ATI Finals As Derived From ATI Text For Nursing Fundamentals, Part II

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About This Quiz

Questions derived from Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 7.0, application exercises. Chapter 35 through Chapter 57, pages 348 through 636. For any questions or suggestions, email at arnoldjr2@gmail. Com

ATI Finals As Derived From ATI Text For Nursing Fundamentals, Part II - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following can be recommended to a patient suffering from constipation?

    • Fresh fruits and whole wheat toast

    • Noodles with beef tips

    • Mashed potatoes with gravy

    • Macaroni and cheese

    Correct Answer
    A. Fresh fruits and whole wheat toast
    Explanation
    A high fiber diet promotes normal bowel elimination. Fruits and toast is a high fiber option. Noodles with beef tips, mashed potatoes with gravy, and macaroni with cheese are low fiber food

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  • 3. 

    A patient has been sitting on a chair for 3 hours. Which of the following could this patient be at risk for?

    • Stasis of secretions

    • Muscle atrophy

    • Pressure ulcer

    • Fecal impaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure ulcer
    Explanation
    Unrelieved pressure over a bony prominence for a long period increase risk for skin breakdown. Sitting up in a chair will help prevent stasis of secretions. Muscle atrophy and fecal impaction would be complications for a client on prolonged bed rest.

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  • 4. 

    A client experiences dyspnea and reports feeling tired after completing her morning care. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client's plan of care for the next day?  

    • Plan several rest periods during morning care

    • Do not offer any morning care

    • Perform all of the client's care as quickly as possible

    • Ask a family member to come in to give the client a bath.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plan several rest periods during morning care
    Explanation
    Planning for several rest periods during morning care will help prevent fatigue and continue to foster independence. Fatigue and dyspnea are not reasons to eliminate morning care. Performing all of the client's care or having a family member do it will reduce the client's independence.

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  • 5. 

    After an enteral feeding is given, what is the purpose of flushing a tube?

    • Provide sufficient fluid intake

    • Dilute concentration of formula

    • Clear the tubing to prevent clogging

    • Ensure placement of tube is maintained

    Correct Answer
    A. Clear the tubing to prevent clogging
    Explanation
    Flushing the tube after feeding has been given helps maintain the patency of the tube by clearing any excess formula from the tube. If client requires more fluid, the small amount used for flushing will not be sufficient. If formula is to be diluted, it should be done before instilling the feeding. Flushing the tubes does not maintain proper placement

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  • 6. 

    A nurse should know that pain is.........

    • Most clients exaggerate their pain level

    • Pain must have an identified source before using opioids

    • Pain is whatever the client says

    • Objective data are essential in assessing pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain is whatever the client says
    Explanation
    Pain is subjective. The client is the best source of information. It is a misconception to think that clients exaggerate their pain level. Clients can have pain without being able to identify where it is coming from. Objective data are not always there when a client is in pain.

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  • 7. 

    A nurse is teaching a group of young adults who are about to go for a marathon. Which of the following should she teach?

    • Increase fluid intake in dry climates

    • Decrease fluid intake in high altitudes

    • Include caffeine as a regular beverage

    • Decrease fluid intake after training

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase fluid intake in dry climates
    Explanation
    Fluid intake is even more needed with excessive, vigorous training in high altitudes. It should also be increased in dry climates. Caffeine should be avoided because it may lead to dehydration.

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  • 8. 

    A patient with chronic high blood pressure has been prescribed with an antihypertensive drug. Which of the following should the nurse teach to this patient with regards to over the counter (OTC) medications? 

    • Continue taking OTC drugs with antihypertensive medication

    • Consult physician before taking an OTC drug

    • Stop taking antihypertensive drugs while taking OTC drugs

    • Take only one half the recommended dose of OTC medications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consult physician before taking an OTC drug
    Explanation
    Because of possible interactions between any type of drugs, it is not safe to self administer an OTC drug without the prior knowledge of the physician who prescribed regular medication. Consulting the physician before taking an OTC drug is the only teaching that can be done. The others are either irrelevant, not true or plain nonsense.

