EOC 2S051 Expeditionary Logistics

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  • 1/123 Questions

    What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

    • A. Part
    • B. Section
    • C. Volume
    • D. Paragraph
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Expeditionary Logistics, focusing on roles, programs, and the impact of logistics decisions in the Air Force. It includes eligibility criteria for logistics programs and responsibilities of various logistics agencies.

EOC 2S051 Expeditionary Logistics - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?

    • A. TRICs FIC and FCU

    • B. Source documents with file indicator D

    • C. TRIC FCU

    • D. TRIC FIC

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Source documents with file indicator D
    Explanation
    Source documents with file indicator D are not placed in a permanent document file.

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  • 3. 

    Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

    • A. Effect One: Enterprise View

    • B. Effect Two: Integrated Processes

    • C. Effect Three: Optimized Resources

    • D. Effect Four: Integrated Technology

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Effect One: Enterprise View
    Explanation
    The correct answer, Effect One: Enterprise View, ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. This means that logistics operations are viewed and managed from a holistic perspective, considering the needs and requirements of the entire organization rather than just individual units or departments. This approach allows for better coordination, collaboration, and resource allocation, resulting in more effective and efficient logistics operations.

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  • 4. 

    How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

    • A. 0223

    • B. 02023

    • C. 020203

    • D. 0202030

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 020203
    Explanation
    In a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 would be identified as "020203". This is because the file name format follows a pattern where each digit represents a different level of hierarchy in the document's organization. The first two digits represent the volume, the next two digits represent the part, and the last two digits represent the chapter. Therefore, "02" represents Volume 2, "02" represents Part 2, and "03" represents Chapter 3.

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  • 5. 

    What is the TRIC for an automated reverse-post transaction?

    • A. 1AM

    • B. 1CC

    • C. 1TK

    • D. 1WC

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1AM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. 1AM. The TRIC (Transaction Identifier Code) for an automated reverse-post transaction is 1AM. This code is used to identify and track the specific transaction type, in this case, a reverse-post transaction.

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  • 6. 

    What personal computer based program is used to manage mobility bags?

    • A. COMPES

    • B. DMAS

    • C. MICAS

    • D. WSMIS

    Correct Answer
    A. C. MICAS
    Explanation
    MICAS is the personal computer-based program used to manage mobility bags. This program is specifically designed for this purpose and allows for efficient and effective management of mobility bags. The other options (COMPES, DMAS, WSMIS) are not relevant to this specific task and therefore, are not the correct answer.

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  • 7. 

    Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?

    • A. Abbreviated format (Option A)

    • B. Short format (Option B)

    • C. Short format (Option S)

    • D. Long format (Option L)

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Abbreviated format (Option A)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Abbreviated format (Option A). This option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print. The Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system allows users to view transaction histories in different formats, and the abbreviated format provides a condensed version of the history for easier viewing and understanding.

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  • 8. 

    Which IEX codes identify health hazard items?

    • A. 3, 6, N

    • B. E, F, 7

    • C. 8, 9, M

    • D. H, G, 8

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 8, 9, M
    Explanation
    The IEX codes that identify health hazard items are 8, 9, and M.

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  • 9. 

    In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?

    • A. financial

    • B. acquisition

    • C. technology

    • D. infrastructure

    Correct Answer
    A. C. technology
    Explanation
    In support of the eLog21 integrated processes, financial resources are needed to fund the logistics operations, acquisition resources are required to procure necessary equipment and supplies, and infrastructure resources are necessary for the physical facilities and transportation systems. However, technology is not considered a resource in this context. While technology may be utilized in the logistics processes, it is not categorized as a resource alongside financial, acquisition, and infrastructure resources.

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  • 10. 

    Which class of supply includes weapon?

    • A. II

    • B. IV

    • C. VI

    • D. VIII

    Correct Answer
    A. A. II
    Explanation
    Class II supplies include weapon systems, ammunition, and components. This class of supply is specifically designated for items that are necessary for the operation and maintenance of weapon systems. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that weapons are included in Class II supplies.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a storage aids system?

