Fundamentals Of Nursing Test II : Infection, Asepsis, Basic Concept Of Stress And Illness (Practice Mode)- Rnpedia.Com
Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. No time Limit. Correct answer will be revealed after each question. Good luck ! CONTENT OUTLINEIllnessInfection and AsepsisBasic concept of Stress and Adaptation
Questions and Answers
- 1.
When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
- A.
Pupils will constrict
- B.
Client will be lethargic
- C.
Lungs will bronchodilate
- D.
Gastric motility will increase
Correct Answer
C. Lungs will bronchodilateExplanation
To better understand the concept : The autonomic nervous system is composed of SYMPATHETIC and PARASYMPATHETIC Nervous system. It is called AUTONOMIC Because it is Involuntary and stimuli based. You cannot tell your heart to kindly beat for 60 per minute, Nor, Tell your blood vessels, Please constrict, because you need to wear skirt today and your varicosities are bulging. Sympathetic Nervous system is the FIGHT or FLIGHT mechanism. When people FIGHT or RUN, we tend to stimulate the ANS and dominate over SNS. Just Imagine a person FIGHTING and RUNNING to get the idea on the signs of SNS Domination. Imagine a resting and digesting person to get a picture of PNS Domination. A person RUNNING or FIGHTING Needs to bronchodilate, because the oxygen need is increased due to higher demand of the body. Pupils will DILATE to be able to see the enemy clearly. Client will be fully alert to dodge attacks and leap through obstacles during running. The client's gastric motility will DECREASE Because you cannot afford to urinate or defecate during fighting nor running.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
- A.
The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
- B.
The client will be restless and alert
- C.
Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
- D.
There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
Correct Answer
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilationExplanation
If vasodilation will occur, The BP will not increase but decrease. It is true that Blood pressure increases during SNS Stimulation due to the fact that we need more BLOOD to circulate during the FIGHT or FLIGHT Response because the oxygen demand has increased, but this is facilitated by vasoconstriction and not vasodilation. A,B and D are all correct. The liver will increase glycogenolysis or glycogen store utilization due to a heightened demand for energy. Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion because almost every aspect of digestion that is controlled by Parasympathetic nervous system is inhibited when the SNS dominates.Rate this question:
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- 3.
State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
- A.
Illness
- B.
Disease
- C.
Health
- D.
Wellness
Correct Answer
A. IllnessExplanation
Disease is a PROVEN FACT based on a medical theory, standards, diagnosis and clinical feature while ILLNESS Is a subjective state of not feeling well based on subjective appraisal, previous experience, peer advice etc.Rate this question:
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- 4.
This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
- A.
Symptom Experience
- B.
Assumption of sick role
- C.
Medical care contact
- D.
Dependent patient role
Correct Answer
A. Symptom ExperienceExplanation
A favorite board question are Stages of Illness. When a person starts to believe something is wrong, that person is experiencing signs and symptoms of an illness. The patient will then ASSUME that he is sick. This is called assumption of the sick role where the patient accepts he is Ill and try to give up some activities. Since the client only ASSUMES his illness, he will try to ask someone to validate if what he is experiencing is a disease, This is now called as MEDICAL CARE CONTACT. The client seeks professional advice for validation, reassurance, clarification and explanation of the symptoms he is experiencing. client will then start his dependent patient role of receiving care from the health care providers. The last stage of Illness is the RECOVERY stage where the patient gives up the sick role and assumes the previous normal gunctions.Rate this question:
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- 5.
In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
- A.
Symptom Experience
- B.
Assumption of sick role
- C.
Medical care contact
- D.
Dependent patient role
Correct Answer
D. Dependent patient roleExplanation
In the dependent patient role stage, Client needs professionals for help. They have a choice either to accept or reject the professional's decisions but patients are usually passive and accepting. Regression tends to occur more in this period.Rate this question:
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- 6.
In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
- A.
Symptom Experience
- B.
Assumption of sick role
- C.
Medical care contact
- D.
Dependent patient role
Correct Answer
B. Assumption of sick roleExplanation
Acceptance of illness occurs in the Assumption of sick role phase of illness.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
- A.
Symptom Experience
- B.
Assumption of sick role
- C.
Medical care contact
- D.
