Evoked Potential Practice Exam

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1. An electrode recording from Erb's point is placed

Explanation

The correct answer is "2-3 cm above the clavicle." This is the correct placement for an electrode recording from Erb's point. Erb's point is located in the brachial plexus, which is a network of nerves that innervate the upper limb. Placing the electrode 2-3 cm above the clavicle ensures that it is in the correct position to record electrical activity from the brachial plexus and surrounding muscles.

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About This Quiz
Evoked Potential Practice Exam - Quiz

The Evoked Potential Practice Exam evaluates understanding of basic electrophysiology, circuit principles, and neuroanatomy. It covers topics such as atom structure, circuit current calculations, and components of the... see morenervous system, essential for professionals in neuroscience and related fields. see less

2. If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels when recording median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following electrodes should be adjusted first?

Explanation

The ground electrode should be adjusted first because it is responsible for providing a reference point for the recording system. If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels, it suggests that the ground electrode may not be properly placed or connected, leading to electrical noise. By adjusting the ground electrode, the interference can be minimized, improving the quality of the recorded median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials.

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3. In what age group do early symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually occur?

Explanation

Early symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually occur in the age group of 15-40 years. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It is most commonly diagnosed in young adults, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 15 and 40. These early symptoms can vary widely but often include fatigue, difficulty walking, numbness or tingling in the limbs, muscle weakness, and problems with coordination and balance.

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4. Which of the following is an effect of temperature on somatosensory evoked potentials?

Explanation

Cooler temperatures tend to slow peripheral conduction time because cold temperatures can decrease nerve conduction velocity. This means that the transmission of sensory information from the peripheral nerves to the central nervous system is slowed down, resulting in a delay in the somatosensory evoked potentials.

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5. Voltage information is changed into numerical values for averaging by means of

Explanation

Analog to digital conversion is the process of converting voltage information, which is an analog signal, into numerical values, which are digital signals. This conversion allows for easier manipulation, storage, and processing of the voltage information. It involves sampling the analog signal at regular intervals and quantizing the sampled values into discrete digital values. This enables the signal to be represented by a series of numbers that can be averaged or processed using digital systems or algorithms.

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6. In which of the following is the sampling rate of an averager at least twice the frequency fo the fastest sine wave compoenent in the signal to be resolved?

Explanation

The Nyquist frequency is the highest frequency that can be accurately represented in a digital signal. According to the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem, the sampling rate must be at least twice the frequency of the highest frequency component in the signal in order to avoid aliasing and accurately reconstruct the original signal. Therefore, in order for the sampling rate of an averager to be at least twice the frequency of the fastest sine wave component in the signal, the Nyquist frequency concept is relevant.

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7.  Near Field

Explanation

The correct answer is "Generators close to the recording electrodes". This refers to the location of the generators, which are the sources of electrical activity, in relation to the recording electrodes. In order to accurately measure and record the electrical signals, the generators need to be close to the recording electrodes. This proximity ensures that the signals are captured effectively and with minimal interference or loss of information.

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8. In the central nervous system, a myelin sheath forms around the

Explanation

The myelin sheath is a protective covering that forms around the axon, which is the long, slender part of a neuron that transmits electrical signals. The myelin sheath acts as an insulator, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of these signals. Glia cells provide support and insulation for neurons, but they do not form the myelin sheath. The cell body contains the nucleus and other organelles, but it does not have a myelin sheath. Dendrites receive signals from other neurons, but they also do not have a myelin sheath. Therefore, the correct answer is axon.

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9. Clavicular, cervical and scalp sites are commonly used for recording

Explanation

The median nerve is a major nerve in the upper limb that innervates several muscles and provides sensory input to the hand. Recording potentials from the median nerve can provide valuable information about the function and integrity of this nerve. The clavicular, cervical, and scalp sites are commonly used for recording these potentials because they allow for easy access and accurate measurement of the electrical activity generated by the median nerve.

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10. Which of the following cranial nerves is most at risk during acoustic neuroma surgery?

Explanation

During acoustic neuroma surgery, the cranial nerve that is most at risk is the facial nerve (VII). Acoustic neuromas are tumors that develop on the vestibular nerve, which is closely associated with the facial nerve. Surgery to remove the tumor can potentially damage the facial nerve, leading to facial weakness or paralysis. Therefore, it is crucial for surgeons to take extra precautions to preserve the integrity of the facial nerve during the procedure.

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11. Somatosensory Evoked Potential

Explanation

The dorsal root is the correct answer because it is a part of the somatosensory system. It is responsible for carrying sensory information from the peripheral nerves to the spinal cord. The dorsal root contains sensory nerve fibers that transmit signals such as touch, pain, and temperature from the body to the central nervous system. This information is then processed and interpreted by the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to sensory stimuli.

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12. Which of the following refers to the phenomenon of fast frequency components of an artifact or signal showing up on an evoked potential at slower frequencies?

Explanation

Aliasing refers to the phenomenon where fast frequency components of an artifact or signal appear as slower frequencies in an evoked potential. This occurs when the sampling rate is too low to accurately capture the high-frequency components, leading to a distorted representation in the slower frequencies.

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13. For posterior tibial somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the following would be the best ipsilateral location for the ground electrode?

Explanation

The calf would be the best ipsilateral location for the ground electrode because it is closer to the posterior tibial nerve, which is the nerve being stimulated in this test. Placing the ground electrode in the calf allows for more accurate measurement of the somatosensory evoked potentials generated by the posterior tibial nerve. The arm, mastoid, and sole of the foot are not as close to the nerve and may not provide as accurate results.

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14. Delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials which mimic a conductive hearing loss are most likely caused by

Explanation

Delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials which mimic a conductive hearing loss are most likely caused by otitis. Otitis refers to inflammation or infection of the ear, which can affect the transmission of sound to the brain. This inflammation or infection can lead to a delay in the brain's response to auditory stimuli, resulting in delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials. Rhinitis, gingivitis, and conjunctivitis are not directly related to the ear and would not typically cause these delays in auditory responses.

