Defense Mechanism (Practice Mode)- Rnpedia

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Defense Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is not one of the key steps in the grief process? 

    • A.

      Denial

    • B.

      Anger

    • C.

      Bargaining

    • D.

      Rejection

    Correct Answer
    D. Rejection
    Explanation
    The grief process typically involves several key steps, including denial, anger, bargaining, and acceptance. Rejection is not one of these key steps. While it is possible for individuals to experience feelings of rejection during the grief process, it is not considered a universally recognized stage of grief.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following matches the definition: covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait?

    • A.

      Compensation

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Rationalization

    • D.

      Dysphoria

    Correct Answer
    A. Compensation
    Explanation
    Compensation matches the definition of covering up a weakness by stressing a desirable or stronger trait. This term refers to the process of trying to make up for a perceived deficiency by emphasizing a different skill or attribute. It involves redirecting focus onto a positive aspect in order to compensate for a perceived weakness.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found with light sleepers?

    • A.

      Theta

    • B.

      Alpha

    • C.

      Beta

    • D.

      Zeta

    Correct Answer
    A. Theta
    Explanation
    Theta waves are most commonly found with light sleepers. Theta waves have a frequency of 4-7 Hz and are associated with drowsiness and the early stages of sleep. They are also present during deep meditation and daydreaming. Light sleepers tend to have more theta activity during their sleep, which can make them more easily awakened by external stimuli.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following months matches with an infant first having the ability to sit-up independently?

    • A.

      4 months

    • B.

      6 months

    • C.

      8 months

    • D.

      10 months

    Correct Answer
    B. 6 months
    Explanation
    At around 6 months, infants typically develop the ability to sit-up independently. This milestone is part of their gross motor development and is an important step towards achieving further physical milestones like crawling and standing. By this age, their neck and back muscles have gained enough strength to support their body in a sitting position. At 4 months, most infants are still unable to sit-up without support, while at 8 and 10 months, infants have usually already mastered sitting-up and have moved on to other developmental milestones.

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  • 5. 

    Object permanence for toddlers develops in this age range?

    • A.

      5-10 months

    • B.

      10-14 months

    • C.

      12-24 months

    • D.

      15-24 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 5-10 months
    Explanation
    Object permanence refers to the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight. In the age range of 5-10 months, toddlers start to develop this concept. They begin to realize that objects still exist even if they are hidden or covered. For example, they may look for a toy that has been covered with a blanket. This development is a crucial cognitive milestone for infants and plays a significant role in their overall understanding of the world around them.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following matches the definition: attributing of our own unwanted trait onto another person?  

    • A.

      Compensation

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Rationalization

    • D.

      Dysphoria

    Correct Answer
    B. Projection
    Explanation
    Projection is the correct answer because it refers to the psychological defense mechanism of attributing one's own unwanted traits, thoughts, or emotions onto another person. This can occur unconsciously, as a way to avoid acknowledging or dealing with these unwanted aspects of oneself.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following matches the definition: the justification of behaviors using reason other than the real reason? 

    • A.

      Compensation

    • B.

      Projection

    • C.

      Rationalization

    • D.

      Dysphoria

    Correct Answer
    C. Rationalization
    Explanation
    Rationalization matches the definition of justifying behaviors using reasons other than the real reason. This is a psychological defense mechanism where individuals provide logical explanations or justifications for their actions or feelings in order to avoid facing the true underlying reasons. Compensation refers to making up for a perceived deficiency in one area by excelling in another. Projection involves attributing one's own thoughts, feelings, or characteristics onto someone else. Dysphoria refers to a state of unease or dissatisfaction.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following matches the definition: response to severe emotion stress resulting in involuntary disturbance of physical functions?

    • A.

      Conversion disorder

    • B.

      Depressive reaction

    • C.

      Bipolar disorder

    • D.

      Alzheimer's disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Conversion disorder
    Explanation
    Conversion disorder is the correct answer because it is a condition in which a person experiences physical symptoms, such as paralysis or blindness, that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. These symptoms are believed to be a response to severe emotional stress and are involuntary in nature. Depressive reaction, bipolar disorder, and Alzheimer's disease do not specifically match the definition given.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following waveforms is most commonly found when you are awake?

    • A.

      Theta

    • B.

      Alpha

    • C.

      Beta

    • D.

      Zeta

    Correct Answer
    C. Beta
    Explanation
    Beta waves are most commonly found when a person is awake. These waves have a frequency range of 12-30 Hz and are associated with alertness, concentration, and active thinking. They are typically present during normal waking states and occur when the brain is engaged in cognitive tasks or focused activities.

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  • 10. 

    The REM sleep cycle occur approximately every ____ minutes?

    • A.

      45

    • B.

      60

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      90

    Correct Answer
    D. 90
    Explanation
    During the REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep cycle, which is a stage of deep sleep associated with dreaming, it occurs approximately every 90 minutes. This cycle is characterized by rapid eye movement, increased brain activity, and muscle paralysis. The duration of each REM cycle may vary, but on average, it lasts for about 10-15 minutes. The 90-minute interval is important as it allows for the completion of other sleep stages, such as deep sleep and light sleep, before entering the REM stage again.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following reflexes is not found at birth?  

    • A.

      Babinski

    • B.

      Palmar

    • C.

      Moro

    • D.

      Flexion

    Correct Answer
    D. Flexion
    Explanation
    Flexion reflex is not found at birth. This reflex is a protective response where a person automatically withdraws their limb from a painful or potentially harmful stimulus. It develops later in infancy as the nervous system matures. The other reflexes mentioned, such as Babinski, Palmar, and Moro, are present at birth and are part of the normal newborn reflexes.