Dependent patient role
Correct Answer
C. Medical care contactExplanation
At this stage, The patient seeks for validation of his symptom experience. He wants to find out if what he feels are normal or not normal. He wants someone to explain why is he feeling these signs and symptoms and wants to know the probable outcome of this experience.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
- A.
One should be held responsible for his condition
- B.
One is excused from his societal role
- C.
One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
- D.
One is obliged to seek competent help
Correct Answer
A. One should be held responsible for his conditionExplanation
The nurse should not judge the patient and not view the patient as the cause or someone responsible for his illness. A sick client is excused from his societal roles, Oblige to get well as soon as possible and Obliged to seek competent help.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident
- A.
Predisposing factor
- B.
Etiology
- C.
Risk factor
- D.
Modifiable Risks
Correct Answer
C. Risk factorExplanation
A risk factor refers to a condition or characteristic that increases the vulnerability of an individual or group to illness or accident. It is something that can contribute to the development of a health problem or increase the likelihood of an accident occurring. Risk factors can be modifiable, meaning they can be changed or controlled, or non-modifiable, meaning they cannot be changed. In this context, the term "risk factor" is the most appropriate choice as it accurately describes the conditions that increase vulnerability to illness or accident.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
- A.
Susceptibility
- B.
Immunity
- C.
Virulence
- D.
Etiology
Correct Answer
A. SusceptibilityExplanation
Immunity is the ABSOLUTE Resistance to a pathogen considering that person has an INTACT IMMUNITY while susceptibility is the DEGREE of resistance. Degree of resistance means how well would the individual combat the pathogens and repel infection or invasion of these disease causing organisms. A susceptible person is someone who has a very low degree of resistance to combat pathogens. An Immune person is someone that can easily repel specific pathogens. However, Remember that even if a person is IMMUNE [ Vaccination ] Immunity can always be impaired in cases of chemotherapy, HIV, Burns, etc.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
- A.
Syndrome
- B.
Symptoms
- C.
Signs
- D.
Etiology
Correct Answer
A. SyndromeExplanation
Symptoms are individual manifestation of a certain disease. For example, In Tourette syndrome, patient will manifest TICS, but this alone is not enough to diagnose the patient as other diseases has the same tic manifestation. Syndrome means COLLECTION of these symptoms that occurs together to characterize a certain disease. Tics with coprolalia, echolalia, palilalia, choreas or other movement disorders are characteristics of TOURETTE SYNDROME.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
- A.
Neoplastic
- B.
Traumatic
- C.
Nosocomial
- D.
Iatrogenic
Correct Answer
D. IatrogenicExplanation
Iatrogenic diseases refers to those that resulted from treatment of a certain disease. For example, A child frequently exposed to the X-RAY Machine develops redness and partial thickness burns over the chest area. Neoplastic are malignant diseases cause by proliferation of abnormally growing cells. Traumatic are brought about by injuries like Motor vehicular accidents. Nosocomial are infections that acquired INSIDE the hospital. Example is UTI Because of catheterization, This is commonly caused by E.Coli.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as 1. Nosocomial 2. Idiopathic 3. Neoplastic 4. Traumatic 5. Congenital 6. Degenrative
- A.
5 and 2
- B.
2 and 3
- C.
3 and 4
- D.
3 and 5
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3Explanation
Aside from being NEOPLASTIC, Cancer is considered as IDIOPATHIC because the cause is UNKNOWN.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
- A.
Remission
- B.
Emission
- C.
Exacerbation
- D.
Sub acute
Correct Answer
C. ExacerbationExplanation
Exacerbation is the correct answer because it refers to the reactivation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease. It is a term used to describe a worsening or flare-up of symptoms, where the disease becomes more severe or intense. This can happen after a period of remission or when the disease is not well-controlled. Exacerbations can be triggered by various factors such as stress, infection, or exposure to certain substances.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
- A.
Chronic
- B.
Acute
- C.
Sub acute
- D.
Sub chronic
Correct Answer
A. ChronicExplanation
A good example is Multiple sclerosis that characterized by periods of remissions and exacerbation and it is a CHRONIC Disease. An acute and sub acute diseases occurs too short to manifest remissions. Chronic diseases persists longer than 6 months that is why remissions and exacerbation are observable.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
- A.
