EOC 2S051 Expeditionary Logistics

123 Questions | Total Attempts: 674

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EOC 2S051 Expeditionary Logistics

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      A. Providing support to maintenance activities.

    • B. 

      B. Researching and identifying materiel requirements.

    • C. 

      C. Performing materiel management systems control functions.

    • D. 

      D. Preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.

  • 2. 
    To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service?
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      13

    • D. 

      11

  • 3. 
    Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
    • A. 

      A. Effect One: Enterprise View

    • B. 

      B. Effect Two: Integrated Processes

    • C. 

      C. Effect Three: Optimized Resources

    • D. 

      D. Effect Four: Integrated Technology

  • 4. 
    In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?
    • A. 

      A. financial

    • B. 

      B. acquisition

    • C. 

      C. technology

    • D. 

      D. infrastructure

  • 5. 
    What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system?
    • A. 

      A. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    • B. 

      B. General Services Administration (GSA)

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

    • D. 

      D. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

  • 6. 
    Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items used by all of the military services and some of the civilian agencies?
    • A. 

      A. Local manufacturers.

    • B. 

      B. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    • C. 

      C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

    • D. 

      D. General Services Administration (GSA)

  • 7. 
    Which class of supply includes weapon?
    • A. 

      A. II

    • B. 

      B. IV

    • C. 

      C. VI

    • D. 

      D. VIII

  • 8. 
    Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
    • A. 

      A. III

    • B. 

      B. V

    • C. 

      C. VII

    • D. 

      D. IX

  • 9. 
    What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks?
    • A. 

      A. Readiness

    • B. 

      B. Traffic management

    • C. 

      C. Material management

    • D. 

      D. Management and systems

  • 10. 
    Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance?
    • A. 

      A. Management and systems

    • B. 

      B. Command section

    • C. 

      C. Mission readiness

    • D. 

      D. Sustainment

  • 11. 
    Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in SBSS?
    • A. 

      A. Administration

    • B. 

      B. Item accounting

    • C. 

      C. File maintenance

    • D. 

      D. Accounting and finance

  • 12. 
    Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
    • A. 

      A. Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG)

    • B. 

      B. Miscellaneous file maintenance

    • C. 

      C. Follow-up

    • D. 

      D. Status

  • 13. 
    How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system?
    • A. 

      A. Five

    • B. 

      B. Six

    • C. 

      C. Seven

    • D. 

      D. Eight

  • 14. 
    What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?
    • A. 

      A. Part

    • B. 

      B. Section

    • C. 

      C. Volume

    • D. 

      D. Paragraph

  • 15. 
    How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?
    • A. 

      A. 0223

    • B. 

      B. 02023

    • C. 

      C. 020203

    • D. 

      D. 0202030

  • 16. 
    What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in SBSS to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
    • A. 

      A. C

    • B. 

      B. D

    • C. 

      C. F

    • D. 

      D. R

  • 17. 
    Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?
    • A. 

      A. Stock number

    • B. 

      B. Transaction serial number

    • C. 

      C. Batch miscellaneous option

    • D. 

      D. Batch transaction date and serial number

  • 18. 
    Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?
    • A. 

      A. Abbreviated format (Option A)

    • B. 

      B. Short format (Option B)

    • C. 

      C. Short format (Option S)

    • D. 

      D. Long format (Option L)

  • 19. 
    The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the
    • A. 

      A. calc key.

    • B. 

      B. area key.

    • C. 

      C. trace key.

    • D. 

      D. record key.

  • 20. 
    Which term indicates that any update the SBSS application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone?
    • A. 

      A. Rollback (RB) code

    • B. 

      B. Error function

    • C. 

      C. RB function

    • D. 

      D. Error code

  • 21. 
    Who reviews part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security Violation List?
    • A. 

      A. Management and systems officer

    • B. 

      B. Computer operations supervisor

    • C. 

      C. Individual flight chief

    • D. 

      D. Accountable officer

  • 22. 
     Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listing must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF FORM 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or
    • A. 

      A. A flight request.

    • B. 

      B. A job order number.

    • C. 

      C. A cumulative reject.

    • D. 

      D. An approved supplement

  • 23. 
    Which functional area is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings?
    • A. 

      A. Flight line services

    • B. 

      B. Computer operations

    • C. 

