Bleeding And Impaired Hemostasis Coagulation Quiz

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Bleeding And Impaired Hemostasis Coagulation Quiz - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    During the irreversible phase of coagulation, the release of platelet granules is activated by:

    • A.

      Von Willebrand Factor

    • B.

      Sub-endothelial collagen

    • C.

      Thromboxane A-2

    • D.

      Platelet Factor 4

    Correct Answer
    D. Platelet Factor 4
    Explanation
    Platelet Factor 4 is released during the irreversible phase of coagulation to activate the release of platelet granules. This factor plays a crucial role in promoting platelet aggregation and stabilizing the platelet plug. It helps in recruiting more platelets to the site of injury and enhances the formation of a stable blood clot. Platelet Factor 4 also has anti-heparin properties, which helps in preventing the breakdown of the clot. Therefore, Platelet Factor 4 is an important mediator in the coagulation process.

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  • 2. 

    The coagulopathy associated with chronic renal failure in patients at risk of bleeding is best treated by:

    • A.

      FFP

    • B.

      DDAVP

    • C.

      Plasmapheresis

    • D.

      Intravenous thrombin

    Correct Answer
    B. DDAVP
    Explanation
    DDAVP, or desmopressin acetate, is the best treatment for the coagulopathy associated with chronic renal failure in patients at risk of bleeding. DDAVP works by releasing von Willebrand factor (vWF) from endothelial cells, which increases the levels of factor VIII and vWF in the blood. This helps to improve platelet function and clotting ability, reducing the risk of bleeding. FFP (fresh frozen plasma) is a blood product that contains various clotting factors, but it may not be as effective as DDAVP in treating the specific coagulopathy associated with chronic renal failure. Plasmapheresis is a procedure that involves removing and replacing plasma, but it may not be necessary in this situation. Intravenous thrombin is not the best treatment option for this condition.

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  • 3. 

    Preparing a patient on Coumadin for elective surgery requires:

    • A.

      Intravenous Vitamin K

    • B.

      Discontinuation of Coumadin 2-4 days pre-op

    • C.

      FFP

    • D.

      FFP and IV heparin

    Correct Answer
    B. Discontinuation of Coumadin 2-4 days pre-op
    Explanation
    The correct answer is discontinuation of Coumadin 2-4 days pre-op. Coumadin is a medication that is used as a blood thinner. Discontinuing the medication prior to surgery is necessary to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. This allows the effects of Coumadin to wear off and for the patient's blood to return to normal clotting function. Intravenous Vitamin K, FFP (fresh frozen plasma), and IV heparin are not typically used for preparing a patient on Coumadin for elective surgery.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following drugs is the most effective inhibitor of platelet aggregation?

    • A.

      Warfarin

    • B.

      Aspirin

    • C.

      Heparin

    • D.

      Dipyridamole

    Correct Answer
    B. Aspirin
    Explanation
    Aspirin is the most effective inhibitor of platelet aggregation among the given options. Aspirin works by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), which is involved in the production of thromboxane A2, a substance that promotes platelet aggregation. By inhibiting thromboxane A2 production, aspirin reduces platelet aggregation and helps prevent the formation of blood clots. Warfarin, heparin, and dipyridamole have different mechanisms of action and are not as effective as aspirin in inhibiting platelet aggregation.

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  • 5. 

    A characteristic of 3-week old RBCs is:

    • A.

      Hypokalemia

    • B.

      Hypocalcemia

    • C.

      Elevated 2,3-DPG

    • D.

      Elevated pH

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypocalcemia
    Explanation
    At 3 weeks old, red blood cells (RBCs) undergo a process called enucleation, where they lose their nucleus. This process also leads to the loss of calcium ions from the RBCs. Therefore, 3-week old RBCs are characterized by hypocalcemia, which refers to low levels of calcium in the blood.

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  • 6. 

    Characteristic of Protein C is:

    • A.

      Activated Factor V

    • B.

      Inhibitor of coagulation

    • C.

      Is not affected by Warfarin

    • D.

      Deficiency leads to bleeding disorder

    Correct Answer
    B. Inhibitor of coagulation
    Explanation
    Protein C is a characteristic inhibitor of coagulation. It plays a crucial role in regulating the blood clotting process by inhibiting the activity of certain clotting factors. This inhibition helps to prevent excessive blood clotting and maintain the balance between clot formation and dissolution. Deficiency of protein C can lead to a bleeding disorder, as the regulation of clotting factors becomes compromised. It is important to note that protein C is not affected by Warfarin, a commonly used anticoagulant medication.

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  • 7. 

    The operative finding associated with a transfusion of mismatched blood is:

    • A.

      Tachycardia

    • B.

      Hypoxia

    • C.

      Generalized bleeding

    • D.

      Rigors

    Correct Answer
    C. Generalized bleeding
    Explanation
    Generalized bleeding is the operative finding associated with a transfusion of mismatched blood. This means that when blood from a donor with a different blood type is transfused into a recipient, it can lead to a reaction known as a transfusion reaction. One of the symptoms of a transfusion reaction is generalized bleeding, which can manifest as bleeding from the nose, gums, or other parts of the body. This occurs because the immune system recognizes the donor blood as foreign and mounts an immune response, leading to the destruction of red blood cells and subsequent bleeding.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 10, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 08, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    ABSITE
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