Clinical Medicine Exam III

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Matthewlfowler
M
Matthewlfowler
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 717
| Attempts: 724
SettingsSettings
Please wait...
  • 1/45 Questions

    Which of the following is NOT one of the four cardinal features of Parkinson’s disease?

    • Bradykinesia
    • Tremor
    • Psychosis
    • Postural instability
    • Muscular rigidity
Please wait...
Medicine Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The following Practice Exam is for Block 3 Clinical Medicine - Exam III. There are 45 questions on this exam and you will have 55 minutes to complete the exam. Feedback will be provided at the end of the exam.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Positron emission tomography (PET) scans utilize a positron-labeled molecule which specifically becomes associated with…

    • Necrotic tissues

    • Avascular tissues

    • Only tissues with seizure activity

    • Metabolically active tissues

    • Metabolically inactive tissues

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolically active tissues
    Explanation
    PET scans utilize a positron-labeled molecule that becomes associated with metabolically active tissues. This is because metabolically active tissues have a higher demand for energy and glucose, which results in increased uptake of the positron-labeled molecule. This allows PET scans to detect areas of the body that are metabolically active, such as areas of cancer, inflammation, or brain activity.

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    A 45 year-old female presents with a bilateral focal dystonia of the orbicularis oculi. The physician treats the problem with an injection of Botulinum toxin. Which of the following disorders does this patient have?

    • Torticollis

    • Oromandibular dystonia

    • Spasmotic dysphonia

    • Blepharospasm

    • Ataxic dystonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Blepharospasm
    Explanation
    The patient in this case is experiencing a bilateral focal dystonia of the orbicularis oculi, which refers to involuntary muscle contractions in the muscles around the eyes. The treatment for this condition is an injection of Botulinum toxin, which helps to relax the muscles and reduce the spasms. Therefore, the correct disorder that the patient has is Blepharospasm, which specifically refers to involuntary contractions of the muscles around the eyes.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    Iodinated CT contrast is utilized in order to attenuate the x-ray beams and better enhance the differences between normal and abnormal tissues. Which of the following is a serious problem commonly associated with use of contrast?

    • Cardiomyopathy

    • Seizures

    • Renal dysfunction

    • Hyperthermia

    • Hypothermia

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal dysfunction
    Explanation
    Iodinated CT contrast is commonly associated with the serious problem of renal dysfunction. The contrast can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to impaired kidney function. This can result in decreased urine output, increased levels of waste products in the blood, and potential kidney failure. It is important to assess the patient's renal function before administering contrast and to monitor them closely for any signs of renal dysfunction after the procedure.

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Humans spend the longest portion of sleep in which stage that is also characteristic of spindles and K-complexes?

    • Stage 1

    • Stage 2

    • Stage 3

    • Stage 4

    • REM sleep

    Correct Answer
    A. Stage 2
    Explanation
    During sleep, humans spend the longest portion in Stage 2. This stage is characterized by the presence of spindles and K-complexes, which are brief bursts of brain activity. Stage 2 is a transitional stage between light sleep (Stage 1) and deep sleep (Stages 3 and 4). It is during Stage 2 that the brain starts to produce sleep spindles, which are rapid bursts of brain waves, and K-complexes, which are large, slow waves. These characteristics make Stage 2 the correct answer.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Circadian rhythm can be attributed to the regulation of melatonin secretion from the pineal gland. Which of the following hypothalamic nuclei is responsible for this regulation?

    • Lateral reticular nucleus

    • Locus coeruleus

    • Tubomammary nucleus

    • Substantia nigra

    • Superchiasmatic nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Superchiasmatic nucleus
    Explanation
    The superchiasmatic nucleus is responsible for the regulation of melatonin secretion from the pineal gland. This nucleus is located in the hypothalamus and acts as the master clock for the circadian rhythm. It receives input from the retina, which helps in synchronizing the internal body clock with the external light-dark cycle. The superchiasmatic nucleus controls the timing of melatonin release, which plays a crucial role in regulating sleep-wake cycles and other physiological processes influenced by the circadian rhythm.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    Which of the following bacterial organisms is responsible for the majority of bacterial meningitis cases in the United States of America?