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  • 9. 

    A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia with a long history of osteoarthritis on her knees. Although she has a pain of 6 out of 10, her vitals indicate a normal range, and she does not show any muscle tension. Why? 

    • The client must have had a larger dose of analgesics.

    • What she has is a cultural expression of pain.

    • As pain continues, the body is not able to sustain the level of sympathetic response, and the parasympathetic nervous system takes over. The client can still be in pain without a physiological manifestation.

    • It is most probable that the patient is malingering.

    Correct Answer
    A. As pain continues, the body is not able to sustain the level of sympathetic response, and the parasympathetic nervous system takes over. The client can still be in pain without a physiological manifestation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that as pain continues, the body's sympathetic response decreases and the parasympathetic nervous system takes over. This means that even though the client may still be experiencing pain, there may not be any physical signs or symptoms of pain such as muscle tension. This can be due to the body's adaptation to pain over time.

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  • 10. 

    While assessing a patent with a continuous enteral feeding, nurse noticed aspiration if the tube feeding. What should she do next?  

    • Auscultate breath sounds

    • Stop the feeding

    • Obtain a chest x-ray

    • Provide oxygen

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the feeding
    Explanation
    The greatest risk to this client receiving enteral feeding is aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, the first action the nurse should take is to stop the feeding so that nor more formula can travel to the lungs. Auscultating for breath sounds, obtaining a chest x-ray, and providing oxygen are all important actions, but none of them is the highest priority.

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  • 11. 

    A nurse is caring for a client who is dyspneic. What position should the client be in?

    • Supine

    • Dorsal Recumbent

    • Fowler's

    • Lateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Fowler's
    Explanation
    Fowler's position facilitates maximal lung expansion and thus optimizes breathing. Supine, dorsal recumbent and lateral positions will not do this.

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  • 12. 

    The belief that one's culture is superior to others is called 

    • Ethnocentrism

    • Socialization

    • Repatterning

    • Acculturation

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethnocentrism
    Explanation
    Ethnocentrism is the belief that one's own culture is superior to others. Socialization refers to a person's upbringing within a culture that results in becoming a practicing member of the culture. Repatterning refers to helping clients shift their belief to make them compatible with health promotion. Acculturation refers to the degree to which a client adopts the behaviors of a new dominant culture.

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  • 13. 

    Nitroglycerin (Nitrogard) tablets, often prescribed for patients with cardiovascular disorders, are given sublingually. What does this mean?

    • Crushed and ingested with a small amount of food

    • Held under the tongue until dissolved

    • Taken by mouth with a small amount of water

    • Placed between the cheek and gums

    Correct Answer
    A. Held under the tongue until dissolved
    Explanation
    Sublingual drugs are properly administered when placed under the tongue until they are dissolved. They are readily absorbed into the blood stream for systemic effects. They should not be crushed or taken with water. Medications places between the cheek and gums are delivered through the buccal route. The medication should dissolve and is usually used for local effects.

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  • 14. 

    A client with an indwelling catheter expresses the need to void. Which of the following is appropriate?

    • Check to see if the catheter is patent

    • Reassure the client that it is not possible for her to urinate

    • Recatheterize the client with a larger-gauge catheter

    • Notify the provider

    Correct Answer
    A. Check to see if the catheter is patent
    Explanation
    A clogged catheter causes the bladder to fill and stimulates the need to urinate. Reassuring the client that it is not possible to urinate is a nontherapeutic response. The patency of the tube must be checked before replacing the client's catheter. It is not necessary to contact the provider. The nurse can determine whether or not the tube is patent and replace the tube if necessary without a new order.

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  • 15. 

    A nurse is assessing the pain level of a client admitted to the ER with severe abdominal pain. The nurse asks the client if he has nausea and vomiting. What is being assessed?

    • Location of the pain

    • Pain quality

    • Associated symptoms

    • Aggravating and relieving factors

    Correct Answer
    A. Associated symptoms
    Explanation
    Nausea and vomiting are common associated symptoms experienced with pain. The location of the pain is where the client feels the pain is. Pain quality is assessed by identifying what the pain feels like, such as throbbing and aggravating. Aggravating and relieving factors are what might make the pain better or worse.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following nursing interventions should be implemented to maintain a patent airway in a client on bed rest?