Functional
- B.
Occupational
- C.
Inorganic
- D.
Organic
Correct Answer
D. OrganicExplanation
As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.Rate this question:
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- 17.
It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
- A.
Epidemiology
- B.
Ecology
- C.
Statistics
- D.
Geography
Correct Answer
B. EcologyExplanation
Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.Rate this question:
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- 18.
This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
- A.
Epidemiology
- B.
Ecology
- C.
Statistics
- D.
Geography
Correct Answer
A. EpidemiologyExplanation
Ecology is the science that deals with the ECOSYSTEM and its effects on living things in the biosphere. It deals with diseases in relationship with the environment. Epidimiology is simply the Study of diseases and its occurence and distribution in man for the purpose of controlling and preventing diseases. This was asked during the previous boards.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.
- A.
Functional
- B.
Occupational
- C.
Inorganic
- D.
Organic
Correct Answer
C. InorganicExplanation
As the word implies, ORGANIC Diseases are those that causes a CHANGE in the structure of the organs and systems. Inorganic diseases is synonymous with FUNCTIONAL diseases wherein, There is no evident structural, anatomical or physical change in the structure of the organ or system but function is altered due to other causes, which is usually due to abnormal response of the organ to stressors. Therefore, ORGANIC BRAIN SYNDROME are anatomic and physiologic change in the BRAIN that is NON PROGRESSIVE BUT IRREVERSIBLE caused by alteration in structure of the brain and it's supporting structure which manifests different sign and symptoms of neurological, physiologic and psychologic alterations. Mental disorders manifesting symptoms of psychoses without any evident organic or structural damage are termed as INORGANIC PSYCHOSES while alteration in the organ structures that causes symptoms of bizaare pyschotic behavior is termed as ORGANIC PSYCHOSES.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. TertiaryExplanation
Perhaps one of the easiest concept but asked frequently in the NLE. Primary refers to preventions that aims in preventing the disease. Examples are healthy lifestyle, good nutrition, knowledge seeking behaviors etc. Secondary prevention are those that deals with early diagnostics, case finding and treatments. Examples are monthly breast self exam, Chest X-RAY, Antibiotic treatment to cure infection, Iron therapy to treat anemia etc. Tertiary prevention aims on maintaining optimum level of functioning during or after the impact of a disease that threatens to alter the normal body functioning. Examples are prosthetis fitting for an amputated leg after an accident, Self monitoring of glucose among diabetics, TPA Therapy after stroke etc.
The confusing part is between the treatment in secondary and treatment in tertiary. To best differentiate the two, A client with ANEMIA that is being treated with ferrous sulfate is considered being in the SECONDARY PREVENTION because ANEMIA once treated, will move the client on PRE ILLNESS STATE again. However, In cases of ASPIRING Therapy in cases of stroke, ASPIRING no longer cure the patient or PUT HIM IN THE PRE ILLNESS STATE. ASA therapy is done in order to prevent coagulation of the blood that can lead to thrombus formation and a another possible stroke. You might wonder why I spelled ASPIRIN as ASPIRING, Its side effect is OTOTOXICITY [ CN VIII ] that leads to TINNITUS or ringing of the ears.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
The nurse never increases the person's susceptibility to illness but rather, LESSEN the person's susceptibility to illness.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. SecondaryExplanation
Secondary prevention is also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE Prevention. Here, The person feels signs and symptoms and seeks Diagnosis and treatment in order to prevent deblitating complications. Even if the person feels healthy, We are required to MAINTAIN our health by monthly check ups, Physical examinations, Diagnostics etc.Rate this question:
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- 23.
PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. PrimaryExplanation
PPD or PERSONAL PROTECTIVE DEVICES are worn by the works in a hazardous environment to protect them from injuries and hazards. This is considered as a PRIMARY prevention because the nurse prevents occurence of diseases and injuries.Rate this question:
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- 24.
BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. PrimaryExplanation
BCG in community health nursing is considered as a primary prevention measure. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs. In this case, BCG vaccination helps to prevent the occurrence of tuberculosis (TB) by providing immunity against the disease. By vaccinating individuals, especially children, before they are exposed to the TB bacteria, the spread of the disease can be reduced, and the overall incidence of TB can be decreased in the community.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. SecondaryExplanation
This practice of having regular pap smears every 3 years after establishing normal pap smears for 3 consecutive years belongs to the level of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat diseases at an early stage to prevent their progression and reduce the impact of the disease on the individual's health. In this case, regular pap smears are done to detect any abnormal cells in the cervix early on, which can help in the early detection and treatment of cervical cancer, if present.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
- A.