    • Streptococcus agalactae

    • Neisseria meningitidis

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • Haemophilus influenzae

    • Listeria monocytogenes

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    Explanation
    Streptococcus pneumoniae is responsible for the majority of bacterial meningitis cases in the United States of America. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and can also cause other infections such as sinusitis and ear infections. It is a leading cause of meningitis, particularly in young children and older adults. Streptococcus pneumoniae can spread through respiratory droplets and can cause severe illness if it enters the bloodstream and reaches the brain and spinal cord, resulting in meningitis.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    Abnormally low or absent levels of hypocretin are commonly associated with which of the following sleep disorders?

    • Obstructive sleep apnea

    • Narcolepsy

    • Exploding head syndrome

    • Sleep eating related disorder

    • REM sleep behavior disorder

    Correct Answer
    A. Narcolepsy
    Explanation
    Narcolepsy is commonly associated with abnormally low or absent levels of hypocretin. Hypocretin is a neurotransmitter that helps regulate wakefulness and sleep. In individuals with narcolepsy, there is a deficiency of hypocretin, leading to excessive daytime sleepiness, sudden sleep attacks, and disrupted sleep patterns. This condition can greatly impact a person's daily functioning and quality of life.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    Which of the following is the most common virus transmitted to the fetus?

    • Herpes simplex virus

    • JC virus

    • Cytomegalovirus

    • Rubella

    • Dengue

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytomegalovirus
    Explanation
    Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common virus transmitted to the fetus. CMV can be transmitted to the fetus during pregnancy if the mother becomes infected. It can cause various complications in the fetus, including hearing loss, vision problems, developmental delays, and even death. CMV is commonly transmitted through bodily fluids, such as saliva, urine, and blood. It is important for pregnant women to take precautions to prevent CMV infection, such as practicing good hygiene and avoiding close contact with individuals who have active CMV infections.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    The time interval goal for door to needle time for the administration of IV recombinant-tissue plasminogen activator should occur within what time interval upon arrival of the ischemic stroke patient at the emergency room?

    • 25 minutes

    • 45 minutes

    • 60 minutes

    • 3 hours

    • 4.5 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 minutes
    Explanation
    The goal for door to needle time for the administration of IV recombinant-tissue plasminogen activator should occur within 60 minutes upon arrival of the ischemic stroke patient at the emergency room. This means that the medication should be administered within one hour of the patient's arrival. Administering the medication within this time frame is crucial as it helps to improve outcomes and minimize the risk of complications associated with ischemic stroke.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Sleep spindles are primarily a result of which of the following locations and neurotransmitter activity?

    • Glutamine on the lateral reticular nucleus.

    • Gamma-amino butyric acid on the lateral reticular nucleus.

    • Norepinephrine on the lateral reticular nucleus.

    • Gamma-amino butyric acid on the locus coeruleus.

    • Histamine on the locus coeruleus.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gamma-amino butyric acid on the lateral reticular nucleus.
  • 12. 

    Which of the following drugs or drug combinations is considered the empirical treatment for suspected cases of bacterial meningitis until cultures are obtained?

    • 3rd generation cephalosporin, vancomycin

    • 3rd generation cephalosporin, gentamicin

    • Ampicillin, 3rd generation cephalosporin

    • Ampicillin, 3rd generation cephalosporin, vancomycin

    • Ampicillin, 3rd generation cephalosporin, gentamicin

    Correct Answer
    A. Ampicillin, 3rd generation cephalosporin, vancomycin
    Explanation
    The combination of Ampicillin, 3rd generation cephalosporin, and vancomycin is considered the empirical treatment for suspected cases of bacterial meningitis until cultures are obtained. This combination covers a broad spectrum of bacteria that are commonly responsible for meningitis, including Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, and Listeria monocytogenes. Ampicillin covers Listeria monocytogenes, while 3rd generation cephalosporin covers Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis. Vancomycin is added to cover methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    A vascular lacunar infarct is most commonly associated with damage to which of the following regions?

    • Hypothalamus

    • Basal ganglia

    • Primary visual cortex

    • Corpus callosum

    • Hippocampus

    Correct Answer
    A. Basal ganglia
    Explanation
    A vascular lacunar infarct refers to a small stroke that occurs in the deep structures of the brain. The basal ganglia are a group of structures located deep within the brain that are responsible for various functions, including movement control. Damage to the basal ganglia can result in motor deficits such as weakness or difficulty with coordination. Therefore, a vascular lacunar infarct is most commonly associated with damage to the basal ganglia.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    Which of the following brain injuries is most commonly associated with a skull fracture?