    • A. conveyors

    • B. affixed cranes

    • C. overhead trolleys

    • D. general-purpose shelves

    Correct Answer
    A. D. general-purpose shelves
    Explanation
    General-purpose shelves are part of a storage aids system because they provide a versatile and flexible storage solution. They can be used to store a wide range of items and can be easily adjusted to accommodate different sizes and shapes. Unlike conveyors, affixed cranes, and overhead trolleys, which are more specialized equipment, general-purpose shelves are designed to be adaptable and can be used in various warehouse settings.

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  • 12. 

    Which class of supply consists of ammunition?

    • A. III

    • B. V

    • C. VII

    • D. IX

    Correct Answer
    A. B. V
    Explanation
    Class V supply consists of ammunition. This class includes all types of ammunition, such as bullets, shells, grenades, and rockets. It also includes associated components and accessories, such as fuses, primers, and propellants. Class V supply is vital for military operations as it ensures that the necessary ammunition is available for combat and training purposes.

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  • 13. 

     Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listing must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF FORM 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or

    • A. A flight request.

    • B. A job order number.

    • C. A cumulative reject.

    • D. An approved supplement

    Correct Answer
    A. D. An approved supplement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. An approved supplement. This means that in order for the production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listing to be supported, there must be an approved supplement. This supplement could be in the form of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, an AF FORM 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request, or any other approved document that outlines the specific requirement for the scheduling.

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  • 14. 

    What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group information?

    • A. D143B

    • B. D043B

    • C. D071

    • D. C001

    Correct Answer
    A. B. D043B
    Explanation
    The computer system that provides interchangeable and substitute group information is D043B.

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  • 15. 

    To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service?

    • 9

    • 15

    • 13

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than 15 years time-in-service. This means that individuals with 15 or more years of service are not eligible for the program.

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  • 16. 

    Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?

    • A. Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG)

    • B. Miscellaneous file maintenance

    • C. Follow-up

    • D. Status

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Miscellaneous file maintenance
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. Miscellaneous file maintenance because this process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. The term "miscellaneous" implies that it covers a wide range of file maintenance tasks, including updating different types of records.

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  • 17. 

    What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in SBSS to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

    • A. C

    • B. D

    • C. F

    • D. R

    Correct Answer
    A. D. R
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. R. In SBSS, the releveling flag "R" is used on a requirement computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag allows users to view and analyze the requirements for a specific stock number, helping them make informed decisions regarding inventory management and procurement.

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  • 18. 

    Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?

    • A. Stock number

    • B. Transaction serial number

    • C. Batch miscellaneous option

    • D. Batch transaction date and serial number

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Stock number
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Stock number. Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, selecting records using the stock number and transaction date is done through the stock number inquiry. This allows users to search for specific transactions related to a particular stock number and transaction date.

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  • 19. 

     All shipments and transfers processed through the LRS produce what type of detail?

    • A. Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares

    • B. Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)

    • C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)

    • D. Shipment inventory

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC). This means that all shipments and transfers processed through the LRS result in either a shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited detail. This detail indicates that the items have been shipped but have not yet been credited or accounted for. It suggests that there may be a delay or issue in the processing or tracking of these shipments.

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  • 20. 

    What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?

    • A. transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code

    • B. transaction serial number, quantity, and date

    • C. transaction serial number, TTPC, and date

    • D. quantity, TTPC, and date

    Correct Answer
    A. C. transaction serial number, TTPC, and date
    Explanation
    To make an automated reverse-post input, the information required includes the transaction serial number, TTPC (type transaction phrase code), and date. These details are necessary to accurately identify and process the specific transaction that needs to be reversed. The transaction serial number ensures the correct transaction is targeted, the TTPC specifies the type of transaction phrase code associated with the transaction, and the date further helps in identifying the specific transaction to be reversed.

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  • 21. 

    Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is

    • A. reset

    • B. deleted

    • C. updated

    • D. suspended

    Correct Answer
    A. B. deleted
    Explanation
    When the on-hand quantity of a product reaches zero, it means there are no more units available. In this case, the due-in detail record, which tracks the incoming inventory, becomes irrelevant as there is no inventory to track. Therefore, it is logical to delete the due-in detail record when the on-hand quantity reaches zero. This helps to maintain accurate and up-to-date inventory records.

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  • 22. 