      C. Procedures and analysis

    • D. 

      D. Management and systems

  • 24. 
    Who establishes a supply management activity group?
    • A. 

      A. Office of Management and Budget

    • B. 

      B. Secretary of the Air Force

    • C. 

      C. Secretary of Defense

    • D. 

      D. Congress

  • 25. 
     The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions?
    • A. 

      A. Four

    • B. 

      B. Five

    • C. 

      C. Six

    • D. 

      D. Seven

  • 26. 
    How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit?
    • A. 

      A. As required

    • B. 

      B. Quarterly

    • C. 

      C. Semiannually

    • D. 

      D. Annually

  • 27. 
    When the SBSS computer does not process of update transactions a it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?
    • A. 

      A. AF Form 1810

    • B. 

      B. AF Form 1815

    • C. 

      C. AF Form 1820

    • D. 

      D. AF Form 1825

  • 28. 
    Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the materiel management analysis element?
    • A. 

      A. Branch chief

    • B. 

      B. Training personnel

    • C. 

      C. Analysis supervisor

    • D. 

      D. Accountable officer

  • 29. 
    What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment of non-directed transfer to DRMO?
    • A. 

      A. Four

    • B. 

      B. Five

    • C. 

      C. Six

    • D. 

      D. Seven

  • 30. 
    How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property?
    • A. 

      A. Monthly

    • B. 

      B. Quarterly

    • C. 

      C. Semiannually

    • D. 

      D. Annually

  • 31. 
    What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?
    • A. 

      A. TRICs FIC and FCU

    • B. 

      B. Source documents with file indicator D

    • C. 

      C. TRIC FCU

    • D. 

      D. TRIC FIC

  • 32. 
     What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?
    • A. 

      A. Daily Transaction (D06)

    • B. 

      B. Daily Document Control (D04)

    • C. 

      C. Consolidated Transaction (M19)

    • D. 

      D. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (M10)

  • 33. 
     All shipments and transfers processed through the LRS produce what type of detail?
    • A. 

      A. Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares

    • B. 

      B. Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)

    • C. 

      C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)

    • D. 

      D. Shipment inventory

  • 34. 
    What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
    • A. 

      A. R04

    • B. 

      B. R23

    • C. 

      C. R40

    • D. 

      D. R43

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      A. An organizational refusal when the wrong property was issued and signed for, and later returned to base supply

    • B. 

      B. Funding error in which the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater

    • C. 

      C. A registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only detail

    • D. 

      D. A budget code 9 item processed in the previous year

  • 36. 
    What is the TRIC for an automated reverse-post transaction?
    • A. 

      A. 1AM

    • B. 

      B. 1CC

    • C. 

      C. 1TK

    • D. 

      D. 1WC

  • 37. 
    What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?
    • A. 

      A. transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code

    • B. 

      B. transaction serial number, quantity, and date

    • C. 

      C. transaction serial number, TTPC, and date

    • D. 

      D. quantity, TTPC, and date

  • 38. 
    Which code on an issue request is used by the SBSS to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?
    • A. 

      A. system designator

    • B. 

      B. issue exception code

    • C. 

      C. transaction exception code

    • D. 

      D. transaction identification code

  • 39. 
    Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?
    • A. 

      A. I004

    • B. 

      B. I005

    • C. 

      C. I007

    • D. 

      D. I023

  • 40. 
    An I007 management notice will be produced when a
    • A. 

      A. stock number request cannot be converted to a part number.

    • B. 

      B. stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers

    • C. 

      C. part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control.

    • D. 

      D. part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control.

  • 41. 
     Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item?
    • A. 

      A. I004

    • B. 

      B. I005

    • C. 

      C. I007

    • D. 

      D. I023

  • 42. 
    What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document?
    • A. 

      A. X

    • B. 

      B. R

    • C. 

      C. J

    • D. 

      D. C

  • 43. 
    What SBSS output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status?
    • A. 

      A. DUO

    • B. 

      B. 1SH

    • C. 

      C. ISU

    • D. 

      D. CSU

  • 44. 
    What mission capability flag on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out?
    • A. 

      A. N

    • B. 

      B. M

    • C. 

      C. F

    • D. 

      D. D

  • 45. 
    What core automated maintenance system data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement?
    • A. 