    • Subarachnoid hemorrhage

    • Subdural hematoma

    • Tonsillar herniation

    • Diffuse axonal injury

    • Epidural hematoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidural hematoma
    Explanation
    Epidural hematoma is the most commonly associated brain injury with a skull fracture. This occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (the tough, outermost layer of the meninges) and the skull. A skull fracture can damage the middle meningeal artery, leading to bleeding and the formation of a hematoma. The hematoma can put pressure on the brain, causing symptoms such as headache, confusion, and loss of consciousness. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to relieve the pressure and prevent further damage.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    MRI operates via the use of…

    • Signals received as electrons release energy.

    • Signals received as protons release energy.

    • Signals received as electrons absorb energy.

    • Signals received as protons absorb energy.

    • Signals received as positrons release energy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Signals received as protons release energy.
    Explanation
    MRI operates via the use of signals received as protons releasing energy. Protons in the body align with a strong magnetic field during an MRI scan. When a radiofrequency pulse is applied, the protons absorb energy and become excited. As the protons return to their original alignment, they release energy in the form of signals. These signals are detected by the MRI machine and used to create detailed images of the body.

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    The most common route of infection for bacterial meningitis is…

    • Head trauma

    • Direct extension via otitis media

    • Direct extension via sinusitis

    • Genetic cribiform plate malformation

    • Hematogenous

    Correct Answer
    A. Hematogenous
    Explanation
    Bacterial meningitis is most commonly caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream (hematogenous route) and then spreading to the meninges, which are the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. This can occur through various means such as respiratory or gastrointestinal infections. Head trauma, direct extension via otitis media or sinusitis, and genetic cribiform plate malformation are not the most common routes of infection for bacterial meningitis.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    A 26 year-old female presents to the emergency room with cognition problems and peripheral ataxia. An axial T1 weighted MRI with contrast indicates the presence of confluent periventricular white matter lesions. She recently returned from visiting her friend in the northeast where they went camping for a week. Which of the following diagnoses is consistent with her background and diagnostic imaging?

    • Multiple sclerosis

    • Systemic lupus

    • Lyme disease

    • Leptomeningitis

    • Brain abscess

    Correct Answer
    A. Lyme disease
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Lyme disease. The patient's recent history of camping in the northeast, along with the presence of periventricular white matter lesions on MRI, is consistent with Lyme disease. Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. It can lead to various neurological symptoms, including cognitive problems and peripheral ataxia. The presence of white matter lesions on MRI is a common finding in Lyme disease. Systemic lupus, multiple sclerosis, leptomeningitis, and brain abscess would have different clinical presentations and imaging findings.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    Bell’s palsy is commonly associated with infection with which of the following microorganisms?

    • Aspergillus niger

    • Cryptococcus neoformans

    • Borrelia burgdorfei

    • Treponema pallidum

    • Toxoplasma gondii

    Correct Answer
    A. Borrelia burgdorfei
    Explanation
    Bell's palsy is commonly associated with infection with Borrelia burgdorferi. This microorganism is the causative agent of Lyme disease, which is known to cause facial paralysis or Bell's palsy as one of its manifestations. Other microorganisms listed in the options are not typically associated with Bell's palsy.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    Interpretation of a CT scan should be made within what time interval upon arrival of the ischemic stroke patient at the emergency room?

    • 15 minutes

    • 20 minutes

    • 25 minutes

    • 45 minutes

    • 60 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 minutes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 45 minutes. This time interval is crucial because prompt interpretation of a CT scan is necessary to determine the extent and location of the ischemic stroke. This information is vital for making treatment decisions and assessing the eligibility for thrombolytic therapy, which should ideally be administered within 4.5 hours of symptom onset. Delaying the interpretation beyond 45 minutes may lead to delays in treatment and potentially worsen the patient's outcome.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    A 35 year-old male visits his neurologist for a follow-up. Two months ago the patient had a berry aneurysm rupture and has been recovering from symptoms that developed following the event. He discusses with his physician that he is continuing to have problems at home reaching for and grasping items such as his coffee mug with his right hand, but does not have problems with this action using his left hand. Which of the following disorders does this patient have?