    What partial quantity flag is used to indicate a partial receipt?

    • A. F

    • B. P

    • C. R

    • D. Y

    Correct Answer
    A. B. P
    Explanation
    The partial quantity flag "P" is used to indicate a partial receipt. This means that the received quantity is less than the ordered quantity. This flag is commonly used in inventory management systems to track and manage partial shipments or receipts. By using this flag, organizations can easily identify and reconcile the partial receipts with the original orders, ensuring accurate inventory records and effective supply chain management.

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  • 23. 

    Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item?

    • A. item manager

    • B. maintenance

    • C. in-checker

    • D. inspector

    Correct Answer
    A. D. inspector
    Explanation
    The responsibility to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item lies with the inspector. Inspectors are responsible for thoroughly examining and evaluating items to ensure they meet the required standards and specifications. They have the expertise and knowledge to accurately identify any misidentified items and take appropriate actions to rectify the situation. This role is crucial in maintaining quality control and preventing any potential issues or errors in the identification of items.

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  • 24. 

    What are tracked in SATS while an item is in route to its warehouse location or delivery destination?

    • A. no warehouse locations

    • B. assigned locations

    • C. temporary locations

    • D. permanent locations

    Correct Answer
    A. C. temporary locations
    Explanation
    SATS tracks the item while it is in route to its warehouse location or delivery destination. During this time, the item is not yet at its permanent warehouse location or final delivery destination. Instead, it is at temporary locations such as transit hubs or distribution centers. These temporary locations are tracked by SATS to ensure the item's movement and progress can be monitored until it reaches its final destination.

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  • 25. 

    What system provides the ability to make repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, redistribution, forecasting, and other management decisions?

    • A. Oracle Discoverer Plus

    • B. Enterprise Solution-Supply

    • C. SATS

    • D. Weapon System Management Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Enterprise Solution-Supply
    Explanation
    Enterprise Solution-Supply is the correct answer because it is a system that encompasses various management decisions such as repair, deployment, sourcing, maintenance, acquisition, redistribution, and forecasting. It is a comprehensive solution that allows organizations to efficiently manage their supply chain and make informed decisions regarding the management of their resources. Oracle Discoverer Plus is a business intelligence tool, SATS is a satellite communication system, and Weapon System Management Information System is a system specific to managing weapon systems, none of which provide the same level of functionality as Enterprise Solution-Supply.

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  • 26. 

    In ES-S, the Order Selection Page is divided into what three sections?

    • A. Basic Selection Criteria, Additional Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • B. Required Selection Criteria, Optional Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • C. Order Selection Criteria, Supplement Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    • D. Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, Display Criteria

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, Display Criteria
    Explanation
    The Order Selection Page in ES-S is divided into three sections: Primary Selection Criteria, Secondary Selection Criteria, and Display Criteria. The Primary Selection Criteria section includes the essential criteria that must be selected in order to proceed with the order. The Secondary Selection Criteria section includes additional optional criteria that can be selected to further refine the order. The Display Criteria section allows the user to customize the way the order results are displayed.

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  • 27. 

    Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance?

    • A. Management and systems

    • B. Command section

    • C. Mission readiness

    • D. Sustainment

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Management and systems
    Explanation
    The division responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance is the Management and Systems division. This division is in charge of overseeing and managing the various systems and processes related to supply management and ensuring efficient and effective operations.

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  • 28. 

    Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in SBSS?

    • A. Administration

    • B. Item accounting

    • C. File maintenance

    • D. Accounting and finance

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Administration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Administration. This is because the question asks for a process that is not one of the four supply major processes in SBSS. The four supply major processes in SBSS are item accounting, file maintenance, and accounting and finance. Administration is not mentioned as one of the four processes, therefore it is the correct answer.

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  • 29. 

    When the SBSS computer does not process of update transactions a it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?

    • A. AF Form 1810

    • B. AF Form 1815

    • C. AF Form 1820

    • D. AF Form 1825

    Correct Answer
    A. B. AF Form 1815
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 1815. This form is used to report problems with the SBSS computer when it is not processing or updating transactions as it should. It is specifically used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group.

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  • 30. 

    Which listing is used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation?