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  • 12. 

    Parallel play for toddlers develops in this age range?

    • A.

      5-10 months

    • B.

      10-14 months

    • C.

      12-24 months

    • D.

      24-48 months

    Correct Answer
    D. 24-48 months
    Explanation
    Parallel play is a stage of social development in which toddlers play alongside each other without interacting directly. During this stage, children start to observe and imitate each other's actions, but they are not yet ready to engage in cooperative play. Parallel play typically emerges around the age of 24-48 months, when toddlers begin to develop a sense of independence and are more interested in their own activities while still being aware of others around them.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not a sign of anxiety? 

    • A.

      Dyspnea

    • B.

      Hyperventilation

    • C.

      Moist mouth

    • D.

      GI symptoms

    Correct Answer
    C. Moist mouth
    Explanation
    A moist mouth is not a sign of anxiety because anxiety typically causes dry mouth due to increased stress and adrenaline levels. This can lead to a decrease in saliva production, resulting in a dry mouth sensation. Therefore, a moist mouth would be more indicative of normal physiological functioning rather than anxiety.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following best describes a person that is completely awake falling asleep spontaneously? 

    • A.

      Cataplexy

    • B.

      Narcolepsy

    • C.

      Transitional sleep

    • D.

      REM absence

    Correct Answer
    A. Cataplexy
    Explanation
    Cataplexy is a sudden and temporary loss of muscle tone or control, typically triggered by strong emotions such as laughter or excitement. It is often associated with narcolepsy, a neurological disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden, uncontrollable episodes of sleep. In the context of the question, a person who is completely awake and then falls asleep spontaneously is likely experiencing cataplexy, as it involves a sudden transition from wakefulness to sleep-like state.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following best describes a person that is unable to tell you were there hand or foot is?

    • A.

      Autotopagnosia

    • B.

      Cataplexy

    • C.

      Ergophobia

    • D.

      Anosognosia

    Correct Answer
    A. Autotopagnosia
    Explanation
    Autotopagnosia is a condition characterized by the inability to recognize or locate one's own body parts. This means that a person with autotopagnosia would have difficulty in identifying the position or location of their hand or foot. They may be unable to accurately point to or describe the location of these body parts, leading to a sense of disconnection or confusion. This condition is often caused by damage to the parietal lobe of the brain, which is responsible for spatial awareness and body perception.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is not a characteristic of a panic disorder?

    • A.

      Nausea

    • B.

      Excessive perspiration

    • C.

      Urination

    • D.

      Chest pain

    Correct Answer
    C. Urination
    Explanation
    Urination is not a characteristic of a panic disorder. Panic disorder is characterized by sudden and recurring episodes of intense fear and anxiety, often accompanied by physical symptoms such as rapid heartbeat, shortness of breath, chest pain, excessive perspiration, and nausea. While panic attacks can cause a person to feel like they need to urinate due to the body's fight-or-flight response, urination itself is not considered a specific symptom of panic disorder.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following categories would a 70 year old adult be placed in? 

    • A.

      Intimacy vs. Isolation

    • B.

      Generativitiy vs. Stagnation

    • C.

      Integrity vs. Despair

    • D.

      Longevity vs. Guilt

    Correct Answer
    C. Integrity vs. Despair
    Explanation
    Integrity vs. Despair is the correct answer because this stage of Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory occurs during late adulthood, typically around the age of 65 and beyond. During this stage, individuals reflect on their life and evaluate whether they have lived a meaningful and fulfilling life or if they have regrets and feelings of despair. It is a time of coming to terms with mortality and accepting the inevitability of death. Therefore, a 70-year-old adult would fall into this category.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following categories would a 60 year old adult be placed in? 

    • A.

      Intimacy vs. Isolation

    • B.

      Generativitiy vs. Stagnation

    • C.

      Integrity vs. Despair

    • D.

      Longevity vs. Guilt

    Correct Answer
    B. Generativitiy vs. Stagnation
    Explanation
    A 60-year-old adult would be placed in the category of "Generativity vs. Stagnation." This stage, according to Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, occurs during middle adulthood and involves a focus on contributing to society and future generations. It is a time when individuals strive to leave a legacy and make a positive impact on others. Stagnation, on the other hand, refers to a lack of growth and progress.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following categories would a 20 year old adult be placed in?  

    • A.

      Intimacy vs. Isolation

    • B.

      Generativitiy vs. Stagnation

    • C.

      Integrity vs. Despair

    • D.

      Longevity vs. Guilt

    Correct Answer
    A. Intimacy vs. Isolation
    Explanation
    A 20-year-old adult would be placed in the category of Intimacy vs. Isolation. This stage, according to Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory, typically occurs during early adulthood. During this stage, individuals seek to form meaningful relationships and establish intimate connections with others. They may also experience feelings of isolation or loneliness if they are unable to develop these relationships. Therefore, it is appropriate to place a 20-year-old adult in the Intimacy vs. Isolation category.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following describes a person using words that have no known meaning?

    • A.

      Neologisms

    • B.

      Neolithic

    • C.

      Verbalism

    • D.

      Delusional blocking

    Correct Answer
    A. Neologisms
    Explanation
    Neologisms refer to the use of new or made-up words that are not recognized or understood by others. This can occur when a person creates their own vocabulary or uses words that have no known meaning in order to express themselves. It is often seen in individuals with certain mental health conditions or language disorders. Neolithic refers to a specific period in human history, verbalism refers to excessive use of words, and delusional blocking is not relevant to the question.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 21, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    RNpedia.com
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