      A. I023

    • B. 

      B. 1SH

    • C. 

      C. 233

    • D. 

      D. 731

  • 46. 
    Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability termination?
    • A. 

      A. 30

    • B. 

      B. 45

    • C. 

      C. 60

    • D. 

      D. 90

  • 47. 
    What mission capability asset sourcing system product provides a daily cleanup of the system’s data base?
    • A. 

      A. E10

    • B. 

      B. E20

    • C. 

      C. E30

    • D. 

      D. E40

  • 48. 
    What mission capability asset sourcing system/SBSS report provides the current daily status of all mission capability incidents?
    • A. 

      A. E10

    • B. 

      B. E20

    • C. 

      C. E30

    • D. 

      D. E40

  • 49. 
    Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item?
    • A. 

      A. file status record

    • B. 

      B. DIFM detail record

    • C. 

      C. repair cycle record

    • D. 

      D. supply point detail record

  • 50. 
    Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to maintenance?
    • A. 

      A. credit

    • B. 

      B. firm

    • C. 

      C. issue

    • D. 

      D. memo

  • 51. 
    Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation?
    • A. 

      A. D19

    • B. 

      B. D20

    • C. 

      C. D23

    • D. 

      D. Q04

  • 52. 
    How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation?
    • A. 

      A. One

    • B. 

      B. Two

    • C. 

      C. Three

    • D. 

      D. Four

  • 53. 
    Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level repair?
    • A. 

      A. F

    • B. 

      B. 1

    • C. 

      C. 8

    • D. 

      D. A

  • 54. 
    Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by
    • A. 

      A. GSA

    • B. 

      B. DLA

    • C. 

      C. CASO

    • D. 

      D. HQ AFMC

  • 55. 
    For long-term deployments, what input transfers accountability of selected equipment items?
    • A. 

      A. 1ED/FME

    • B. 

      B. 1ET/FME

    • C. 

      C. 1EB/1UB

    • D. 

      D. FKD/1WD

  • 56. 
    Mobility readiness spares package assets are designed to allow support of a weapon system in a deployed location for how many days before resupply is necessary?
    • A. 

      A. 30

    • B. 

      B. 60

    • C. 

      C. 90

    • D. 

      D. 120

  • 57. 
    What program is used to perform the readiness spares package reconciliation?
    • A. 

      A. Q05

    • B. 

      B. S05

    • C. 

      C. R07

    • D. 

      D. S07

  • 58. 
    What TRIC is used to issue assets from a MRSP to the user?
    • A. 

      A. ISU

    • B. 

      B. MSI

    • C. 

      C. 1EB

    • D. 

      D. 1UB

  • 59. 
    Who selects the method for document distribution and creation?
    • A. 

      A. team chief

    • B. 

      B. ELRS commander

    • C. 

      C. accountable officer

    • D. 

      D. person creating the document

  • 60. 
    What section stores small arms for mobility use?
    • A. 

      A. Mobility

    • B. 

      B. Readiness

    • C. 

      C. War Readiness

    • D. 

      D. Security Forces

  • 61. 
    What personal computer based program is used to manage mobility bags?
    • A. 

      A. COMPES

    • B. 

      B. DMAS

    • C. 

      C. MICAS

    • D. 

      D. WSMIS

  • 62. 
    Who must mutually agree on the selection of property custodians?
    • A. 

      A. EME and organizational commander

    • B. 

      B. organizational commanders and previous custodian

    • C. 

      C. accountable officer and organizational commanders

    • D. 

      D. previous custodian and equipment management element

  • 63. 
    Which program serves as the primary basis for organizational equipment budget and buy programs?
    • A. 

      A. Stock Fund Operating Program

    • B. 

      B. Equipment Management Element

    • C. 

      C. Capital and Inventory Control Program

    • D. 

      D. Air Force Equipment Management System

  • 64. 
    Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator for an equipment item?
    • A. 

      A. allowance source

    • B. 

      B. excess exception

    • C. 

      C. shipment exception

    • D. 

      D. equipment management

  • 65. 
    Non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins are processed using what activity code?
    • A. 

      A. E

    • B. 

      B. P

    • C. 

      C. R

    • D. 

      D. X

  • 66. 
    Which listing is used to provide visibility of high dollar value non-equipment authorization inventory data items?
    • A. 