    • A. D19

    • B. D20

    • C. D23

    • D. Q04

    Correct Answer
    A. C. D23
    Explanation
    The listing used to perform the due-in from maintenance reconciliation is D23.

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  • 31. 

    What Air Force form is used to request an adjusted stock level?

    • A. 86

    • B. 1991

    • C. 1996

    • D. 2005

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 1996
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. 1996. The Air Force form used to request an adjusted stock level is the 1996 form.

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  • 32. 

    When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, within what time frame from its discovery must the activity submit a discrepancy report?

    • A. 12 hours

    • B. 24 hours

    • C. 30 workdays

    • D. 45 calendar days

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 24 hours
    Explanation
    When a receiving activity receives a shortage or overage discrepancy on a controlled item, they must submit a discrepancy report within 24 hours from its discovery. This is important to ensure that any issues with the item can be addressed promptly and accurately. Waiting longer than 24 hours could lead to delays in resolving the discrepancy and potentially impact the overall inventory management process. Therefore, it is crucial for the receiving activity to act quickly and report any discrepancies within the specified time frame.

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  • 33. 

    Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal?

    • A. wrong part is delivered to a customer

    • B. item in stock requires a supply deficiency report

    • C. inquiry shows that the on-hand balance of an asset is zero

    • D. quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient

    Correct Answer
    A. D. quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient
    Explanation
    An example of a warehouse refusal is when the quantity in the location is not sufficient to fill an issue request. This means that the warehouse is unable to provide the requested quantity of a specific item, leading to a refusal to fulfill the request.

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  • 34. 

    What SBSS output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status?

    • A. DUO

    • B. 1SH

    • C. ISU

    • D. CSU

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 1SH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. 1SH. The 1SH output in SBSS notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status.

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  • 35. 

    Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to maintenance?

    • A. credit

    • B. firm

    • C. issue

    • D. memo

    Correct Answer
    A. B. firm
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. firm. In the context of a maintenance detail record, the term "firm" indicates that there is a definite issue or problem that needs to be addressed by the maintenance team. This suggests that there is a clear and urgent need for maintenance intervention. The other options, credit, issue, and memo, do not specifically imply an issue or problem that requires immediate attention.

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  • 36. 

    Which action taken code indicates an item is not authorized base level repair?

    • A. F

    • B. 1

    • C. 8

    • D. A

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 1
    Explanation
    The action taken code "1" indicates that an item is not authorized for base level repair. This means that the item cannot be repaired at the base level and may require advanced repairs or replacement.

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  • 37. 

    Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner results in reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made by

    • A. GSA

    • B. DLA

    • C. CASO

    • D. HQ AFMC

    Correct Answer
    A. D. HQ AFMC
    Explanation
    Failure to process turnaround data in a correct and timely manner can lead to reduced base stock levels and incomplete reports. These reports are crucial for making decisions regarding buying, repairing, and distributing goods. The correct answer, D. HQ AFMC, refers to the headquarters of the Air Force Materiel Command. This suggests that it is the responsibility of the HQ AFMC to ensure that turnaround data is processed correctly and on time to avoid negative consequences.

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  • 38. 

    What TRIC is used to issue assets from a MRSP to the user?

    • A. ISU

    • B. MSI

    • C. 1EB

    • D. 1UB

    Correct Answer
    A. B. MSI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. MSI. MSI stands for Managed Software Installation, which is a TRIC (Transaction Code) used to issue assets from a Material Requirements Planning System (MRSP) to the user. This TRIC is typically used in the context of software installations or deployments, where assets such as software packages or licenses are distributed from the MRSP to the end user.

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  • 39. 

    How many copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation?

    • A. One

    • B. Two

    • C. Three

    • D. Four

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Three
    Explanation
    Three copies of the AF Form 2005, Turn-in Request, are required for turn-in preparation. Having three copies allows for one copy to be retained by the turn-in activity, one copy to be provided to the turn-in activity's supporting supply activity, and one copy to be provided to the customer. This ensures that all parties involved have a record of the turn-in request and can track the progress of the turn-in process.

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  • 40. 

    What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system?