    • Physiologic tremor

    • Cerebellar tremor

    • Rest tremor

    • Focal tremor

    • Focal dystonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Cerebellar tremor
    Explanation
    The patient's difficulty in reaching and grasping objects with his right hand, but not with his left hand, suggests a focal neurological deficit. Cerebellar tremor is a type of focal tremor that is caused by damage or dysfunction in the cerebellum, which is responsible for coordinating movements. This type of tremor typically affects one side of the body and can cause difficulties with fine motor tasks such as reaching and grasping objects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of cerebellar tremor.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    What percent of brain abscesses can be attributed to nasopharyngeal infections?

    • 30%

    • 40%

    • 50%

    • 60%

    • 70%

    Correct Answer
    A. 40%
    Explanation
    40% of brain abscesses can be attributed to nasopharyngeal infections. This means that out of all the cases of brain abscesses, 40% are caused by infections in the nasopharynx. This suggests that nasopharyngeal infections are a significant contributing factor to the development of brain abscesses.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Which of the following would contraindicate the use of recombinant-tissue plasminogen activator in a stroke patient?

    • Normal, negative contrast CT

    • Systolic blood pressure of 160

    • Diastolic blood pressure of 92

    • Presentation 5 hours post symptom onset

    • Head surgery 6 months ago

    Correct Answer
    A. Presentation 5 hours post symptom onset
    Explanation
    The use of recombinant-tissue plasminogen activator (rt-PA) is contraindicated in stroke patients who present more than 4.5 hours after symptom onset. This is because rt-PA is most effective when administered within the first few hours after stroke symptoms begin. Therefore, a presentation 5 hours post symptom onset would contraindicate the use of rt-PA in this patient. The other options, such as a normal CT scan, elevated blood pressure, and a history of head surgery, are not contraindications for the use of rt-PA in stroke patients.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    Histamine promotes wakefulness via transmission to the entire central nervous system. Histamine is produced in the…

    • Lateral reticular nucleus

    • Locus coeruleus

    • Tubomammary nucleus

    • Substantia nigra

    • Superchiasmatic nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Tubomammary nucleus
    Explanation
    The tubomammary nucleus is responsible for the production of histamine. Histamine promotes wakefulness by transmitting signals to the entire central nervous system.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which of the following disorders manifests with both choreoform and dystonic symptoms?

    • Tardive dyskinesia

    • Huntington's disease

    • Parkinson's disease

    • Myoclonus

    • Wilson's disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Tardive dyskinesia
    Explanation
    Tardive dyskinesia is a disorder that manifests with both choreoform (involuntary, rapid, jerky movements) and dystonic (involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal postures) symptoms. It is commonly seen as a side effect of long-term use of antipsychotic medications. Huntington's disease is characterized by choreoform movements, Parkinson's disease primarily presents with tremors and rigidity, myoclonus is characterized by sudden, brief muscle contractions, and Wilson's disease primarily affects the liver and brain. Therefore, the correct answer is Tardive dyskinesia.

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Initial evaluation of an ischemic stroke patient should be made within what time interval upon arrival of the patient at the emergency room?

    • 5 minutes

    • 10 minutes

    • 15 minutes

    • 20 minutes

    • 25 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 minutes
    Explanation
    The initial evaluation of an ischemic stroke patient should be made within 10 minutes upon arrival at the emergency room. This is because time is crucial in treating ischemic strokes, as the sooner treatment is initiated, the better the chances of minimizing brain damage and improving outcomes. Prompt evaluation allows medical professionals to assess the patient's condition, confirm the diagnosis, and determine the appropriate course of treatment, such as administering clot-busting medication or performing a mechanical thrombectomy.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    A 15-year-old high school student suffered from a sudden onset of altered consciousness while chatting with his classmate. He was sent to the emergency room where neurologic examinations revealed drowsiness with slurred speech and clonic-jerky movements of his 4 limbs. No nausea or vomiting was noted. No significant social or family history. No systemic diseases, such as hypertension, diabetic mellitus or other coagulopathy. Laboratory values were within normal limits. CT revealed no hemorrhage, infarction or tumor. He regained consciousness one hour later, but with bilateral total ophthalmoplegia, no verbal output and total quadriplegia. Which of the following is consistent with his background, symptoms, and diagnostic details?