    • Isometric exercises

    • Suction every 8 hours

    • Administer low dose of heparin as prescribed

    • Teach the use of an incentive spirometer while awake

    Correct Answer
    A. Teach the use of an incentive spirometer while awake
    Explanation
    Using an incentive spirometer helps keep the airways open and prevents atelectasis. Isometric exercises strengthen skeletal muscles. Suctioning should not be done routinely. Low dose heparin helps prevent thrombus formation and avoids a possible ischemia

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  • 17. 

    An 81-year old patient has been transferred from a long term care facility to an acute care setting. An indwelling urinary catheter was inserted just before her transfer. Which of the following may help prevent the development of nosocomial infection?

    • Assess the patient's ability to void independently

    • Place an absorbent pad under the patient to protect the bed in case of incontinence

    • Frequently clean the patient's perineal area and properly care for her catheter

    • Give the client a diet high in fiber to prevent constipation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Frequently clean the patient's perineal area and properly care for her catheter
    Explanation
    Most nosocomial infections develop in the urinary tract, and regular cleaning of the perineal area along with catheter care reduces the number of micro-organisms. Assessing the patient's ability to void independently, placing an absorbent pad under the patient, and giving the patient a diet high in fiber will not prevent a nosocomial infection.

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  • 18. 

    A patient claims that his pain medication is not working as it used to. The nurse should realize that the client is experiencing what?

    • Placebo effect

    • Tolerance

    • Accumulation

    • Dependence

    Correct Answer
    A. Tolerance
    Explanation
    Tolerance occurs over time and the client will experience a decrease in responsiveness to a medication. The place effect occurs when the client experiences a positive effect due to a psychological factor. Accumulation occurs with an increase in medication concentration in the body due to inability to metabolize or excrete a medication rapidly enough, resulting in a toxic medication effect. Dependence is experienced as a psychological or physiological need for the medication.

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  • 19. 

     A nurse is setting up an injection of morphine (Duramorph) to a patient who complains of pain. Before this however, another client in another room called and requested for a bedpan.  This nurse then asked for a second nurse to give the injection so that she can help the client needing a bedpan. Which of the following actions should the second nurse take?  

    • Give the injection prepared by the other nurse

    • Offer to assist the client needing a bedpan

    • Prepare another syringe and give the injection

    • Tell the client needing a bedpan that she will have to wait for her own nurse.

    Correct Answer
    A. Offer to assist the client needing a bedpan
    Explanation
    The second nurse should offer to assist the client needing the bedpan. This will allow the nurse who prepared the injection to administer it. A nurse should only administer medications that he/she prepared. Preparing another syringe will delay the administration of the needed pain medication. Telling the client to waist is not an acceptable option for the client needing the bedpan.

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  • 20. 

    What is the main function of a sequential compression device (SCD)?

    • Promote venous return

    • Prevent pressure ulcers

    • Prevent muscular atrophy

    • Increase joint mobility

    Correct Answer
    A. Promote venous return
    Explanation
    The purpose of a SCD is to promote venous return. It does NOT PREVENT bed sores or muscular atrophy, and they do not increase joint mobility.

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  • 21. 

    An older adult has been taking a bath in the morning following a facility's routine. At home, however, she always takes a warm bath just before bedtime. Now she is having difficulty sleeping at night. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?   

    • Rub her back for 15 minutes before bedtime

    • Offer her warm milk and crackers at 2100

    • Allow her to take a bath in the evening

    • Ask her provider for a sleeping medication

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow her to take a bath in the evening
    Explanation
    The least restrictive action is to allow the client to follow her usual bedtime routine to promote sleep. Rubbing her back, offering warm milk and crackers and requesting a sleeping medication may be necessary if this intervention is unsuccessful.

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  • 22. 