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15. Motor Threshold

Explanation

The correct answer is "Minimum stimulus intensity that results in a twitch in the appropriate muscle group." The motor threshold refers to the minimum level of stimulus intensity required to elicit a twitch in the specific muscle group being targeted. This threshold varies among individuals and is an important measure in assessing muscle function and nerve excitability. It helps determine the appropriate intensity for therapeutic interventions such as electrical stimulation or transcranial magnetic stimulation.

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16. Improper recording techniques can:

Explanation

Improper recording techniques refer to errors or mistakes made during the process of recording. These errors may include issues such as noise, distortion, or incorrect levels. While some recording issues can be corrected through techniques like averaging or filtering, once the recording is completed, it becomes difficult or impossible to fix any errors that occurred during the recording process. Therefore, not all recording mistakes can be corrected after the recording is completed.

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17. Afferent Nerves

Explanation

Afferent nerves are responsible for conducting impulses toward the central nervous system. These nerves transmit sensory information from the body's periphery, such as touch, temperature, and pain, to the brain and spinal cord. This allows the central nervous system to receive and process sensory input, which is essential for various functions, including speech and emotional responses.

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18. Which of the following is a key factor in the common mode rejection ratio?

Explanation

The key factor in the common mode rejection ratio is the electrode impedance balance. Common mode rejection ratio (CMRR) is a measure of how effectively a device can reject common mode signals, which are unwanted signals that appear on both input terminals. Electrode impedance balance refers to the equality of impedance between the two electrodes used in a device. A balanced impedance ensures that the device can effectively cancel out common mode signals, resulting in a higher CMRR.

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19. Masking is recommended to eliminate

Explanation

Masking is recommended to eliminate bone-conducted responses from the "non-stimulated" ear. When conducting a hearing test, bone-conducted responses can be detected in both the stimulated and non-stimulated ear. These responses can interfere with the results and cause false positives or false negatives. By using masking, a noise is introduced to the non-stimulated ear to prevent it from responding to the sound stimulation. This helps to ensure that the responses obtained are only from the ear being tested, reducing asymmetry in latency and amplitude and improving the accuracy of the results.

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20. In which of the following conditions is the P100 of the pattern reversal visual evoked potential prolonged?

Explanation

The P100 component of the pattern reversal visual evoked potential is a measure of the time it takes for the brain to process visual information. Optic nerve dysfunction refers to a condition where the optic nerve, which transmits visual signals from the eye to the brain, is not functioning properly. When the optic nerve is dysfunctional, there may be delays or disruptions in the transmission of visual information to the brain, leading to a prolonged P100 latency. This can be seen in conditions such as optic neuritis, optic nerve compression, or optic nerve damage.

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21. Which of the following is determined by adding values and dividing by the number of values included?

Explanation

The mean is determined by adding all the values together and then dividing by the number of values included. It provides the average value of a set of numbers and is commonly used to represent the central tendency of a data set.

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22. The troubleshooting method to best determine the source of a nonphysiologic artifact is:

Explanation

Viewing the raw input is the best troubleshooting method to determine the source of a nonphysiologic artifact because it allows for a direct examination of the unprocessed data. By looking at the raw input, any abnormalities or interference can be identified more easily, providing valuable insights into the source of the artifact. Decreasing sensitivity, decreasing the high frequency filter, and increasing the low frequency filter may help to reduce artifacts, but they do not directly address the root cause of the artifact. Therefore, viewing the raw input is the most effective approach.

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23. Paresthesia

Explanation

Tingling is a sensation often described as pins and needles or a prickling feeling. It is commonly associated with paresthesia, a condition characterized by abnormal sensations in the body. While fainting, weakness, and dizziness can also be symptoms of various medical conditions, tingling specifically refers to the abnormal sensation of pins and needles, making it the correct answer in this context.

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24. Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory?

Explanation

Cranial nerve VIII, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, is purely sensory. It is responsible for transmitting auditory and vestibular information from the inner ear to the brain. This nerve plays a crucial role in hearing and balance, making it purely sensory in function. Cranial nerves III, VI, and X have both sensory and motor functions, making them not purely sensory.

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25. Which of the following results from averaging an evoked potential?

Explanation

Averaging an evoked potential involves combining multiple trials of the same stimulus to reduce random variations and enhance the underlying signal. By averaging, the random noise that is present in each individual trial gets cancelled out, resulting in a reduction of noise. This allows for a clearer and more reliable representation of the evoked potential, making it easier to detect and analyze the true signal of interest.

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26. What is the typical MINIMUM common mode rejction ratio of in-phase signals recommended for evoked potential instruments?

Explanation

The typical MINIMUM common mode rejection ratio of in-phase signals recommended for evoked potential instruments is 10,000:1. This means that the instrument is capable of rejecting common mode noise by a factor of 10,000. This high rejection ratio is important in evoked potential measurements as it helps to minimize interference from external sources and improve the accuracy of the recorded signals.

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27. The recommended amplitude resolution of the analog to digital converter must be a MINIMUM of

Explanation

The recommended amplitude resolution of the analog to digital converter must be a minimum of 8 bits because an 8-bit ADC can represent 2^8 = 256 different levels or values. This level of resolution allows for more accurate and precise conversion of analog signals into digital data. With a higher number of bits, the ADC can capture and distinguish smaller changes in the analog signal, resulting in a more faithful representation of the original signal. Therefore, a minimum of 8 bits is necessary for most applications to ensure sufficient resolution and accuracy.

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28. Which of the following is the time from the beginning to the end of each evoked potential sweep?

Explanation

The analysis time refers to the duration from the start to the end of each evoked potential sweep. This is the period during which the data is being processed and analyzed. It is different from the other options provided, such as rate, latency, and real time, which do not specifically pertain to the duration of the evoked potential sweep.

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29. Essential for reducing stimulus artifact and for patient safety:

Explanation

A stimulation isolation unit is essential for reducing stimulus artifact and ensuring patient safety. This unit is designed to isolate the stimulation circuit from the rest of the electrical system, preventing any interference or damage caused by electrical currents. It helps in providing a clean and accurate stimulation signal without any artifacts or disturbances. This is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment during medical procedures. Additionally, it ensures patient safety by preventing any electrical shocks or harm that could be caused by the stimulation.