    • Internal carotid occlusion

    • Lacunar stroke syndrome

    • Posterior cerebral artery syndrome

    • Vertebrobasilar artery syndrome

    • Anterior cerebral artery syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Vertebrobasilar artery syndrome
    Explanation
    The symptoms described in the question, including altered consciousness, slurred speech, clonic-jerky movements of all four limbs, and subsequent bilateral total ophthalmoplegia, no verbal output, and total quadriplegia, are consistent with a vertebrobasilar artery syndrome. This syndrome occurs due to a blockage or occlusion in the vertebrobasilar artery, which supplies blood to the brainstem and posterior parts of the brain. The symptoms described suggest a severe and extensive impairment of blood supply to these areas, resulting in the neurological deficits observed.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    Which of the following is NOT one of the four most common presenting symptoms of meningitis?

    • Headache

    • Seizures

    • Fever

    • Meningismus

    • Altered sensorium

    Correct Answer
    A. Seizures
    Explanation
    Seizures are not one of the four most common presenting symptoms of meningitis. The four most common symptoms are headache, fever, meningismus (neck stiffness), and altered sensorium (changes in consciousness or mental status). Seizures may occur in some cases of meningitis, but they are not as common or characteristic as the other symptoms listed.

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    Mr. Smith is a 85 year old male presenting to the emergency room with a mild headache. His daughter brought him in because he described some numbness on the right side of his face. He does have a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. He was a 1ppd smoker for nearly 45 years, but quit 13 years prior. Which of the following imaging modalities would be best utilized to accurately and rapidly detect a possible ischemic stroke that may have occurred?

    • MRA

    • CTA

    • CT with contrast

    • Diffusion-weighted MRI

    • Transesophageal echocardiogram

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffusion-weighted MRI
    Explanation
    Diffusion-weighted MRI would be the best imaging modality to accurately and rapidly detect a possible ischemic stroke that may have occurred. Ischemic stroke occurs due to a blockage in the blood vessels supplying the brain, leading to a lack of blood flow and oxygen. Diffusion-weighted MRI is highly sensitive in detecting early signs of ischemic stroke by measuring the movement of water molecules in the brain. It can identify areas of restricted diffusion, indicating the presence of ischemic tissue. This imaging modality is particularly useful in the acute setting, allowing for prompt diagnosis and initiation of appropriate treatment.

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    A CT scan should be made within what time interval upon arrival of the ischemic stroke patient at the emergency room?

    • 10 minutes

    • 15 minutes

    • 20 minutes

    • 25 minutes

    • 45 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 minutes
    Explanation
    A CT scan should be made within 25 minutes upon arrival of the ischemic stroke patient at the emergency room. This is because a CT scan is crucial in determining the type of stroke and guiding the appropriate treatment. Time is of the essence in stroke cases, as early intervention can significantly improve outcomes. A prompt CT scan allows healthcare professionals to quickly assess the extent of brain damage and make informed decisions about the most suitable treatment options for the patient.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    Which of the following is NOT a clinically diagnostic feature of Huntington’s chorea?

    • Bradykinesia

    • Onset before the age of 20

    • Progressive neurological psychosis

    • Progressive destruction of the substantia nigra

    • Progressive destruction of the caudate nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Progressive destruction of the substantia nigra
    Explanation
    Huntington's chorea is a genetic disorder characterized by involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms. The progressive destruction of the substantia nigra is not a clinically diagnostic feature of Huntington's chorea. The substantia nigra is primarily associated with Parkinson's disease, not Huntington's chorea.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Which of the following drugs or drug combinations is considered the empirical treatment for a brain abscess until cultures are obtained?

    • 3rd generation cephalosporin, metronidazole

    • Ampicillin, 3rd generation cephalosporin, metronidazole

    • Penicillin G, 3rd generation cephalosporin, metronidazole

    • Ampicillin, 3rd generation cephalosporin, vancomycin

    • Penicillin G, 3rd generation cephalosporin, vancomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicillin G, 3rd generation cephalosporin, metronidazole
    Explanation
    The combination of Penicillin G, 3rd generation cephalosporin, and metronidazole is considered the empirical treatment for a brain abscess until cultures are obtained. This combination covers a broad spectrum of bacteria that are commonly associated with brain abscesses, including aerobic and anaerobic organisms. Penicillin G and the 3rd generation cephalosporin provide coverage against gram-positive bacteria, while metronidazole covers anaerobic bacteria. This combination is chosen to provide effective initial treatment while awaiting culture results to guide further therapy.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic indication in cerebrospinal fluid of encephalitis due to parasitic infection?

