Clinical Assessment Term 2

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| By Wildcherry26
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Quizzes Created: 10 | Total Attempts: 16,034
Questions: 36 | Attempts: 236

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Assessment Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the term denoting the disease or syndrome the person is believed to have?

    • A.

      Impairment

    • B.

      Diagnosis

    • C.

      Assessment

    • D.

      All of the above are acceptable

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Diagnosis
    Explanation
    The term "diagnosis" refers to the identification of a disease or syndrome that a person is believed to have. It involves the process of examining symptoms, conducting tests, and analyzing medical history in order to determine the specific condition or illness that the individual is experiencing. Impairment and assessment are related concepts, but they do not specifically denote the disease or syndrome itself, making them incorrect options. Therefore, the correct answer is "diagnosis."

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  • 2. 

    An assessment is only useful when your client is seeking care for a specific pain complaint.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An assessment is not only useful when your client is seeking care for a specific pain complaint. Assessments are valuable in a variety of situations, such as when a client wants to improve their overall health and wellness, prevent future injuries, or address any other health concerns they may have. Assessments help identify areas of strength and areas that need improvement, allowing the healthcare provider to develop an appropriate care plan tailored to the client's needs. Therefore, the statement that an assessment is only useful when the client has a specific pain complaint is false.

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  • 3. 

    As a massage therapist, why is it important to be proficient in clinical assessment?

    • A.

      It provides information to develop an effective treatment plan

    • B.

      To monitor the effectiveness of the treatment plan

    • C.

      It provides a means to identify impairments

    • D.

      A & C

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Being proficient in clinical assessment as a massage therapist is important because it provides information to develop an effective treatment plan. By conducting a thorough assessment, the therapist can gather relevant information about the client's condition, including any impairments or limitations. This helps in tailoring the treatment plan to address the specific needs of the client. Additionally, clinical assessment allows the therapist to monitor the effectiveness of the treatment plan over time, making adjustments as necessary to ensure optimal outcomes. Therefore, being proficient in clinical assessment is crucial for providing comprehensive and effective care to clients.

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  • 4. 

    What part of the SOAP acronym can be referred to as your "clinical impression" on the student clinic forms?

    • A.

      Subjective data

    • B.

      Objective data

    • C.

      Assessment

    • D.

      Plan

    Correct Answer
    C. Assessment
    Explanation
    The part of the SOAP acronym that can be referred to as your "clinical impression" on the student clinic forms is the Assessment. This is where the healthcare provider evaluates the subjective and objective data collected from the patient and forms a diagnosis or impression of the patient's condition. It involves analyzing the information gathered and making a judgment about the patient's health status. The assessment helps in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

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  • 5. 

    Information gathered through your observations is considered subjective data.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Subjective data refers to information that is based on personal opinions, interpretations, and experiences. It is influenced by individual biases and perspectives. In contrast, objective data is based on facts and observable phenomena. The statement suggests that information gathered through observations is subjective data, but this is incorrect. Observations can provide objective data if they are based on measurable and verifiable evidence. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 6. 

    It is not necessary to conduct an assessment when your client already has a diagnosis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Conducting an assessment is necessary even if the client already has a diagnosis. This is because assessments help gather additional information about the client's current situation, needs, and strengths. It allows for a comprehensive understanding of the client's condition, which can inform the development of an effective treatment plan. Additionally, assessments can help monitor progress, identify any changes or new issues that may arise, and ensure that the client is receiving appropriate and individualized care. Therefore, it is important to conduct assessments regardless of whether the client has a diagnosis or not.

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  • 7. 

    When assessing your client, always test the ______ side first, and perform what you suspect to be the most painful test _____.

    Correct Answer
    unaffected, last
    unaffected last
    Explanation
    When assessing a client, it is important to test the unaffected side first. This allows the practitioner to establish a baseline and compare it to the affected side. By testing the unaffected side first, any pain or limitations observed on the affected side can be better understood and evaluated. Additionally, it is recommended to perform the most painful test last. This is because the client may experience discomfort or pain during the test, and it is best to minimize any potential discomfort by conducting it towards the end of the assessment.

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  • 8. 

    When conducting the assessment, the therapist's goal by the end of the subjective part of the assessment is to _______________________________. (Step 2 of the Evaluative Phase of Clinical Decision Making)

    Correct Answer
    generate a preliminary hypothesis
    Explanation
    The therapist's goal by the end of the subjective part of the assessment is to generate a preliminary hypothesis. This means that they aim to gather enough information from the patient's subjective account of their symptoms and history to form an initial understanding of the possible causes or factors contributing to their condition. This preliminary hypothesis will guide the therapist in the objective part of the assessment, where they will gather more objective data to confirm or refine their hypothesis and inform their treatment plan.

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  • 9. 

    Provide an example of a means to record the client's perceived level/severity of pain.

  • 10. 