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30. Which of the following would best enhance resolution of evoked potential waveforms?

Explanation

Increasing the number of averaged stimuli would best enhance resolution of evoked potential waveforms. Averaging multiple stimuli helps to reduce random noise and improve the signal-to-noise ratio, resulting in a clearer and more accurate representation of the evoked potential waveform. By increasing the number of stimuli that are averaged together, the overall signal strength increases, making it easier to identify and analyze the waveform. This technique is commonly used in neurophysiology and can be particularly useful when studying weak or subtle evoked potentials.

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31. Using the International 10-20 electrode placements, if the measurement from nasion to inion is 30 cm, what is the distance from Fz to Cz?

Explanation

The International 10-20 electrode placement system is a standardized method used to accurately position electrodes on the scalp for EEG recordings. The nasion is the bridge of the nose, and the inion is the external bump at the base of the skull. The distance between these two points is 30 cm. In the 10-20 system, Fz is the electrode placement on the midline of the forehead, and Cz is the electrode placement on the midline of the scalp. Since Fz and Cz are both on the midline, their distance should be half of the nasion to inion measurement. Therefore, the distance from Fz to Cz would be 6 cm.

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32. Which of the following is the primary reason for performing multimodality evoked potentials on a patient suspected of having multiple sclerosis?

Explanation

Performing multimodality evoked potentials on a patient suspected of having multiple sclerosis is primarily done to determine the presence of multifocal lesions. Multiple sclerosis is a disease that affects the central nervous system, causing damage to the myelin sheath of nerve fibers. Multimodality evoked potentials can help identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the nerves, indicating the presence of lesions in different areas of the nervous system. This information is crucial for diagnosing multiple sclerosis and planning appropriate treatment strategies.

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33. Which of the folowing is involved in the visual system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Lateral geniculate." The visual system involves several structures, including the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN). The LGN is a part of the thalamus and plays a crucial role in relaying visual information from the optic nerve to the visual cortex in the brain. It receives input from the retina and sends visual signals to the primary visual cortex for further processing. The dorsal column, pyramidal tract, and medial lemniscus are not directly involved in the visual system, making them incorrect options.

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34. Which of the following waveforms is elicited by a subject attending to rare stimuli?

Explanation

The P300 waveform is elicited by a subject attending to rare stimuli. This waveform is a positive deflection in the event-related potential (ERP) that occurs approximately 300 milliseconds after the presentation of the rare stimulus. It is often associated with cognitive processes such as attention, memory, and decision-making. The P300 waveform is commonly used in research and clinical settings to study and assess cognitive function.

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35. BAEPs are relatively independent of

Explanation

BAEPs (Brainstem Auditory Evoked Potentials) are electrical responses recorded from the brainstem in response to auditory stimuli. The correct answer, consciousness, suggests that the generation of BAEPs does not depend on a person's level of awareness or wakefulness. In other words, even if someone is unconscious or asleep, their brainstem can still produce BAEPs in response to auditory stimuli. Age, stimulus intensity, and stimulus rate may affect the characteristics of BAEPs, but they do not determine their presence or absence.

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36. A patient with a left homonymous hemianopsia most likely has a lesion of the

Explanation

A patient with a left homonymous hemianopsia, which is a loss of vision in the left visual field of both eyes, most likely has a lesion of the right optic tract. The optic tracts carry visual information from the optic chiasm to the brain. Since the left visual field is processed in the right side of the brain, a lesion in the right optic tract would disrupt the transmission of visual information from the left visual field to the right side of the brain, resulting in a loss of vision in the left visual field.

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37. Compared to surface electrodes, needle recording electrodes tend to have

Explanation

Needle recording electrodes tend to have higher impedance compared to surface electrodes. Impedance refers to the opposition of an electrical circuit to the flow of current. Higher impedance means that the electrode has more resistance to the flow of electrical signals. In the case of needle recording electrodes, the higher impedance allows for more precise and accurate recording of electrical activity in the body. This is because higher impedance reduces the interference from surrounding tissues and minimizes signal distortion.

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38. Accurate electrode placment of CP4 is most critical for simulaton of what nerves?

Explanation

The accurate electrode placement of CP4 is most critical for the simulation of the left median nerves.

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39. Which of the following is characteristic of alternating click polarity?

Explanation

Alternating click polarity refers to the technique of reversing the polarity of the stimulus click between consecutive presentations. This method is used to cancel out the stimulus artifact, which is an electrical artifact that occurs when the stimulus is presented. By reversing the polarity, the artifact is effectively eliminated, allowing for more accurate measurement of the auditory evoked potentials. Therefore, the given answer that alternating click polarity cancels the stimulus artifact is correct.

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40. The nucleus of an atom contains

Explanation

The nucleus of an atom contains protons. Protons are positively charged particles found in the nucleus of an atom. They have a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit. Electrons, on the other hand, are negatively charged particles that orbit around the nucleus. Anions and cations are charged ions that result from the gain or loss of electrons, but they are not found in the nucleus itself.

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41. The long latency auditory EP, also called the cognitive EP or oddball paradyme, is the

Explanation

The correct answer is P300. The P300 is a long latency auditory event-related potential (EP) that is also known as the cognitive EP or oddball paradigm. It is a positive deflection in the brain's electrical activity that occurs approximately 300 milliseconds after a person is presented with a rare or unexpected stimulus. The P300 is often used in cognitive neuroscience research to study attention, memory, and information processing.

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42. If the trials are not reproducible

Explanation

Performing an additional trial is the most appropriate action if the trials are not reproducible. By conducting another trial, it allows for a chance to verify the results and determine if the issue lies in the experimental setup or other factors. This helps to ensure the reliability and accuracy of the data collected.