    The enteral access tube best suited for short-term use (less than 4 weeks)

    • Nasogastric tube

    • Gastrostomy tube

    • Jejunostomy tube

    • PEG tube

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasogastric tube
    Explanation
    NG tubes are short term and can be inserted through the nose. Insertion of a gastrostomy or jejunostomy is done by a surgical procedure, and a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube is inserted endoscopically. Surgical and endoscopic insertion presents a risk for injury and infection; therefore they are only indicated for long term use.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following interventions is expected when performing catherization on a female patient? Select all that apply: 

    • Maintain surgical asepsis throughout the procedure

    • Provide privacy

    • Darken the room

    • Ask the client not to talk during the procedure

    • Position patient with knees bent and apart

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Maintain surgical asepsis throughout the procedure
    A. Provide privacy
    A. Position patient with knees bent and apart
    Explanation
    Privacy during catherization maintains dignity. Insertion of a urinary catheter requires surgical asepsis, because it is an invasive procedure. Supine position with knees bent and apart allows and easy insertion of the catheter. It is not necessary to darken the room and talking will not contaminate the sterile field.

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  • 24. 

    Frequent pain assessment includes quantifying the intensity of pain. What is the best way to assess this? 

    • Ask what precipitates the pain

    • Question client about pain location

    • Offer client a pain scale to measure his pain

    • Use open ended questions to identify the sensation

    Correct Answer
    A. Offer client a pain scale to measure his pain
    Explanation
    A pain scale can help the patient measure the amount of pain he has and its intensity. Assessment of pain triggers and identification of the location of the client's pain will provide valuable information to help select pain-control interventions. Neither provides information about pain intensity. Asking open-ended questions is important but it will nor provide consistent quantification of pain intensity

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is the body's preferred energy source? 

    • Fat

    • Protein

    • Vitamins

    • Carbohydrates

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Most of the body's energy comes from carbohydrates. Fat provides energy but should be less than 30% of total caloric intake. Protein is responsible for growth and repair of body tissues. Vitamins do not provide energy

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  • 26. 

    A nurse is caring for a client who weighs 80 kg (176 lbs) and is 1.6 m ( 5 ft 3 in) tall. Calculate her body mass index (BMI) and determine whether or not client is obese on her BMI  

    Correct Answer
    31
    Client is obese
    Explanation
    BMI = weight (kg) / height (m2).
    BMI = 80 / 1.62 m to the second power = 80 / 2.56 = 31.25 = 31
    A BMI above 30 identifies obesity, so this client is considered obese

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  • 27. 

    An 85-year old diabetic patient must now use a wheelchair after a stroke 2 years ago that affected her right side. She feels no pain on this side. Although she has a good appetite, she needs help with eating. Which of the following factors could cause this patient to have pressure ulcers?

    • Dehyrdation

    • Limited mobility

    • Nutritional impairment

    • Incontinence

    Correct Answer
    A. Limited mobility
    Explanation
    Limited mobility as a result of a stroke (CVA) puts this patient at risk for skin breakdown. She is well-hydrated and nourished, and there are no data to indicate that she has urinary or fecal incontinence.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is a STAGE III DECUBITUS?

    • Reddened skin and does not blanch with pressure

    • Ulcer is an abrasion or a blister

    • Bone is exposed at the center of the ulcer

    • Ulcer extends past the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Ulcer extends past the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle
    Explanation
    A stage III ulcer may extend past all the layers of the skin and subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. Reddened skin that does not blanch is Stage I. An abrasion or a blister is seen with STAGE II. Exposed bone is a Stage IV.

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  • 29. 

    A nurse is taking care of a patient with back pains. This patient tells the nurse that a friend recommended him to see a chiropractor. She asks the nurse what a chiropractor does to relieve back pain. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be correct?

    • Chiropractors insert needles or put pressure along meridians in the back

    • Chiropractors use their hands to balance the energy fields in the back

    • Chiropractor use herbal remedies to treat back pain

    • Chiropractors use their hands to manipulate the spine to treat back pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Chiropractors use their hands to manipulate the spine to treat back pain
    Explanation
    Chiropractors use their hands to manipulate the spin. Acupuncture involves needles or pressure. Naturopathic medicine uses herbal remedies. Therapeutic touch practitioners use their hands to balance energy fields

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  • 30. 