      A. Q09, Allowance Source Code Listing

    • B. 

      B. R15, Organizational Visibility List

    • C. 

      C. Q10, Equipment-out-of-balance Listing

    • D. 

      D. R14. Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing

  • 67. 
    How often are CA/CRL jacket files verified to ensure that a current one is on file and signed by the appointed custodian?
    • A. 

      A. annually

    • B. 

      B. semiannually

    • C. 

      C. quarterly

    • D. 

      D. monthly

  • 68. 
    Which TRIC is used to load, change, or delete a special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance detail?
    • A. 

      A. 1BS

    • B. 

      B. 1XA

    • C. 

      C. 1UB

    • D. 

      D. 1WD

  • 69. 
    Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for those organizations authorized special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance assets?
    • A. 

      A. D04

    • B. 

      B. M10

    • C. 

      C. R25

    • D. 

      D. R43

  • 70. 
    What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level?
    • A. 

      A. 86

    • B. 

      B. 1991

    • C. 

      C. 1996

    • D. 

      D. 2005

  • 71. 
    Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail and activity code?
    • A. 

      A. type detail L, activity code A

    • B. 

      B. type detail L, activity code B

    • C. 

      C. type detail C, activity code A

    • D. 

      D. type detail C, activity code B

  • 72. 
    What TEX code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?
    • A. 

      A. P

    • B. 

      B. Q

    • C. 

      C. R

    • D. 

      D. Z

  • 73. 
    The following factors are involved in the due-out release sequence: FAD, UJC, project code and
    • A. 

      A. receipt processing date.

    • B. 

      B. receipt and requisitioning date.

    • C. 

      C. requisition number date.

    • D. 

      D. document number date.

  • 74. 
    What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group information?
    • A. 

      A. D143B

    • B. 

      B. D043B

    • C. 

      C. D071

    • D. 

      D. C001

  • 75. 
    Which accountable receipt document may list more than one item and document number?
    • A. 

      A. DD Form 250

    • B. 

      B. Bill of Lading

    • C. 

      C. DD Form 1348-1A

    • D. 

      D. Property Identification label

  • 76. 
    Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is
    • A. 

      A. reset

    • B. 

      B. deleted

    • C. 

      C. updated

    • D. 

      D. suspended

  • 77. 
    What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial receipt?
    • A. 

      A. F

    • B. 

      B. P

    • C. 

      C. R

    • D. 

      D. Y

  • 78. 
    Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?
    • A. 

      A. item manager

    • B. 

      B. maintenance

    • C. 

      C. in-checker

    • D. 

      D. inspector

  • 79. 
    The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or intended purpose is
    • A. 

      A. ERRC

    • B. 

      B. status

    • C. 

      C. identity

    • D. 

      D. condition

  • 80. 
    What three things are used to identify an item?
    • A. 

      A. reference number, part number, stock number

    • B. 

      B. stock number, nomenclature, item description

    • C. 

      C. stock number, item description, specifications

    • D. 

      D. reference number, stock number, item description

  • 81. 
    Which DD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?
    • A. 

      A. DD Form 1576

    • B. 

      B. DD Form 1577

    • C. 

      C. DD Form 1577-2

    • D. 

      D. DD Form 1577-3

  • 82. 
    What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032?
    • A. 

      A. updates inspection data

    • B. 

      B. identifies condemned items

    • C. 

      C. identifies property turned over to maintenance

    • D. 

      D. identifies property in stock that has been suspended

  • 83. 
    When deficiencies are noted during scheduled warehouse surveillance, the inspector does a follow-up inspection within how many days?
    • A. 

      A. 2

    • B. 

      B. 5

    • C. 

      C. 7

    • D. 

      D. 10

  • 84. 
    When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?
    • A. 

      A. 12 hours

    • B. 

      B. 24 hours

    • C. 

      C. 30 workdays

    • D. 

      D. 45 calendar days

  • 85. 
    Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming supply discrepancy reports?
    • A. 

      A. receiving

    • B. 

      B. inspection

    • C. 

      C. procedures

    • D. 

      D. stock control

  • 86. 
    The central locator listing is maintained for how many days after a new directory is received?
    • A. 

      A. 10

    • B. 

      B. 20

    • C. 