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43. The number of recording channels for full-field VEP should be

Explanation

The correct answer is four because full-field VEP (Visual Evoked Potential) is a technique used to measure the electrical activity in the visual cortex of the brain in response to visual stimuli. It requires multiple recording channels to accurately capture the signals from different areas of the brain. Having four recording channels allows for a more comprehensive and detailed analysis of the brain's response to visual stimuli.

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44. What is the equation for calculating visual angle in minutes of arc?

Explanation

The equation for calculating visual angle in minutes of arc is given by 3438 x W/D. This equation takes into account the constant 3438 and the variables W (width) and D (distance). By multiplying the width by 3438 and dividing it by the distance, we can determine the visual angle in minutes of arc.

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45. What type of responses are subcortical evoked potentials?

Explanation

Subcortical evoked potentials refer to electrical responses generated by the brainstem and subcortical structures in response to sensory stimuli. These responses are considered "far field" because they are recorded from electrodes placed on the scalp, indicating that the electrical activity originates from a distant source. This term distinguishes subcortical evoked potentials from "near field" potentials, which are recorded directly from the cortex. Therefore, the correct answer is "Far field."

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46. Which obligate peak of an MNSEP can vary in latency with level of alertness of the patient?

Explanation

The N20 peak of an MNSEP refers to the negative peak that occurs approximately 20 milliseconds after a stimulus is presented. This peak is generated by the sensory cortex and can vary in latency with the level of alertness of the patient. As the patient becomes more alert, the latency of the N20 peak may decrease, indicating faster processing of sensory information. Therefore, the N20 peak is the correct answer as it is the only option that mentions a peak that can vary in latency with the level of alertness.

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47. What effect on P100 does a decrease in screen luminance have?

Explanation

A decrease in screen luminance refers to a decrease in the brightness of the screen. This decrease in brightness would lead to a delay in the brain's response, resulting in an increase in latency. Additionally, the decrease in screen luminance would also cause a decrease in the amplitude of the P100 waveform, which represents the brain's visual processing. Therefore, the correct answer is that latency increases and amplitude decreases.

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48. If the volrage in a circuit is 400 volts and the resistance is 50 ohms, the current equals

Explanation

The current in a circuit can be calculated using Ohm's Law, which states that current (I) is equal to voltage (V) divided by resistance (R). In this case, the voltage is given as 400 volts and the resistance is given as 50 ohms. By dividing 400 volts by 50 ohms, we get a current of 8 amperes.

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49. Which of the following most likely results in increased firing of a neuron?

Explanation

An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is a temporary depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane that brings the neuron closer to its threshold and increases the likelihood of firing an action potential. This occurs when neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, causing ion channels to open and allowing positive ions to enter the cell. As a result, the membrane potential becomes less negative, making it easier for the neuron to reach the threshold and generate an action potential.

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50. Which of the following is the normal interocular latency difference of P100?

Explanation

The normal interocular latency difference of P100 is less than 15 msec. This means that the time it takes for the P100 wave to appear in one eye compared to the other is typically less than 15 milliseconds.

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51. Averaging improves the signal to noise ratio by:

Explanation

Averaging improves the signal to noise ratio by the square root of the number of epochs averaged. This means that as the number of epochs averaged increases, the signal to noise ratio improves by the square root of that number. Averaging helps to reduce the random noise in the data and enhance the underlying signal, leading to a clearer and more accurate representation of the desired information.

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52. The N13 of the median nerve somatosensory evoked potential is generated in the

Explanation

The N13 of the median nerve somatosensory evoked potential is generated in the cervical spinal cord. This is because the N13 component represents the electrical activity generated when the sensory information from the median nerve reaches the cervical spinal cord. The brachial plexus is responsible for the transmission of the nerve signals from the upper limb to the spinal cord, but it is not where the N13 component is generated. The medial lemniscus is a pathway in the brainstem that carries sensory information to the thalamus, but it is not involved in the generation of the N13 component. The primary somatosensory cortex is responsible for processing sensory information, but it is not where the N13 component is generated.

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53. In order to improve signal to noise ratio, amplifier sensitivity is adjusted based on the number of averaging rejection.  What is the approximate percentage out of total number of stimulation to be rejected?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10%. When adjusting the amplifier sensitivity based on the number of averaging rejection, the goal is to improve the signal to noise ratio. This means that a certain percentage of the total number of stimulations will be rejected. In this case, the approximate percentage is 10%, indicating that 10% of the stimulations will be rejected in order to achieve the desired improvement in signal to noise ratio.

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54. Smaller surface of stimulating electrodes:

Explanation

A smaller surface area of stimulating electrodes results in a higher current density. This is because the same amount of current is being delivered through a smaller area, leading to a higher concentration of current. This can be beneficial in certain applications where a more focused or intense stimulation is desired.

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55. Accuracy of electrode placement is MOST critical for which type of response?

Explanation

The accuracy of electrode placement is most critical for near field responses. Near field responses refer to the electrical activity that is detected close to the site of stimulation or recording. In order to accurately measure and interpret these responses, the electrodes need to be placed precisely and in close proximity to the target area. Any slight deviation in electrode placement can lead to inaccurate recordings and misinterpretation of the results. Therefore, ensuring the accuracy of electrode placement is crucial for obtaining reliable and meaningful near field responses.

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56. Compared to electrode impedance, the input impedance of the amplifier should be

Explanation

The input impedance of the amplifier should be higher compared to electrode impedance because a higher input impedance ensures that the amplifier does not load or disturb the signal coming from the electrodes. It allows for better signal transfer and minimizes any distortion or loss of signal during amplification. A higher input impedance also helps in maintaining the accuracy and fidelity of the amplified signal.

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57. Subdermal electrodes

Explanation

Subdermal electrodes are placed beneath the skin and have a higher impedance compared to other types of electrodes. This higher impedance makes them more susceptible to noise interference, which can affect the accuracy of the recorded signals. Noise can be caused by various factors such as muscle activity or electromagnetic interference, and the high impedance of subdermal electrodes makes them more prone to picking up these unwanted signals.

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58. In the brainstem auditory evoked potential, which of the following is most likely to be associated with bilaterally prolonged I-III intervals?