    A client is observed crying as he reads from his devotional book. What intervention is appropriate? 

    • Contact the hospital's spiritual services

    • Ask him what is making him cry

    • Provide quiet times for these moments

    • Turn on the television for a distraction

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide quiet times for these moments
    Explanation
    Providing privacy and time for the reading of religious materials supports the client's spiritual health. Contacting the hospital's spiritual services presumes there is a problem. Asking the client about the crying or providing a distraction could be interpreted as discounting or being disrespectful of the client's beliefs.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following positions promotes a patient's normal elimination?

    • Left lateral Sim's

    • Supine

    • Right side-lying

    • Sitting

    Correct Answer
    A. Sitting
    Explanation
    The most natural and efficient way to urinate is while sitting upright. Left lateral Sim's and right lateral positions are not appropriate for urine collection. The supine position makes it difficult to empty the bladder completely.

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  • 32. 

    A home-bound patient needs to perform a fecal occult blood testing at home. Which of the following should be included when explaining the procedure to the patient? 

    • Eat more protein before testing

    • One stool specimen is enough for the test

    • The specimen cannot be contaminated with urine

    • A red color change indicates a positive test

    Correct Answer
    A. The specimen cannot be contaminated with urine
    Explanation
    For fecal occult blood testing at home, the stool specimens cannot be contaminated with water or urine; three specimens from three different bowel movements are required; some proteins such as red meat, fish and poultry can change the test results; a blue color indicates blood in stool

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is a sign of impending death?

    • Elevated blood pressure

    • Warm extremities

    • Tense muscles

    • Labored breathing

    Correct Answer
    A. Labored breathing
    Explanation
    Labored breathing, such as dyspnea, apnea, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations are common when a client approaches death.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following prevents medication error?

    • Taking all medications out of the unit-dose wrappers before entering the bedside

    • Giving up the prescribed medication and then looking up the dosage range

    • Relying on another nurse to clarify a medication prescription

    • Checking with the physician when a single dose indicates an administration of multiple tablets

    Correct Answer
    A. Checking with the physician when a single dose indicates an administration of multiple tablets
    Explanation
    If a single dose requires multiple tablets, it is possible that an error has occurred in the transcription of the order. Errors may be prevented by taking unit-dose medications out of the wrapper at the bedside. Looking up usual dosage range prior to giving a medication may uncover an inaccurate dosage. If the order is unclear, the nurse must contact the prescribing physician for clarification.

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  • 35. 

    A nurse is assigned to a patient with a high risk for aspiration. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

    • Give the patient thin liquids

    • Instruct the client to tuck her chin when swallowing

    • Have the client use a straw

    • Encourage the client to lie down and rest after meals

    Correct Answer
    A. Instruct the client to tuck her chin when swallowing
    Explanation
    Tucking the chin when swallowing allows food to pass through the esophagus more easily. Thin liquids and using a straw both increase the client's risk for aspiration. Sitting for an hour after meals helps prevent gastroesophageal reflux and possible aspiration of the contents after a meal.

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  • 36. 

    If not supervised, school-age children tend to have dietary deficiencies in which of the following?

    • Carbohydrates

    • Fats

    • Minerals

    • Vitamins

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamins
    Explanation
    School-age children must have their dietary intake supervised to ensure adequate intake of protein and vitamins C and A. They tend to eat too many foods high in carbohydrates, fat and salt

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  • 37. 

    When performing a 24-hour urine specimen test, which of the following interventions is correct? 

    • Keep all voidings in a container at room temperature for 24 hours.

    • Discard the first voiding

    • Ask patient to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.

    • Ask patient to urinate and pour the urine into a specimen container

    Correct Answer
    A. Discard the first voiding
    Explanation
    The first voiding of the 240hour urine specimen is discarded, and the time is noted. All voiding are collected after that and kept in a container on ice. If a urinalysis is ordered, ask patient to urinate and pour the urine into a specimen container. If culture is ordered, ask patient to urinate first into the toilet, then stop midstream, and finish urinating in the specimen container. The specimen for a 24-hour collection is stored on ice.