    • A. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)

    • B. General Services Administration (GSA)

    • C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

    • D. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) is responsible for the cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system. This means that AFMC oversees the entire lifecycle of these systems, from their initial development and acquisition to their retirement and disposal. AFMC ensures that these weapon systems are properly maintained, repaired, and upgraded throughout their lifespan, and also manages their storage, distribution, and disposal when they are no longer needed. This comprehensive responsibility makes AFMC the organization that is accountable for the entire management process of Air Force weapon systems.

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  • 41. 

    Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?

    • A. I004

    • B. I005

    • C. I007

    • D. I023

    Correct Answer
    A. A. I004
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. I004. This management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects the status of issue, kill, or backorder quantities. It provides information on the quantities that have been issued, killed, or are on backorder.

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  • 42. 

    What section stores small arms for mobility use?

    • A. Mobility

    • B. Readiness

    • C. War Readiness

    • D. Security Forces

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Mobility
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Mobility. This section is responsible for storing small arms that are used for mobility purposes. This implies that the small arms are easily transportable and can be used while on the move. The other options are not relevant to the storage of small arms for mobility use.

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  • 43. 

    Readiness based level details are identified by what type detail and activity code?

    • A. type detail L, activity code A

    • B. type detail L, activity code B

    • C. type detail C, activity code A

    • D. type detail C, activity code B

    Correct Answer
    A. A. type detail L, activity code A
    Explanation
    Readiness based level details are identified by type detail L and activity code A.

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  • 44. 

    The physical state that determines the usefulness of an item to carry out its designed or intended purpose is

    • A. ERRC

    • B. status

    • C. identity

    • D. condition

    Correct Answer
    A. D. condition
    Explanation
    The physical state of an item plays a crucial role in determining its usefulness to carry out its intended purpose. The condition of an item refers to its overall state, including factors such as functionality, appearance, and structural integrity. If an item is in good condition, it is more likely to be effective and reliable in performing its intended function. On the other hand, if an item is in poor condition, it may not be able to fulfill its purpose effectively or may even pose risks or hazards. Therefore, the condition of an item is a key factor in determining its usefulness.

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  • 45. 

    Materiel management specialist are not responsible for

    • A. Providing support to maintenance activities.

    • B. Researching and identifying materiel requirements.

    • C. Performing materiel management systems control functions.

    • D. Preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Performing materiel management systems control functions.
    Explanation
    Materiel management specialists are responsible for providing support to maintenance activities, researching and identifying materiel requirements, and preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. However, they are not responsible for performing materiel management systems control functions. This task typically falls under the purview of materiel management systems analysts or other related roles.

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  • 46. 

    What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks?

    • A. Readiness

    • B. Traffic management

    • C. Material management

    • D. Management and systems

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Readiness
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Readiness. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that personnel are prepared and equipped to handle deployment tasks efficiently and effectively. This includes training in areas such as transportation, supply chain management, and equipment readiness.

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  • 47. 

    An I007 management notice will be produced when a

    • A. stock number request cannot be converted to a part number.

    • B. stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers

    • C. part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control.

    • D. part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control.
    Explanation
    An I007 management notice will be produced when a part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. This means that the system or program in place is unable to find a corresponding stock number for the requested part number. This notice is likely generated to alert management or the appropriate personnel about the issue so that they can take necessary actions to resolve it.

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  • 48. 

    The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory?

    • A. 3

    • B. 7

    • C. 10

    • D. 14

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 10
    Explanation
    The storage activity should complete scheduled validations within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle inventory. This means that they have a maximum of 10 workdays to complete the validation process and ensure that the inventory counts are accurate. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to conduct the necessary checks and updates without causing undue delays in the overall inventory management process.

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  • 49. 

    The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information efficiently for what types of audits?

    • A. single and multiple

    • B. internal and external

    • C. issue and requisition

    • D. SBSS and SATS

    Correct Answer
    A. B. internal and external
    Explanation
    The Audit Data Query enhances your ability to query transaction information efficiently for both internal and external audits. This means that you can use the tool to retrieve and analyze transaction data for audits conducted within your organization as well as audits conducted by external entities such as regulatory bodies or auditors from other companies. This feature allows for comprehensive auditing and ensures that all types of audits can be effectively supported.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
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  • Nov 20, 2010
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    Chandler021

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