Explanation

Neurofibromatosis is most likely to be associated with bilaterally prolonged I-III intervals in brainstem auditory evoked potential. This is because neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the growth and development of nerve cells, including those involved in auditory processing. The prolonged I-III intervals indicate a delay in the transmission of auditory signals from the ear to the brainstem, which is consistent with the neurological abnormalities seen in neurofibromatosis.

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59. Absence of all waveforms in a lower extremity somatosensory evoked potential is NOT caused by which of the following?

Explanation

The absence of all waveforms in a lower extremity somatosensory evoked potential can be caused by various factors such as technical problems, peripheral nerve lesions, and insufficient stimulation intensity. However, cortical lesions do not cause this absence of waveforms.

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60. In intraoperative monitoring of somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the folloiwng waves is LEAST affected by the anestheic agents?

Explanation

P14 is the least affected by anesthetic agents during intraoperative monitoring of somatosensory evoked potentials. This is because P14 is an early component of the evoked potentials and is generated in the primary somatosensory cortex. It is less influenced by the effects of anesthesia compared to the other waves, such as N27, N37, and P37, which may be more affected by the anesthetic agents.

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61. The decussation of the pyramids take place at what level?

Explanation

The decussation of the pyramids refers to the crossing over of nerve fibers in the medulla oblongata, which is located at the cervial medullary junction. This crossing over is important for the coordination of motor functions in the body. The other options, such as the pons, cerebellum, and diencephalon, are not specifically associated with the decussation of the pyramids.

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62. The cochlea generates what EP response?

Explanation

The cochlea generates the EcochG EP response.

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63. Wave I of the auditory evoked potential cannot appear before

Explanation

The correct answer is 1.4 msec because wave I of the auditory evoked potential is the earliest wave that can be detected in response to an auditory stimulus. It represents the activation of the auditory nerve fibers and occurs approximately 1.4 msec after the stimulus onset. Therefore, it cannot appear before this time.

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64. Positive Delay

Explanation

The correct answer is "Averaging starts after stimulus onset" because in order to average the responses to a stimulus, the averaging process needs to begin after the stimulus has been presented. If the averaging were to start before the stimulus onset, it would include unrelated or baseline activity, which would not accurately reflect the response to the stimulus. Therefore, it is necessary for the averaging to begin after the stimulus onset to capture the specific response to the stimulus.

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65. A W-shaped pattern reversal visual evoked potential may be resolved with

Explanation

Partial field stimulation is the correct answer because a W-shaped pattern reversal visual evoked potential (VEP) is typically indicative of a partial field defect. Partial field stimulation involves presenting visual stimuli to specific areas of the visual field, allowing for the detection and characterization of localized visual field defects. This technique can help identify the specific area of the visual field that is affected and provide valuable information for diagnosis and treatment planning. Electroretinography, flash stimulation, and steady state stimulation are not typically used to resolve a W-shaped pattern reversal VEP.

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66. In median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, central conduction time is measured between

Explanation

The central conduction time in median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials is measured between N13 and N20. This is because N13 represents the arrival of the sensory input at the lower medulla, while N20 represents the arrival of the sensory input at the cerebral cortex. By measuring the time between these two points, we can assess the conduction speed of the sensory signals along the median nerve pathway.

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67. The appropriate stimulus intensity of stimulating median nerve at the wrist for recording SEP is:

Explanation

The appropriate stimulus intensity for recording SEP (Somatosensory Evoked Potential) is just above the motor threshold. This means that the intensity should be slightly higher than the minimum level required to elicit a motor response. By setting the stimulus intensity just above the motor threshold, it ensures that the nerve is being adequately stimulated without causing excessive discomfort or pain to the individual. This allows for accurate recording of the somatosensory response without any interference from motor responses.

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68. When using collodion for electrode adhesion, one must be aware that:

Explanation

Collodion is a liquid adhesive commonly used in medical applications to secure electrodes to the scalp during electroencephalography (EEG) procedures. However, it does not provide a conducting material between the electrode and scalp. Collodion's primary function is to enhance the adhesion of the electrode to the skin, ensuring it stays in place during the procedure. To establish electrical conductivity, a conductive gel or paste is typically applied between the electrode and the scalp. Therefore, it is important to be aware that collodion alone does not facilitate the conduction of electrical signals between the electrode and the scalp.

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69. Which of the following physiological responses can be altered by reversal of the click polarity?

Explanation

Reversal of the click polarity can alter the cochlear microphonic. The cochlear microphonic is a small electrical potential generated by the hair cells in the cochlea in response to sound stimulation. Reversing the polarity of the click can change the direction of the electrical current flowing through the hair cells, which in turn can alter the amplitude and waveform of the cochlear microphonic response.

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70. Posterior Fossa

Explanation

The brain stem is the correct answer because the posterior fossa is a part of the skull that houses the brain stem. The brain stem is responsible for many vital functions such as controlling breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. It also serves as a pathway for nerve fibers traveling between the brain and spinal cord. The other options, knee, cauda equina, and temporal lobe, are not located in the posterior fossa.

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71. All components of brainstem auditory evoked potential waveforms reach adult configuratiion by what age?

Explanation

The brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP) waveforms refer to the electrical activity generated by the auditory nerve and brainstem in response to sound. The given answer, 3-6 months, suggests that all components of the BAEP waveforms reach their adult configuration by this age. This means that the auditory system in infants develops and matures during the first few months of life, and by 3-6 months, it resembles the patterns seen in adults. This is an important milestone in auditory development as it indicates the establishment of normal auditory functioning.

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72. Which of the folowing is the most sensitive setting?

Explanation

The most sensitive setting is 10 microvolts per division. This is because microvolts are smaller than millivolts, so a smaller change in voltage can be detected. Therefore, with a setting of 10 microvolts per division, the device will be able to detect and display smaller voltage changes compared to the other options.

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73. If the distance between a patient and a pattern generator is reduced by one-half, the angle at the eye subtended by each check is

Explanation

When the distance between a patient and a pattern generator is reduced by one-half, the angle at the eye subtended by each check is increased two times. This is because the angle subtended by an object at the eye is inversely proportional to the distance between the object and the eye. As the distance is reduced by half, the angle at the eye will be doubled.

