflection

    • D. 

      Positivity at the vertex produces a downward deflection

  • 22. 
    Using an amplification factor of 500,000, a 1uV brainstem auditory evoked potential waveform will be amplified to
    • A. 

      0.05 v

    • B. 

      0.50 v

    • C. 

      5.00 v

    • D. 

      50.00 v

  • 23. 
    When recording evoked potentials, which of the following filters does NOT produce a phase shift?
    • A. 

      60Hz

    • B. 

      Notch

    • C. 

      Digital

    • D. 

      Passive RC

  • 24. 
    Which of the following would best enhance resolution of evoked potential waveforms?
    • A. 

      Decrease sensitivity

    • B. 

      Decrease filter band width

    • C. 

      Increase stimulation rate

    • D. 

      Increase number of averaged stimuli

  • 25. 
    Positive Delay
    • A. 

      Averaging starts before stimulus onset

    • B. 

      Averaging starts after stimulus onset

    • C. 

      Averaging and stimulus onset occur simultaneously

    • D. 

      Averaging and stimulus onset are independently triggered