      C. 30

    • D. 

      D. 45

  • 87. 
    The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory?
    • A. 

      A. 3

    • B. 

      B. 7

    • C. 

      C. 10

    • D. 

      D. 14

  • 88. 
    How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter sent to the computer operations section for processing?
    • A. 

      A. 1

    • B. 

      B. 3

    • C. 

      C. 5

    • D. 

      D. 7

  • 89. 
    Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?
    • A. 

      A. wrong part is delivered to a customer

    • B. 

      B. item in stock requires a supply deficiency report

    • C. 

      C. inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero

    • D. 

      D. quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient

  • 90. 
    Which IEX codes identify health hazard items?
    • A. 

      A. 3, 6, N

    • B. 

      B. E, F, 7

    • C. 

      C. 8, 9, M

    • D. 

      D. H, G, 8

  • 91. 
    How long is the locally developed checklist used to conduct inspections of chemical containers maintained?
    • A. 

      A. 1 month

    • B. 

      B. 6 months

    • C. 

      C. 1 year

    • D. 

      D. 2 years

  • 92. 
    In what class of storage vault will secret and confidential materiel be stored?
    • A. 

      A. A

    • B. 

      B. B

    • C. 

      C. C

    • D. 

      D. D

  • 93. 
    What materiel management CIC identifies precious metals?
    • A. 

      A. J

    • B. 

      B. N

    • C. 

      C. Q

    • D. 

      D. R

  • 94. 
    Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf-life asset to maintenance?
    • A. 

      A. FCC

    • B. 

      B. ISU

    • C. 

      C. MSI

    • D. 

      D. TIN

  • 95. 
    What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record?
    • A. 

      A. FCC with suspect flag F

    • B. 

      B. FCD with suspect flag F

    • C. 

      C. FCC with suspect flag S

    • D. 

      D. FCD with suspect flag S

  • 96. 
    What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail?
    • A. 

      A. I301

    • B. 

      B. I103

    • C. 

      C. I302

    • D. 

      D. I203

  • 97. 
    What computer input is used to load a time compliance technical order (TCTO) flag?
    • A. 

      A. FCU

    • B. 

      B. FCI

    • C. 

      C. FCC

    • D. 

      D. FCD

  • 98. 
    How are warranty or guaranty items identified on the item record?
    • A. 

      A. IEX code B

    • B. 

      B. IEX code W

    • C. 

      C. type cargo code B

    • D. 

      D. type cargo code W

  • 99. 
    Which materiel management listing is reviewed by inventory to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed?
    • A. 

      A. Stock Fund Due-out Report

    • B. 

      B. Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      C. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Register

    • D. 

      D. Daily PFMR/OCCR Update and Reconciliation

  • 100. 
    What is the maximum number of equipment accounts that may be requested for inventory count with one input parameter request?
    • A. 

      A. 5

    • B. 

      B. 10

    • C. 

      C. 15

    • D. 

      D. 20

  • 101. 
    What does the input parameter request for an in-use/in-place equipment inventory generate?
    • A. 

      A. CA/CRL and equipment labels

    • B. 

      B. CA/CRL and parameter inputs

    • C. 

      C. bin notices and CA/CRL

    • D. 

      D. labels and bin notices

  • 102. 
    To indicate that additional research is needed, the inventory recount image contains a research indicator of
    • A. 

      A. AC

    • B. 

      B. AR

    • C. 

      C. AT

    • D. 

      D. AZ

  • 103. 
    When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned IEX
    • A. 

      A. J.

    • B. 

      B. K.

    • C. 

      C. M.

    • D. 

      D. N.

  • 104. 
    Bench stock items are recommended for deletion during the semiannual review if the date of last demand is greater than how many days?
    • A. 

      A. 120

    • B. 

      B. 180

    • C. 

      C. 270

    • D. 

      D. 360

  • 105. 
    The most efficient way to determine requirements for adding, changing, or deleting bench stock authorizations is to process the
    • A. 

      A. M04

    • B. 

      B. R12

    • C. 

      C. R26

    • D. 

      D. S04

  • 106. 
    Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a storage aids system?
    • A. 

      A. conveyors

    • B. 

      B. affixed cranes

    • C. 

      C. overhead trolleys

    • D. 

