Dosage Calculations Set 2

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  • 1/12 Questions

    The nurse administering a proton pump inhibitor (ie: Prilosec) should understand that this drug is used to:

    • Prevent the feeling of fullness from meals
    • Block secretions of gastric acid
    • Prevent esophagitis
    • Prevent rupture of a hiatal hernia
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About This Quiz

Practice answering dosage calculation and pharmaceutical related questions PRIOR to taking the medication dosage calculation examination. Be sure to use your books to help you answer the questions.

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  • 2. 

    Which of these abbreviations indicates that a drug is to be administered prior to meals?

    • Ac

    • Pc

    • Ss

    • Bm

    Correct Answer
    A. Ac
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "ac" indicates that a drug is to be administered prior to meals. This stands for "ante cibum" in Latin, which translates to "before meals" in English.

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  • 3. 

    How many grams are equivalent to 300 milligrams (mg)?

    • 0.003 gm

    • 0.03 gm

    • 0.3 gm

    • 3.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.3 gm
    Explanation
    300 milligrams is equal to 0.3 grams. This is because there are 1000 milligrams in a gram, so to convert milligrams to grams, we divide by 1000. Therefore, 300 milligrams divided by 1000 equals 0.3 grams.

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  • 4. 

    The physician ordered a Heparin bolus of 5,000 units IV followed by a Heparin drip at 500 units per hour.  There is also an order for a stat PT/PTT.  Using the standard Heparin preparation (25,000 units in 500 ml), calculate the cc/hr you will program into the IV pump.

    • 15 cc/hr

    • 20 cc/hr

    • 10 cc/hr

    • 40 cc/hr

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 cc/hr
    Explanation
    To calculate the cc/hr to program into the IV pump, we need to determine the rate at which the Heparin drip is administered. The physician ordered a Heparin bolus of 5,000 units IV, which is given as a one-time dose. The remaining Heparin is prepared as a drip at a rate of 500 units per hour. The standard Heparin preparation is 25,000 units in 500 ml. Therefore, to administer 500 units per hour, we need to infuse 10 ml per hour (500 units / 25,000 units = 0.02, 0.02 x 500 ml = 10 ml/hr). Hence, the correct answer is 10 cc/hr.

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  • 5. 

    60 cc's is equivalent to how many ounces?

    • 0.5 oz

    • 1 oz

    • 2.5 oz

    • 2.0 oz

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.0 oz
    Explanation
    To convert cc's to ounces, we can use the conversion factor of 1 cc = 0.0338 oz. Therefore, to find how many ounces are equivalent to 60 cc's, we can multiply 60 by 0.0338. The result is approximately 2.028 oz. Since the answer options are rounded, the closest option to 2.028 oz is 2.0 oz.

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  • 6. 

     The nurse must know the antidote to use for Heparin.  Choose the correct answer.

    • Protriptyline hydrochloride

    • Protamine Sulfate

    • Vitamin K

    • Coumadin

    Correct Answer
    A. Protamine Sulfate
    Explanation
    Protamine Sulfate (Answer B) is correct. Vitamin K is the antidote for Coumadin (Warfarin).

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  • 7. 

    When administering an aminoglycoside antibiotic (ie: Vancomycin or Gentamycin) to a client, the nurse monitors which of the following?

    • Serum creatinine

    • Serum potassium

    • Serum sodium

    • Red blood cell count

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum creatinine
    Explanation
    When administering an aminoglycoside antibiotic, the nurse monitors the client's serum creatinine levels. Aminoglycosides can cause nephrotoxicity, which is kidney damage, and monitoring serum creatinine levels helps to assess kidney function. If the serum creatinine levels increase, it may indicate kidney damage, and the nurse can take appropriate actions such as adjusting the dosage or discontinuing the medication to prevent further harm to the client's kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium and sodium levels is important for other medications, and monitoring red blood cell count is not directly related to the administration of aminoglycoside antibiotics.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is classified as a potassium sparing diuretic?

    • Spironolactone (Aldactone)

    • Furosemide (Lasix)

    • Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)

    • Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)

    Correct Answer
    A. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
    Explanation
    Spironolactone (Aldactone) is classified as a potassium sparing diuretic because it works by blocking the action of aldosterone in the kidneys, which helps to prevent the reabsorption of potassium and promote the excretion of sodium and water. This leads to increased urine production without causing excessive loss of potassium, making it a potassium sparing diuretic. Furosemide (Lasix), Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril), and Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) are not classified as potassium sparing diuretics.

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  • 9. 

    Name two (2) serious reactions that may occur with Gentamycin use.

    • Yeast and fungal infections

    • Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

    • Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity

    • Alopecia and epistaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
    Explanation
    Gentamycin is an antibiotic that can cause serious side effects. Ototoxicity refers to damage to the inner ear, leading to hearing loss or balance problems. Nephrotoxicity refers to kidney damage. These two reactions are considered serious because they can have long-term effects on a patient's health.

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  • 10. 

    Nitroglycerin is available in ointment or paste form.  Before applying nitroglycerin ointment, the nurse should:

    • Obtain the client's pulse rate and cardiac rhythm

    • Instruct the patient to expect pain relief in the next 15 minutes

    • Cleanse the skin where the ointment will be placed with alcohol

    • Remove the ointment previously applied

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the ointment previously applied
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to remove the ointment previously applied. This is because nitroglycerin ointment is typically applied in a thin layer and needs to be removed before applying a new dose. This ensures that the previous dose does not accumulate and cause an overdose. Removing the old ointment also allows for better absorption of the new dose and prevents potential skin irritation or reactions.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding Nitroglycerin therapy?

    • Headaches are the most common side effect.

    • If more than 2 tablets (sublingual), within 30 minutes, is required to control pain, medical attention is needed.

    • Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for clients taking medications for erectile dysfunction.

    • A lack of burning sensation should not be reled on to indicate potency because not all sublingual nitroglycerin preparations cause a burning sensation.

    Correct Answer
    A. If more than 2 tablets (sublingual), within 30 minutes, is required to control pain, medical attention is needed.
    Explanation
    If more than 3 tablets are administered sublingual 15 minutes apart, additional medical intervention will be needed.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is NOT a clinically significant adverse reaction from Prednisone administration?

    • Increased appetite with subsequent weight gain

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Increased serum cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperkalemia
    Explanation
    Hyperkalemia is not a clinically significant adverse reaction from Prednisone administration. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can cause various side effects. Increased appetite with subsequent weight gain, hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels), and increased serum cholesterol are known side effects of Prednisone. However, hyperkalemia, which refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, is not typically associated with Prednisone use.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 14, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Amonacelli
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