Primary
- B.
Secondary
- C.
Tertiary
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. TertiaryExplanation
Self-monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is considered a form of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage the existing condition to minimize its impact. In the case of diabetes, self-monitoring of blood glucose levels allows individuals to track their levels and make necessary adjustments to their medication, diet, and lifestyle to prevent complications such as hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. This form of prevention is implemented after the disease has already developed and focuses on managing and controlling it to improve the individual's quality of life.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
- A.
Newspaper
- B.
School bulletins
- C.
Community bill boards
- D.
Radio and Television
Correct Answer
D. Radio and TelevisionExplanation
An actual board question, The best way to disseminate information to the public is by TELEVISION followed by RADIO. This is how the DOH establish its IEC Programs other than publishing posters, leaflets and brochures. An emerging new way to disseminate is through the internet.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?
- A.
Newman
- B.
Neuman
- C.
Watson
- D.
Rogers
Correct Answer
B. NeumanExplanation
The supra and subsystems are theories of Martha Rogers but the parts and subparts are Betty Neuman's. She stated that HEALTH is a state where in all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system. Margarex Newman defined health as an EXPANDING CONSCIOUSNESS. Her name is Margaret not Margarex, I just used that to help you remember her theory of health.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The following are concept of health: 1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity. 2. Health is the ability to maintain balance 3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu 4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
- A.
1,2,3
- B.
1,3,4
- C.
2,3,4
- D.
1,2,3,4
Correct Answer
D. 1,2,3,4Explanation
All of the following are correct statement about health. The first one is the definition by WHO, The second one is from Walter Cannon's homeostasis theory. Third one is from Claude Bernard's concept of Health as Internal Milieu and the last one is Neuman's Theory.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
- A.
Bernard
- B.
Selye
- C.
Cannon
- D.
Rogers
Correct Answer
C. CannonExplanation
Walter Cannon advocated health as HOMEOSTASIS or the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium. Hans Selye postulated Concepts about Stress and Adaptation. Bernard defined health as the ability to maintain internal milieu and Rogers defined Health as Wellness that is influenced by individual's culture.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
- A.
Genetics
- B.
Age
- C.
Environment
- D.
Lifestyle
Correct Answer
D. LifestyleExplanation
Excessive alcohol intake is considered a lifestyle risk factor. Lifestyle risk factors are behaviors or choices that individuals make that can increase their likelihood of developing certain health conditions or diseases. Excessive alcohol intake is a choice that individuals make, and it can have negative effects on their health, such as liver damage, addiction, and increased risk of accidents or injuries. By choosing to engage in excessive alcohol consumption, individuals are putting themselves at risk for these negative health outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
- A.
Genetics
- B.
Age
- C.
Environment
- D.
Lifestyle
Correct Answer
B. AgeExplanation
Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis are classified as age-related risk factors. This means that as a person gets older, their risk of developing these conditions increases. Age-related factors can include natural wear and tear on the body, decreased bone density, and a decline in overall joint health. While genetics, environment, and lifestyle can also play a role in the development of these conditions, age is a significant factor that cannot be controlled or changed.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
- A.
Surgical Asepsis
- B.
Medical Asepsis
- C.
Sepsis
- D.
Asepsis
Correct Answer
A. Surgical AsepsisExplanation
Surgical Asepsis is also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE while Medical Asepsis is synonymous with CLEAN TECHNIQUE.Rate this question:
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- 34.
This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another
- A.
Host
- B.
Agent
- C.
Environment
- D.
Carrier
Correct Answer
D. CarrierExplanation
A carrier is a person or animal who does not show any signs of illness but carries a pathogen within their body. They can unknowingly transmit the pathogen to others. Carriers play a crucial role in the spread of infectious diseases as they can act as a reservoir for the pathogen, allowing it to persist and be transmitted to susceptible individuals. It is important to identify carriers and take appropriate measures to prevent the spread of the pathogen.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
- A.