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74. The latency-intensity function findings for this ear demonstrate

Explanation

The latency-intensity function findings for this ear suggest that there is conductive hearing loss. This means that there is a problem with the transmission of sound from the outer or middle ear to the inner ear. It could be caused by issues such as blockage, fluid in the middle ear, or problems with the bones of the middle ear. This type of hearing loss typically results in a decrease in the overall volume of sound.

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75. Amplitude of an evoked potential depends on which of the following physiiological actions in a sensory pathway?

Explanation

The amplitude of an evoked potential depends on the number of cortical or subcortical generators simultaneously activated. This means that the more generators that are activated at the same time, the larger the amplitude of the evoked potential will be. The other options, such as the velocity of neural impulses or the synchrony of neural impulses, do not directly affect the amplitude of the evoked potential. The number of normal neural generators sequentially excited may have an impact, but it is not the primary factor determining the amplitude.

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76. Where is the P100 waveform generated?

Explanation

The P100 waveform is generated in the striate cortex. The striate cortex, also known as the primary visual cortex or V1, is located in the occipital lobe of the brain. It is responsible for processing visual information received from the eyes. The P100 waveform refers to a positive deflection in the electroencephalogram (EEG) that occurs approximately 100 milliseconds after the onset of a visual stimulus. This waveform reflects the neural activity in the striate cortex, specifically the processing of early visual information such as basic features and orientation of objects.

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77. What is the most appropriate bandpass for pattern reversal visual evoked potentials?

Explanation

The most appropriate bandpass for pattern reversal visual evoked potentials is 1-200 Hz. This range allows for the detection of the specific frequencies associated with pattern reversal visual stimuli, while filtering out any unwanted frequencies that may interfere with the measurement.

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78. Blind Spot

Explanation

The optic disc is the correct answer because it is a part of the eye that does not contain any photoreceptor cells, making it a blind spot in our visual field. It is the area where the optic nerve exits the eye and connects to the brain, transmitting visual information. This area lacks the ability to detect light, resulting in a blind spot in our vision. The other options, such as lens, fovea, and macula, are all important structures in the eye but do not represent the blind spot.

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79. Resting Membrane Potential

Explanation

The resting membrane potential refers to the electrical potential difference across the cell membrane when the cell is at rest. This potential difference is maintained by the active transport of ions, particularly sodium and potassium ions, across the membrane. The value of -70mV indicates that the inside of the cell is negatively charged compared to the outside. This negative charge is essential for various cellular processes, including the transmission of nerve impulses and the regulation of ion channels.

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80. If a 4 ohm resistor and a 2 ohm resistor are wired in series across a 6 volt battery, what is the curernt across each resistor?

Explanation

When resistors are connected in series, the total resistance is the sum of the individual resistances. In this case, the total resistance is 4 ohms + 2 ohms = 6 ohms. According to Ohm's Law (V = I * R), the current (I) is equal to the voltage (V) divided by the resistance (R). Therefore, the current across each resistor is 6 volts / 6 ohms = 1 amp.

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81. When recording evoked potentials, which of the following filters does NOT produce a phase shift?

Explanation

Digital filters do not produce a phase shift. Unlike analog filters such as the 60Hz, notch, and passive RC filters, which can introduce a phase shift in the recorded evoked potentials, digital filters process the signal in the digital domain and do not alter the phase of the signal. Therefore, when recording evoked potentials, digital filters are preferred over analog filters to avoid any phase distortion in the recorded data.

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82. Stimulus rates higher than 20 per second may reduce amplitudes of all but the following BAEP peak:

Explanation

Stimulus rates higher than 20 per second may reduce amplitudes of all BAEP peaks except for peak V.

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83. The impedance of cup electrodes is:

Explanation

The impedance of cup electrodes is lower than needle electrodes because of their size. Cup electrodes have a larger surface area compared to needle electrodes, which allows for better contact with the skin and reduces the impedance. This larger surface area allows for more efficient electrical signal transmission, resulting in lower impedance.

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84. In a brainstem auditory evoked potential, decreaseing click intensity will result in

Explanation

In a brainstem auditory evoked potential, decreasing click intensity refers to reducing the loudness of the auditory stimulus. This decrease in intensity should not have any effect on the timing between the peaks or the intervals between them. Therefore, the interpeak intervals will remain unchanged.

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85. Which of the following symptoms is most closely correlated with somatosensory evoked potential abnormalities?

Explanation

Proprioception deficit is the most closely correlated symptom with somatosensory evoked potential abnormalities. Somatosensory evoked potentials (SEPs) are electrical signals generated by the nervous system in response to sensory stimuli. Proprioception refers to the sense of body position and movement, which is mediated by the somatosensory system. Abnormalities in SEPs can indicate dysfunction in the somatosensory pathways, leading to deficits in proprioception. Vertigo, tinnitus, and hemiparesis are not directly related to somatosensory processing, making proprioception deficit the most likely symptom associated with SEPs abnormalities.

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86. In selecting somatosensory electrical stimulation, the parameters causing most concern for patient safety are:

Explanation

Long pulse duration and high repetition rates are the parameters causing most concern for patient safety in somatosensory electrical stimulation. This is because long pulse durations can lead to tissue damage and discomfort for the patient, while high repetition rates can cause muscle fatigue and overstimulation. Therefore, it is important to carefully monitor and adjust these parameters to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient during the stimulation process.

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87. Wave V is usually the most prominent peak after

Explanation

Wave V is usually the most prominent peak after 5.5 msec. This suggests that there are other waves before Wave V that occur within the time frame of 4.7 msec to 5.5 msec. However, after 5.5 msec, there are no waves that are more prominent than Wave V.

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88. In posterior tibial nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, central conduction time is measured between

Explanation

The central conduction time in posterior tibial nerve somatosensory evoked potentials is measured between the L3 and P37 electrodes.