    • Elevated white blood cell count

    • Elevated eosinophils

    • Normal lymphocytes

    • Hypoglycorrhachia

    • Normal protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal protein
    Explanation
    In cerebrospinal fluid analysis, elevated white blood cell count, elevated eosinophils, and hypoglycorrhachia are commonly observed in encephalitis due to parasitic infection. However, normal protein levels are not typically indicative of parasitic encephalitis.

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Patients with disorders that decrease B-lymphocyte function are particularly susceptible to meningitis caused by which of the following pathogens?

    • Pneumococcus

    • Streptococcus

    • Listeria

    • Escherichia

    • Cryptococcus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pneumococcus
    Explanation
    Patients with disorders that decrease B-lymphocyte function are particularly susceptible to meningitis caused by pneumococcus. B-lymphocytes play a crucial role in the immune response, including the production of antibodies. Pneumococcus is a bacteria that commonly causes meningitis, and without functioning B-lymphocytes, the body's ability to mount an effective immune response against the bacteria is compromised. This makes patients with B-lymphocyte disorders more susceptible to pneumococcal meningitis. Streptococcus, Listeria, Escherichia, and Cryptococcus may also cause meningitis, but they are not specifically associated with decreased B-lymphocyte function.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    The stroke team should be notified within what time interval upon arrival of the ischemic stroke patient at the emergency room?

    • 5 minutes

    • 10 minutes

    • 15 minutes

    • 20 minutes

    • 25 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 minutes
    Explanation
    The stroke team should be notified within 15 minutes upon arrival of the ischemic stroke patient at the emergency room. This is because timely notification allows the stroke team to quickly assess and provide appropriate treatment to the patient. Early intervention is crucial in ischemic stroke cases to minimize brain damage and improve the chances of recovery. Therefore, notifying the stroke team within 15 minutes ensures that the patient receives prompt and effective care.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    Which of the following organisms is most responsible for bacterial meningitis in newborns?

    • Streptococcus agalactae

    • Neisseria meningitidis

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • Haemophilus influenzae

    • Listeria monocytogenes

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptococcus agalactae
    Explanation
    Streptococcus agalactae is the most responsible organism for bacterial meningitis in newborns. This bacterium is commonly found in the vaginal and gastrointestinal tracts of healthy women. During childbirth, it can be transmitted to the newborn, leading to infection. Newborns are particularly vulnerable to this type of meningitis due to their underdeveloped immune systems. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent severe complications and long-term neurological damage.

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    Which of the following imaging modality methods is the most useful for visualizing pathology of the meninges?

    • Post-T1-weighted MRI

    • Post T2-weighted MRI

    • CT with contrast

    • CT without contrast

    • PET scan

    Correct Answer
    A. Post-T1-weighted MRI
    Explanation
    Post-T1-weighted MRI is the most useful imaging modality for visualizing pathology of the meninges. This technique provides high contrast between different tissues, allowing for detailed visualization of the meninges and any associated abnormalities. It is particularly effective in detecting meningeal enhancement, which can be indicative of inflammation or infection. CT with contrast can also be helpful, but it is not as sensitive or specific as post-T1-weighted MRI in visualizing meningeal pathology. Post-T2-weighted MRI, CT without contrast, and PET scans are less useful for evaluating the meninges specifically.

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    A 29 year-old female presented to the emergency room in significant pain to the left side of her head. She describes the pain as “the worst headache of her life”. She stated that she just returned from a run and was preparing to take her blood pressure medicine for the day when the attack suddenly occurred. She has no previous history of migraines, but has been taking medicine for hypertension. Her blood pressure upon arriving at the emergency room was 182/98. Her left pupil was dilated. She exhibited neither loss of consciousness nor loss of cognition or confusion; she states that she has not injured herself recently and she is alert. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis given her symptoms and history?