Carrier
- B.
Contact
- C.
Agent
- D.
Host
Correct Answer
B. ContactExplanation
The term "contact" refers to a person or animal who has been in close proximity or direct interaction with a disease-infected individual or carrier. This individual is at risk of contracting the disease themselves due to the exposure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
- A.
Sterilization
- B.
Disinfectant
- C.
Antiseptic
- D.
Autoclave
Correct Answer
B. DisinfectantExplanation
Disinfectants are used on inanimate objects while Antiseptics are intended for use on persons and other living things. Both can kill and inhibit growth of microorganism but cannot kill their spores. That is when autoclaving or steam under pressure gets in, Autoclaving can kill almost ALL type of microoganism including their spores.Rate this question:
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- 37.
This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
- A.
Sterilization
- B.
Auto claving
- C.
Disinfection
- D.
Medical asepsis
Correct Answer
C. DisinfectionExplanation
Sterilization and auto claving are capable on killing spores. Autoclaving is a form of Sterilization. Medical Asepsis is a PRACTICE designed to minimize or reduce the transfer of pathogens, also known as your CLEAN TECHNIQUE. Disinfection is the PROCESS of removing pathogens but not their spores.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms
- A.
Incubation period
- B.
Prodromal period
- C.
Illness period
- D.
Convalescent period
Correct Answer
C. Illness periodExplanation
In incubation period, The disease has been introduced to the body but no sign and symptom appear because the pathogen is not yet strong enough to cause it and may still need to multiply. The second period is called prodromal period. This is when the appearance of non specific signs and symptoms sets in, This is when the sign and symptoms starts to appear. Illness period is characterized by the appearance of specific signs and symptoms or refer tp as time with the greatest symptom experience. Acme is the PEAK of illness intensity while the convalescent period is characterized by the abatement of the disease process or it's gradual disappearance.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
- A.
Incubation period
- B.
Prodromal period
- C.
Illness period
- D.
Convalescent period
Correct Answer
B. Prodromal periodExplanation
To be able to categorize MEASLES in the Illness period, the specific signs of Fever, Koplik's Spot and Rashes must appear. In the situation above, Only general signs and symptoms appeared and the Specific signs and symptoms is yet to appear, therefore, the illness is still in the Prodromal period. Signs and symptoms of measles during the prodromal phase are Fever, fatigue, runny nose, cough and conjunctivitis. Koplik's spot heralds the Illness period and cough is the last symptom to disappear. All of this processes take place in 10 days that is why, Measles is also known as 10 day measles.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?
- A.
Incubation period
- B.
Prodromal period
- C.
Illness period
- D.
Convalescent period
Correct Answer
A. Incubation periodExplanation
Anthrax can have an incubation period of hours to 7 days with an average of 48 hours. Since the question stated exposure, we can now assume that the mailman is in the incubation period.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases
- A.
Etiologic/Infectious agent
- B.
Portal of Entry
- C.
Susceptible host
- D.
Mode of transmission
Correct Answer
D. Mode of transmissionExplanation
Mode of transmission is the weakest link in the chain of infection. It is easily manipulated by the Nurses using the tiers of prevention, either by instituting transmission based precautions, Universal precaution or Isolation techniques.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain? 1. Susceptible host 2. Portal of entry 3. Portal of exit 4. Etiologic agent 5. Reservoir 6. Mode of transmission
- A.
1,2,3,4,5,6
- B.
5,4,2,3,6,1
- C.
4,5,3,6,2,1
- D.
6,5,4,3,2,1
Correct Answer
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1Explanation
Chain of infection starts with the SOURCE : The etiologic agent itself. It will first proliferate on a RESERVOIR and will need a PORTAL OF EXIT to be able to TRANSMIT irslef using a PORTAL OF ENTRY to a SUSCEPTIBLE HOST. A simple way to understand the process is by looking at the lives of a young queen ant that is starting to build her colony. Imagine the QUEEN ANT as a SOURCE or the ETIOLOGIC AGENT. She first need to build a COLONY, OR the RESERVOIR where she will start to lay the first eggs to be able to produce her worker ants and soldier ants to be able to defend and sustain the new colony. They need to EXIT [PORTAL OF EXIT] their colony and crawl [MODE OF TRANSMISSION] in search of foods by ENTERING / INVADING [PORTAL OF ENTRY] our HOUSE [SUSCEPTIBLE HOST]. By imagining the Ant's life cycle, we can easily arrange the chain of infection.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
- A.