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89. The maximum leakage current should be

Explanation

The maximum leakage current should be 100 uA because it falls within the range of acceptable values for leakage current. Leakage current refers to the small amount of current that flows through an electrical device even when it is supposed to be in an off state. In this case, a maximum leakage current of 100 uA indicates that the device allows a small amount of current to flow, but it is still within the acceptable limits.

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90. Identification of wave V of the brainstem auditory evoked potential may require

Explanation

The identification of wave V of the brainstem auditory evoked potential may require decreasing stimulus intensity. This is because wave V is the last and largest wave in the evoked potential, and it represents the response from the brainstem. By decreasing the stimulus intensity, it becomes easier to isolate and identify the specific waveform associated with wave V. This allows for a more accurate assessment of the auditory pathway and can help diagnose any abnormalities or disorders.

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91.  The brainstem auditory evoked potentials of a patient with a conductive hearing loss will show which of the following?

Explanation

Conductive hearing loss is caused by a problem in the outer or middle ear that prevents sound from reaching the inner ear. Brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEPs) are used to assess the function of the auditory pathway from the ear to the brainstem. In a patient with conductive hearing loss, the problem lies in the outer or middle ear, and the auditory pathway up to the brainstem is unaffected. Therefore, the interpeak latencies, which represent the time it takes for the auditory signal to travel from one point in the pathway to another, will be normal.

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92. Which of the following is a partial paralysis of the lower extremities?

Explanation

Paraparesis refers to a partial paralysis of the lower extremities. It is characterized by weakness or loss of voluntary movement in the legs, but not a complete loss of function. This condition can be caused by various factors such as spinal cord injuries, nerve damage, or diseases affecting the motor system. Unlike paraplegia, which is a complete paralysis of the lower body, paraparesis allows for some degree of movement and sensation in the affected areas.

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93. The stimulus used in a brainstem auditory evoked potential study is a click with a peak acoustic power in the range of

Explanation

The stimulus used in a brainstem auditory evoked potential study is a click with a peak acoustic power in the range of 2000 to 4000 Hz. This range is chosen because it corresponds to the frequency range of human speech, which is important for assessing auditory processing and speech perception abilities. By using a stimulus in this frequency range, researchers can evaluate the brain's response to speech sounds and determine if there are any abnormalities or deficits in auditory processing.

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94. Pattern reversal visual evoked potential latencies are most significantly affected by

Explanation

The correct answer is patient age. Pattern reversal visual evoked potential (PRVEP) is a diagnostic test used to assess the function of the visual pathway. It measures the time it takes for the brain to process and respond to visual stimuli. Patient age can significantly affect the latency of PRVEP, with older individuals generally having longer latencies compared to younger individuals. This is due to age-related changes in the visual system, such as decreased retinal and neural function, which can lead to slower processing of visual information. Ambient light, ocular dominance, and refractive errors of less than 20/20 may have some impact on PRVEP latencies, but patient age is the most significant factor.

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95. The recommended somatosensory electrode derivation to best record the N13 response is

Explanation

The recommended somatosensory electrode derivation to best record the N13 response is C5s-Epc. This is because the N13 response is a somatosensory evoked potential that originates from the contralateral primary somatosensory cortex. Therefore, the electrode placement should be on the contralateral side (C5s) to the stimulation site, which is typically the median nerve. The reference electrode (Epc) is commonly placed on the earlobe or mastoid. This configuration allows for optimal recording of the N13 response.

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96. Using an amplification factor of 500,000, a 1uV brainstem auditory evoked potential waveform will be amplified to

Explanation

An amplification factor of 500,000 means that the input signal is multiplied by 500,000. Therefore, a 1uV brainstem auditory evoked potential waveform will be amplified to 500,000 * 1uV = 500,000uV = 0.50V.

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97. In a pattern reversal visual evoked potential, which of the following would be the most appropriate check size in minutes of arc to stimulate the fovea?

Explanation

A pattern reversal visual evoked potential is a test used to measure the electrical activity in the brain in response to visual stimuli. The fovea is the central part of the retina responsible for sharp, central vision. In order to stimulate the fovea effectively, a check size that is not too small or too large should be used. A check size of 15 minutes of arc would be the most appropriate because it is neither too small nor too large, allowing for optimal stimulation of the fovea.

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98. Which of the following is the usual polarity convention for recording a brainstem auditory evoked potential?

Explanation

The correct answer states that positivity at the vertex produces a downward deflection. This means that when there is a positive electrical signal at the vertex (the top of the head), it will result in a downward deflection on the recording. This polarity convention is commonly used when recording brainstem auditory evoked potentials, where changes in electrical activity in response to auditory stimuli are measured.

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99. If a signal averager samples every millisecond, what is the theoretical maximum frequency resolution?

Explanation

The theoretical maximum frequency resolution is determined by the Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem, which states that in order to accurately represent a signal, the sampling rate should be at least twice the highest frequency component of the signal. In this case, if the signal averager samples every millisecond, the sampling rate is 1000 samples per second. According to the Nyquist-Shannon theorem, the theoretical maximum frequency resolution would be half of the sampling rate, which is 500 Hz.

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100. What is the approximate amplitude resolution of a 10-bit digitizer witha range of plus or minus 5 uv?

Explanation

The approximate amplitude resolution of a 10-bit digitizer can be calculated by dividing the total range of the digitizer (plus or minus 5uV) by the number of possible values (2^10). Therefore, the approximate amplitude resolution would be 10uV / 1024 = 0.01uV.

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101. Which of the following conditions is most likely shown in the diagram?

Explanation

The most likely condition shown in the diagram is chronic otitis media. This is because chronic otitis media is an inflammation or infection of the middle ear that can cause fluid accumulation and damage to the structures of the ear. The diagram may show signs such as fluid-filled middle ear, thickening of the eardrum, or other characteristic findings associated with chronic otitis media. Pontine glioma, midbrain infarct, and acoustic neuroma are unrelated conditions and would not typically present with the findings seen in the diagram.

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102. If the fastest component of a complex waveform is near 100Hz, which of the following is the most appropriate dwell time?