    • Acute head injury

    • Acute ischemic stroke

    • Ruptured intracerebral aneurysm

    • Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage

    • Epidural hemorrhage

    Correct Answer
    A. Ruptured intracerebral aneurysm
    Explanation
    The most likely diagnosis for the patient's symptoms and history is a ruptured intracerebral aneurysm. This is indicated by the sudden onset of severe headache, the patient's history of hypertension, and the presence of a dilated left pupil. A ruptured intracerebral aneurysm can cause a sudden and severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one's life. The high blood pressure may have contributed to the rupture of the aneurysm. The dilated pupil suggests involvement of the third cranial nerve, which can occur with aneurysmal rupture.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    Patients with T-lymphocyte defects are at greater risk of developing CNS infections. Which of the following organism would be most likely responsible for a patient with a T-lymphocyte defect presenting with meningitis?

    • Herpes simplex virus

    • Cryptococcus neoformans

    • Toxoplasma gondii

    • Cytomegalovirus

    • Aspergillus niger

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptococcus neoformans
    Explanation
    Patients with T-lymphocyte defects are at greater risk of developing CNS infections. Cryptococcus neoformans is the most likely organism responsible for a patient with a T-lymphocyte defect presenting with meningitis. Cryptococcus neoformans is an opportunistic fungal pathogen that commonly causes meningitis in immunocompromised individuals, including those with T-lymphocyte defects. Other organisms listed, such as Herpes simplex virus, Toxoplasma gondii, Cytomegalovirus, and Aspergillus niger, may also cause CNS infections in immunocompromised individuals, but Cryptococcus neoformans is the most likely in this specific scenario.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    The basal ganglia are a common location for which of the following pathologies?

    • Berry aneurysm

    • Hypertensive hemorrhage

    • Ischemic stroke

    • Acute thromboembolism

    • Blunt CNS trauma

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertensive hemorrhage
    Explanation
    The basal ganglia are a common location for hypertensive hemorrhage. Hypertensive hemorrhage refers to bleeding that occurs in the brain due to high blood pressure. The basal ganglia are a group of structures located deep within the brain that play a role in motor control and movement. Hypertensive hemorrhage in the basal ganglia can lead to symptoms such as weakness, paralysis, and loss of coordination. This pathology is often associated with long-standing hypertension and can result in significant neurological deficits.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    A 65 year-old male presents to the emergency room. He states that 5 hours ago he had the onset of slurred speech and left arm weakness that improved after 2 hours. His then called his daughter who brought him to the emergency room. The patient seems healthy and has no sequelae from the recent event. Which of the following additional pieces of information would NOT support that this patient experienced a recent transient ischemic attack?

    • The patient has significant high blood pressure on which remains high while he is at the emergency room.

    • The patient has a normal MRI upon immediately arriving at the emergency room.

    • The patient has a normal CT upon immediately arriving at the emergency room.

    • The patient has an abnormal MRI seven days later.

    • The patient has an abnormal CT 12 hours later.

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient has an abnormal CT 12 hours later.
    Explanation
    The patient having an abnormal CT 12 hours later would support the diagnosis of a recent transient ischemic attack. A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction caused by a disruption in blood flow to the brain. The symptoms described by the patient, slurred speech and left arm weakness, are consistent with a TIA. The fact that the patient's blood pressure remains high in the emergency room and that the initial MRI and CT are normal do not rule out the possibility of a TIA. However, the abnormal CT 12 hours later suggests that there may be ongoing vascular issues or complications related to the TIA.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Tonsillar herniation is most commonly the result of…

    • Physical trauma

    • Ischemic stroke

    • Hemorrhagic stroke

    • Brain abscess

    • Multiple sclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemorrhagic stroke
    Explanation
    Tonsillar herniation, also known as tonsillar herniation or tonsillar ectopia, occurs when the cerebellar tonsils herniate through the foramen magnum, the opening at the base of the skull. This condition is most commonly caused by increased pressure within the skull, which can be a result of a hemorrhagic stroke. Hemorrhagic stroke refers to bleeding in the brain, which can lead to increased intracranial pressure and subsequent tonsillar herniation. Other conditions listed, such as physical trauma, ischemic stroke, brain abscess, and multiple sclerosis, may also cause increased intracranial pressure, but hemorrhagic stroke is the most common cause of tonsillar herniation.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Which of the following pathogens is the leading cause of focal central nervous system disease in AIDS patients?