Direct contact transmission
- B.
Vehicle borne transmission
- C.
Air borne transmission
- D.
Vector borne transmission
Correct Answer
D. Vector borne transmissionExplanation
Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia Burdorferi and is transmitted by a TICK BITE.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except
- A.
Pathogenicity
- B.
Virulence
- C.
Invasiveness
- D.
Non Specificity
Correct Answer
D. Non SpecificityExplanation
To be able to cause a disease, A pathogen should have a TARGET ORGAN/S. The pathogen should be specific to these organs to cause an infection. Mycobacterium Avium is NON SPECIFIC to human organs and therefore, not infective to humans but deadly to birds. An immunocompromised individual, specially AIDS Patient, could be infected with these NON SPECIFIC diseases due to impaired immune system.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
- A.
Urinary catheterization
- B.
Spread from patient to patient
- C.
Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
- D.
Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
Correct Answer
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiverExplanation
The hands of the caregiver like nurses, is the main cause of cross contamination in hospital setting. That is why HANDWASHING is the single most important procedure to prevent the occurence of cross contamination and nosocomial infection. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses refers to Nosocomial infection and UTI is the most common noscomial infection in the hospital caused by urinary catheterization. E.Coli seems to be the major cause of this incident.Spread from patient to patient best fits Cross Contamination, It is the spread of microogranisms from patient o patient.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
- A.
Droplet transmission
- B.
Airborne transmission
- C.
Vehicle transmission
- D.
Vector borne transmission
Correct Answer
A. Droplet transmissionExplanation
Droplet transmission occurs when an infected person releases respiratory droplets through actions such as sneezing, coughing, or laughing. These droplets are relatively large and heavy, so they typically travel a short distance of around 3 feet before falling to the ground. This mode of transmission is different from airborne transmission, where smaller particles can remain suspended in the air for longer periods and travel greater distances. Vehicle transmission refers to the transmission of a pathogen through contaminated objects or substances, while vector-borne transmission involves the transfer of a pathogen through a vector, such as a mosquito or tick.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
- A.
Skin
- B.
WBC
- C.
Leukocytes
- D.
Immunization
Correct Answer
A. SkinExplanation
Remember that intact skin and mucus membrane is our first line of defense against infection.Rate this question:
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- 48.
All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
- A.
Creed
- B.
Immunization
- C.
Current medication being taken
- D.
Color of the skin
Correct Answer
A. CreedExplanation
Creed, Faith or religious belief do not affect person's susceptibility to illness. Medication like corticosteroids could supress a person's immune system that will lead to increase susceptibility. Color of the skin could affect person's susceptibility to certain skin diseases. A dark skinned person has lower risk of skin cancer than a fair skinned person. Fair skinned person also has a higher risk for cholecystitis and cholelithiasis.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
- A.
Natural active immunity
- B.
Natural passive immunity
- C.
Artificial active immunity
- D.
Artificial passive immunity
Correct Answer
C. Artificial active immunityExplanation
TT1 ti TT2 are considered the primary dose, while TT3 to TT5 are the booster dose. A woman with completed immunization of DPT need not receive TT1 and TT2. Tetanus toxoid is the actual toxin produce by clostridium tetani but on its WEAK and INACTIVATED form. It is Artificial because it did not occur in the course of actual illness or infection, it is Active because what has been passed is an actual toxin and not a ready made immunoglobulin.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
- A.
Natural active immunity
- B.
Natural passive immunity
- C.
Artificial active immunity
- D.
Artificial passive immunity
Correct Answer
D. Artificial passive immunityExplanation
In this scenario, Agatha was already wounded and has injuries. Giving the toxin [TT Vaccine] itself would not help Agatha because it will take time before the immune system produce antitoxin. What agatha needs now is a ready made anti toxin in the form of ATS or TTIg. This is artificial, because the body of agatha did not produce it. It is passive because her immune system is not stimulated but rather, a ready made Immune globulin is given to immediately supress the invasion.Rate this question:
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May 14, 2012Quiz Created by
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