      D. general-purpose shelves

  • 107. 
    How many individual options does SATS have built-in within the reports list?
    • A. 

      A. 10

    • B. 

      B. 15

    • C. 

      C. 20

    • D. 

      D. 25

  • 108. 
    What are tracked in SATS while an item is in route to its warehouse location or delivery destination?
    • A. 

      A. no warehouse locations

    • B. 

      B. assigned locations

    • C. 

      C. temporary locations

    • D. 

      D. permanent locations

  • 109. 
    Which of these actions does not occur when scanning receipts through SATS?
    • A. 

      A. clears the REC document from SATS

    • B. 

      B. greatly reduces Document Control workload

    • C. 

      C. clears the REC document control record from the SBSS

    • D. 

      D. eliminates the sending of a hardcopy to Document Control

  • 110. 
    What report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets?
    • A. 

      A. Items Pulled

    • B. 

      B. Items Not Pulled

    • C. 

      C. Items Received by Customer

    • D. 

      D. Items Not Received by Customer

  • 111. 
    Software release information is provided using which AF form?
    • A. 

      A. 633

    • B. 

      B. 636

    • C. 

      C. 366

    • D. 

      D. 363

  • 112. 
    What type of join is based on a one-to-one or one-to-many relationship?
    • A. 

      A. inner

    • B. 

      B. outer

    • C. 

      C. cross

    • D. 

      D. multiple

  • 113. 
    Which worksheet item enables you to summarize rows and columns quickly and easily?
    • A. 

      A. sorts

    • B. 

      B. totals

    • C. 

      C. parameters

    • D. 

      D. calculations

  • 114. 
    What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, redistribution, forecasting, and other management decisions?
    • A. 

      A. Oracle Discoverer Plus

    • B. 

      B. Enterprise Solution-Supply

    • C. 

      C. SATS

    • D. 

      D. Weapon System Management Information System

  • 115. 
    One of the primary functions that ES-S offers is the ability to
    • A. 

      A. update orders in the SATS.

    • B. 

      B. migrate orders into the WSMIS.

    • C. 

      C. transfer orders into Discoverer.

    • D. 

      D. input orders into the legacy SBSS.

  • 116. 
    ES-S provides the capability to query and view orders in what three legacy systems?
    • A. 

      A. D043, SATS, SBSS

    • B. 

      B. D035A, SATS, SBSS

    • C. 

      C. SBSS, D035A, D035K

    • D. 

      D. D035A, D035K, D043

  • 117. 
    In ES-S, the Order Selection Page is divided into what three sections?
    • A. 

      A. Basic Selection Criteria, Additional Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • B. 

      B. Required Selection Criteria, Optional Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • C. 

      C. Order Selection Criteria, Supplement Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • D. 

      D. Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

  • 118. 
    The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information efficiently for what types of audits?
    • A. 

      A. single and multiple

    • B. 

      B. internal and external

    • C. 

      C. issue and requisition

    • D. 

      D. SBSS and SATS

  • 119. 
    The core of asset management is the
    • A. 

      A. TRACKER.

    • B. 

      B. Stock Control System.

    • C. 

      C. Recoverable Assembly Process.

    • D. 

      D. Recoverable Consumption Items Requisitions System – D041

  • 120. 
    What automated system’s purpose is to maintain visibility of AF owned recoverable assets and levels by reporting worldwide location?
    • A. 

      A. Recoverable Consumption Items Requisitions System

    • B. 

      B. Recoverable Item Input Validation System

    • C. 

      C. Recoverable Assembly Process

    • D. 

      D. Recoverable Item Simulation Capability

  • 121. 
    What system provides real-time access to transactional information that has passed through the Defense Automated Addressing System?
    • A. 

      A. Web Customer Account Tracking System

    • B. 

      B. Logistics Performance Assessment System

    • C. 

      C. Dyna-Metric Microcomputer Analysis System

    • D. 

      D. Visual Logistics Information Processing System

  • 122. 
    What has the capability to support multiple full SBSS accounts?
    • A. 

      A. LSC

    • B. 

      B. DECCs

    • C. 

      C. HQ SSG

    • D. 

      D. OSSG

  • 123. 
    The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?
    • A. 

      A. 24

    • B. 

      B. 36

    • C. 

      C. 48

    • D. 

      D. 72