    • Cryptococcus neoformans

    • Treponema pallidum

    • Toxoplasma gondii

    • Herpes simplex virus VI

    • Cytomegalovirus

    Correct Answer
    A. Toxoplasma gondii
    Explanation
    Toxoplasma gondii is the leading cause of focal central nervous system disease in AIDS patients. This parasite can cause severe brain infection, leading to symptoms such as confusion, seizures, and headaches. AIDS patients are particularly susceptible to this infection due to their weakened immune system. Cryptococcus neoformans is another opportunistic pathogen that can cause central nervous system disease in AIDS patients, but it is not the leading cause. Treponema pallidum is the bacterium responsible for syphilis, which can also affect the central nervous system but is not specific to AIDS patients. Herpes simplex virus VI and cytomegalovirus can cause central nervous system disease in AIDS patients, but they are not the leading cause compared to Toxoplasma gondii.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    Which of the following is a specific radiological diagnostic indicator of brain abscess secondary to otitis media that occurs in nearly all cases?

    • Radiologic enhancement of the temporal/parietal meninges

    • Displacement of the lateral ventricles in the ipsilateral direction of the lesion

    • Displacement of the lateral ventricles in the contralateral direction of the lesion

    • Contralateral cerebral edema

    • Retinal papilledema

    Correct Answer
    A. Radiologic enhancement of the temporal/parietal meninges
    Explanation
    Radiologic enhancement of the temporal/parietal meninges is a specific radiological diagnostic indicator of brain abscess secondary to otitis media that occurs in nearly all cases. This enhancement refers to the increased contrast uptake in the meninges, which is indicative of inflammation and infection. This finding is commonly seen in brain abscesses caused by otitis media, helping to differentiate it from other conditions. Displacement of the lateral ventricles, contralateral cerebral edema, and retinal papilledema may also be seen in brain abscesses, but they are not as specific or consistent as radiologic enhancement of the meninges.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    A 32 year-old male was brought into the emergency room with seizures and cognitive loss. The patient smelled of alcohol and numerous skin lesions were present on his arms. Radiological imaging was negative for mass lesions and a lumbar puncture was obtained which indicated numerous neutrophils, increased protein, and hypoglycorrhachia. He was subsequently treated with vancomycin and oxacillin following culture sensitivity. Which of the following is the likely offending organism?

    • Coagulase positive Staphylococcus aureus

    • Coagulase negative Staphylococcus aureus

    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • Neisseria meningitidis

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulase positive Staphylococcus aureus
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of seizures, cognitive loss, alcohol smell, and skin lesions suggests a possible brain abscess. The negative radiological imaging for mass lesions and the findings of neutrophils, increased protein, and hypoglycorrhachia in the lumbar puncture indicate an infectious process. Coagulase positive Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of brain abscesses, especially in patients with a history of alcohol abuse and skin infections. Therefore, coagulase positive Staphylococcus aureus is the likely offending organism in this case.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    Which of the following is a contraindication to performing a lumbar puncture in order to obtain cerebrospinal fluid?

    • Calcified brain lesion on a CT

    • Displaced lateral ventricles

    • Radiological evidence of severe cerebral edema

    • Petechial rash

    • Enhancing lesion on an MRI

    Correct Answer
    A. Displaced lateral ventricles
    Explanation
    Displaced lateral ventricles can be a contraindication to performing a lumbar puncture because it indicates increased intracranial pressure. Performing a lumbar puncture in such cases can cause herniation of the brain due to the pressure difference between the intracranial and intraspinal spaces. This can lead to serious complications and is therefore not recommended.

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Matthewlfowler

Recent Quizzes

Medicine Prehistoric Times And The Ancient World Quiz Medicine Prehistoric Times And The Ancient World Quiz
Clinical syndrome Clinical syndrome
What cold medicine should I take quiz What cold medicine should I take quiz
Medical Specialty Quiz - Which Medical Specialty Is It? Medical Specialty Quiz - Which Medical Specialty Is It?
Medical Students Quiz - Find Useful Information Medical Students Quiz - Find Useful Information
History of Medicine Online Quiz History of Medicine Online Quiz

Popular Topics

Back to Top Back to top
Advertisement
×

Wait!
Here's an interesting quiz for you.

We have other quizzes matching your interest.