    Asking leading questions during client history intake is a god way to speed up the process.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Asking leading questions during client history intake is not a good way to speed up the process. Leading questions can influence or bias the client's responses, leading to inaccurate or incomplete information. It is important to ask open-ended and neutral questions to gather objective and unbiased information during the intake process.

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  • 11. 

    The following sequence of events would be the most appropriate when conducting an assessment:

    • A.

      Case history, observations, lesion site palpation, functional tests

    • B.

      Case history, functional tests, lesion site palpation, special tests

    • C.

      Case history, observations, functional tests, lesion site palpation

    • D.

      Case history, functional tests, observations, lesion site palpation

    Correct Answer
    C. Case history, observations, functional tests, lesion site palpation
    Explanation
    The most appropriate sequence of events when conducting an assessment is to start with the case history, which involves gathering information about the patient's medical history, symptoms, and any relevant background information. This is followed by observations, where the healthcare professional visually assesses the patient's physical appearance, posture, and any visible abnormalities. Next, functional tests are conducted to evaluate the patient's specific abilities and limitations. Finally, lesion site palpation is performed to identify any areas of tenderness or abnormalities in the affected area. This sequence allows for a comprehensive assessment that considers both the patient's history and physical presentation.

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  • 12. 

    As an injury resolves, the area of pain decreases and becomes more localized. This is referred to as ___________.

    Correct Answer
    centralization
    Explanation
    Centralization refers to the process where pain that was initially widespread or radiating becomes more focused and localized to a specific area as an injury heals. This phenomenon is commonly observed as the body's natural response to injury resolution.

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  • 13. 

    Give three components of the assessment that might be considered objective data.

  • 14. 

    Through your intake, you believe you are assessing an injury to the medial collateral ligament of the knee. The order you would perform your functional testing would be _____________, __________________ then _______________.

    Correct Answer
    Active Free, Active resisted, passive relaxed
    AF, AR, PR
    AF AR PR
    Active Free Active resisted passive relaxed
    Explanation
    The correct order to perform functional testing for an injury to the medial collateral ligament of the knee is Active Free, Active resisted, passive relaxed. This order allows for a comprehensive assessment of the ligament's function and stability. Active Free testing evaluates the ligament's integrity during normal movement, Active resisted testing assesses its strength and resistance to external force, and passive relaxed testing examines its laxity and range of motion. This sequence ensures a thorough evaluation of the ligament's condition.

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  • 15. 

    Describe the following testing position, including appropriate joint angles: Hooklying.

  • 16. 

    Describe the following testing position, including appropriate joint angles: Long seated.

  • 17. 

    Ligaments are a likely source of pain during active resisted.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Ligaments are not a likely source of pain during active resisted movements. Ligaments are tough bands of connective tissue that connect bones to other bones, providing stability to joints. They do not have nerve endings, so they do not typically cause pain. The more common sources of pain during active resisted movements are muscles, tendons, or other soft tissues. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 18. 

    Repetitive strain injuries typically present with an incidious onset.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Repetitive strain injuries often have a gradual and subtle onset, meaning that they develop slowly over time and may not be immediately noticeable. This is why they are described as "insidious." Therefore, the statement "Repetitive strain injuries typically present with an insidious onset" is true.

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  • 19. 

    __________ testing most specifically targets the non-contractile structures of the affected joint.

    Correct Answer
    Passive relaxed
    PR
    Explanation
    Passive relaxed (PR) testing is a specific type of testing that focuses on evaluating the non-contractile structures of a joint. This means that it assesses the structures that are not directly involved in the contraction or movement of the joint, such as ligaments, joint capsules, and other connective tissues. PR testing is typically performed by a healthcare professional who gently moves the joint through its range of motion while the patient remains relaxed. This type of testing can help identify any abnormalities or restrictions in the non-contractile structures of the affected joint.

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  • 20. 

    When performing an active resisted test, the joint being tested should be placed in a __________ position, then the client is asked to perform a(n) ___________ contraction.

    Correct Answer
    neutral, isometric
    neutral isometric
    Explanation
    During an active resisted test, the joint being tested should be placed in a neutral position. This means that the joint should not be flexed or extended, but rather positioned in a natural, relaxed state. The client is then asked to perform an isometric contraction, which means that they are instructed to contract their muscles without any movement at the joint. This allows for a focused assessment of the client's strength and stability in that specific joint position.

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  • 21. 

    The endfeel that describes what is felt at the end of normal range of motion that is resistant to further movement by the joint capsule and/or ligaments is called _______________.

    Correct Answer
    tissue stretch
    Explanation
    The term "tissue stretch" refers to the sensation felt at the end of the normal range of motion when the joint capsule and/or ligaments resist further movement. This sensation indicates that the tissues have reached their maximum stretch and cannot be stretched any further.

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  • 22. 

    An endfeel that is "sudden and hard" and accompanied by pain is likely due to ____________.