Explanation

The fastest component of a complex waveform is near 100Hz, which means that the waveform has a frequency of 100Hz. Dwell time refers to the amount of time spent at each data point in a waveform. In order to accurately capture the fastest component of the waveform, the dwell time should be less than or equal to the period of the waveform. The period of a waveform with a frequency of 100Hz is 1/100 seconds, which is equal to 10 milliseconds. Therefore, the most appropriate dwell time would be 5 milliseconds, as it is less than the period of the waveform.

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103. If an evoked potential has a voltage of 10uV and the associated noise has a voltage of 50uV, what is the signal to noise ratio after 100 averaged responses?

Explanation

The signal to noise ratio is a measure of the strength of the desired signal compared to the background noise. In this case, the signal has a voltage of 10uV and the noise has a voltage of 50uV. To calculate the signal to noise ratio after 100 averaged responses, we need to consider the effect of averaging on the noise. Averaging multiple responses can help reduce the effect of random noise, resulting in a higher signal to noise ratio. Therefore, after 100 averaged responses, the signal to noise ratio would be improved, resulting in a ratio of either 2:1 or 5:1.

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An electrode recording from Erb's point is placed
If there is a 60Hz interference in all channels when recording median...
In what age group do early symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually...
Which of the following is an effect of temperature on somatosensory...
Voltage information is changed into numerical values for averaging by...
In which of the following is the sampling rate of an averager at least...
 Near Field
In the central nervous system, a myelin sheath forms around the
Clavicular, cervical and scalp sites are commonly used for recording
Which of the following cranial nerves is most at risk during acoustic...
Somatosensory Evoked Potential
Which of the following refers to the phenomenon of fast frequency...
For posterior tibial somatosensory evoked potentials, which of the...
Delayed absolute latencies of brainstem auditory evoked potentials...
Motor Threshold
Improper recording techniques can:
Afferent Nerves
Which of the following is a key factor in the common mode rejection...
Masking is recommended to eliminate
In which of the following conditions is the P100 of the pattern...
Which of the following is determined by adding values and dividing by...
The troubleshooting method to best determine the source of a...
Paresthesia
Which of the following cranial nerves is purely sensory?
Which of the following results from averaging an evoked potential?
What is the typical MINIMUM common mode rejction ratio of in-phase...
The recommended amplitude resolution of the analog to digital...
Which of the following is the time from the beginning to the end of...
Essential for reducing stimulus artifact and for patient safety:
Which of the following would best enhance resolution of evoked...
Using the International 10-20 electrode placements, if the measurement...
Which of the following is the primary reason for performing...
Which of the folowing is involved in the visual system?
Which of the following waveforms is elicited by a subject attending to...
BAEPs are relatively independent of
A patient with a left homonymous hemianopsia most likely has a lesion...
Compared to surface electrodes, needle recording electrodes tend to...
Accurate electrode placment of CP4 is most critical for simulaton...
Which of the following is characteristic of alternating click...
The nucleus of an atom contains
The long latency auditory EP, also called the cognitive EP or oddball...
If the trials are not reproducible
The number of recording channels for full-field VEP should be
What is the equation for calculating visual angle in minutes of arc?
What type of responses are subcortical evoked potentials?
Which obligate peak of an MNSEP can vary in latency with level of...
What effect on P100 does a decrease in screen luminance have?
If the volrage in a circuit is 400 volts and the resistance is 50...
Which of the following most likely results in increased firing of a...
Which of the following is the normal interocular latency difference of...
Averaging improves the signal to noise ratio by:
The N13 of the median nerve somatosensory evoked potential is...
In order to improve signal to noise ratio, amplifier sensitivity is...
Smaller surface of stimulating electrodes:
Accuracy of electrode placement is MOST critical for which type of...
Compared to electrode impedance, the input impedance of the amplifier...
Subdermal electrodes
In the brainstem auditory evoked potential, which of the following is...
Absence of all waveforms in a lower extremity somatosensory evoked...
In intraoperative monitoring of somatosensory evoked potentials, which...
The decussation of the pyramids take place at what level?
The cochlea generates what EP response?
Wave I of the auditory evoked potential cannot appear before
Positive Delay
A W-shaped pattern reversal visual evoked potential may be resolved...
In median nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, central conduction...
The appropriate stimulus intensity of stimulating median nerve at the...
When using collodion for electrode adhesion, one must be aware that:
Which of the following physiological responses can be altered by...
Posterior Fossa
All components of brainstem auditory evoked potential waveforms reach...
Which of the folowing is the most sensitive setting?
If the distance between a patient and a pattern generator is reduced...
The latency-intensity function findings for this ear demonstrate
Amplitude of an evoked potential depends on which of the following...
Where is the P100 waveform generated?
What is the most appropriate bandpass for pattern reversal visual...
Blind Spot
Resting Membrane Potential
If a 4 ohm resistor and a 2 ohm resistor are wired in series across a...
When recording evoked potentials, which of the following filters does...
Stimulus rates higher than 20 per second may reduce amplitudes of all...
The impedance of cup electrodes is:
In a brainstem auditory evoked potential, decreaseing click intensity...
Which of the following symptoms is most closely correlated with...
In selecting somatosensory electrical stimulation, the parameters...
Wave V is usually the most prominent peak after
In posterior tibial nerve somatosensory evoked potentials, central...
The maximum leakage current should be
Identification of wave V of the brainstem auditory evoked...
 The brainstem auditory evoked potentials of a patient with a...
Which of the following is a partial paralysis of the lower...
The stimulus used in a brainstem auditory evoked potential study is a...
Pattern reversal visual evoked potential latencies are most...
The recommended somatosensory electrode derivation to best record the...
Using an amplification factor of 500,000, a 1uV brainstem auditory...
In a pattern reversal visual evoked potential, which of the following...
Which of the following is the usual polarity convention for recording...
If a signal averager samples every millisecond, what is the...
What is the approximate amplitude resolution of a 10-bit digitizer...
Which of the following conditions is most likely shown in the diagram?
If the fastest component of a complex waveform is near 100Hz, which of...
If an evoked potential has a voltage of 10uV and the associated...
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