    Correct Answer
    muscle spasm
    spasm
    Explanation
    An endfeel that is "sudden and hard" and accompanied by pain is likely due to muscle spasm or spasm. Muscle spasms are involuntary contractions of muscles that can cause sudden and intense pain. They can occur due to various reasons such as overuse, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, or nerve irritation. When a muscle spasm occurs, it can result in a sudden and hard endfeel, which refers to the sensation felt at the end of a joint's range of motion. This endfeel, along with the presence of pain, suggests that muscle spasm is the likely cause.

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  • 23. 

    When performing active resisted testing, a strong and painful contraction most likely indicates:

    • A.

      Complete rupture of the muscle or tendon

    • B.

      A severe lesion of the musculotendinous unit

    • C.

      A minor lesion of the musculotendinous unit

    • D.

      No lesion would be suspected

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. A minor lesion of the musculotendinous unit
    Explanation
    A strong and painful contraction during active resisted testing most likely indicates a minor lesion of the musculotendinous unit. This means that there may be a small tear or injury to the muscle or tendon, but it is not severe enough to cause a complete rupture or a severe lesion.

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  • 24. 

    According to the Oxford Manual Muscle testing Scale, what grade would be given when a muscular contraction can overcome the force of gravity, but not any added resistance?

    Correct Answer
    Grade 3
    3
    Gr 3
    Explanation
    Grade 3 would be given when a muscular contraction can overcome the force of gravity, but not any added resistance. This means that the muscle is able to move the body part against gravity, but cannot generate enough force to overcome any additional resistance.

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  • 25. 

    Endfeel is determined by applying ________________ at the end range of full and pain free passive relaxed range of motion.

    Correct Answer
    overpressure
    over pressure
    Explanation
    Endfeel is determined by applying overpressure or over pressure at the end range of full and pain-free passive relaxed range of motion. This technique involves applying additional force beyond the normal range of motion to assess the quality of the endfeel. It helps to identify the type of resistance felt at the end of the joint's range, such as a hard or soft endfeel, which can provide valuable information about the condition of the joint and surrounding tissues.

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  • 26. 

    Palpation can be applied with varying directional forces. What are the two primary directions that these forces can be applied in relation to the tissues being palpated?

  • 27. 

    List two things (objects of palpation) that can be evaluated through palpation.

  • 28. 

    Tingling or parasthesia would most likely be produced by _____________ impairment.

    Correct Answer
    cardiovascular
    neurological
    nerve
    Explanation
    Tingling or parasthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like pins and needles, is most likely caused by impairment in the cardiovascular, neurological, or nerve systems. These systems are responsible for transmitting signals and maintaining proper functioning of the body. Any disruption or damage to these systems can lead to tingling or parasthesia.

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  • 29. 

    _____________ ROM/functional testing helps the therapist to understand the client's willingness to move a joint and the amoung of function at that joint.

    Correct Answer
    Active free
    AF
    Explanation
    ROM/functional testing helps the therapist to understand the client's willingness to move a joint and the amount of function at that joint. Active free (AF) refers to the client's ability to independently move a joint without any assistance or resistance. This type of testing allows the therapist to assess the client's active range of motion and determine their level of function and mobility in that joint.

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  • 30. 

    What are four questions you would ask to gain a better understanding about your client's pain?

  • 31. 

    What are three factors that can affect posture?

  • 32. 

    Poor posture can give rise to pain.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Poor posture can give rise to pain because it puts strain on the muscles and ligaments, causing them to work harder to maintain balance and support the body. This can lead to muscle imbalances, tension, and discomfort. Additionally, poor posture can also lead to misalignment of the spine, which can result in chronic pain and various musculoskeletal issues. Therefore, it is important to maintain good posture to prevent pain and promote overall musculoskeletal health.

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  • 33. 

    Postural assessment is a means by which we can confirm muscular shortness and/or weakness.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Postural assessment is a means by which we can evaluate and analyze an individual's posture, alignment, and movement patterns. It helps us identify any imbalances, asymmetries, or abnormalities in the musculoskeletal system. However, it does not directly confirm muscular shortness and/or weakness. It provides valuable information that can guide us in identifying potential areas of concern, but further assessments and tests are required to confirm muscular imbalances. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 34. 

    Trigger point related pain is usually described as very sharp and point specific.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Trigger point related pain is not usually described as very sharp and point specific. Trigger points are actually small, tight knots in the muscles that can cause pain in other areas of the body known as referred pain. This pain is often described as a dull ache or a deep, constant pain rather than a sharp and point specific sensation. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 35. 

    During an isometric contraction, you would not observe any movement at the joint.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During an isometric contraction, the muscle is activated and generating force, but there is no change in the length of the muscle or movement at the joint. This is because the force generated by the muscle is equal to the resistance it is working against, resulting in a static position. Therefore, it is true that during an isometric contraction, no movement is observed at the joint.

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  • 36. 

    Which joints would you need to rule out injury to before assessing the ankle joint?

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 23, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Wildcherry26
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