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  • 38. 

    Before initiating an enteral feeding, what is the highest priority assessment that the nurse must do?

    • Is the tube correctly placed?

    • Is the client alert and oriented?

    • How long has the feeding container been open?

    • Does the client have diarrhea?

    Correct Answer
    A. Is the tube correctly placed?
    Explanation
    The greatest risk to the client receiving enteral feedings is injury from aspiration. Therefore, the priority nursing assessment before starting an enteral feeding is to determine the tube's proper place. Assessing the client's level of consciousness, the presence only complications of tube feeding (diarrhea) and the freshness of the formula are important but are not the highest priority with this patient.

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  • 39. 

    When implementing medication therapy, the nurse's responsibilities include which of the following? Select all that apply:

    • Observe patient for drug side effects

    • Monitor for therapeutic effects

    • Prescribing an appropriate dose

    • Maintain a current knowledge base

    • Changing the dose if side effects take place

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Observe patient for drug side effects
    A. Monitor for therapeutic effects
    A. Maintain a current knowledge base
    Explanation
    The nurse is responsible for observing medication side effects, monitoring for therapeutic benefits, and for maintaining an up-to-date knowledge base. The prescribing physician is responsible for ordering the right dosage and changing that dosage if side effects take place.

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  • 40. 

    After a PO medication has been absorbed, most of the medication is inactivated as the blood initially passes through the liver, producing an insignificant therapeutic effect. What do you call this? 

    • Tolerance

    • Antagonism

    • Synergism

    • First pass effect

    Correct Answer
    A. First pass effect
    Explanation
    Medications that are given orally are taken directly to the liver from the GI tract through the hepatic portal circulation. Some medications will be completely inactivated as they pass through the liver, and thus no therapeutic effect will happen. These medications must be administered through a NONENTERAL ROUTE.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following are true about pain?

    • All cultures have the same attitude regarding pain

    • Pain can cause anger and guilt

    • In may be tough to assess pain properly in a client who is cognitively impaired.

    • A client who is sleeping could not be experiencing pain

    • It is best to wait until pain worsens before administering analgesics

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Pain can cause anger and guilt
    A. In may be tough to assess pain properly in a client who is cognitively impaired.
    Explanation
    Clients may experience feelings of anger and guilt with pain. Clients who are cognitively impaired may not be able to express what they are feeling. Attitudes about pain vary among different cultures. A client can still sleep even when experiencing pain; clients need less pain medication when pain is treated before it worsens

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  • 42. 

    For a CVA patient who is wheel chair bound, which of the following can prevent skin breakdown?

    • Massage bony prominences frequently

    • Keep patient on high fowler's position while in bed

    • Have the client sit on a donut shaped cushion

    • Encourage repositioning every 15 minutes while the client is on a wheelchair.

    Correct Answer
    A. Encourage repositioning every 15 minutes while the client is on a wheelchair.
    Explanation
    It is important to encourage and help a patient to change positions EVERY 15 MINUTES while sitting down to prevent continuous pressure on any skin area. While in bed, the head of the client's bed should be elevated no more than 30 degrees to prevent skin breakdown from shearing forces in the sacral area. Donut-shaped cushions increase pressure on the sacral area. A gel foam or air cushion would be better.

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  • 43. 

    Upon looking at the MAR, a nurse observes that one of her clients is taking four new mediations. Which of the following should be a concern?

    • The client is lactose intolerant

    • Two of the medications cause drowsiness

    • There are no generic forms available

    • The client has difficulty swallowing four pills at one one time

    Correct Answer
    A. Two of the medications cause drowsiness
    Explanation
    A drug-drug interaction can cause an increased effect. If two of these medications cause drowsiness (CNS depression), they will have a synergistic effect and may increase CNS depression. Increasing CNS depression can progress from drowsiness to stupor as well as fatal respiratory depression. Lactose intolerance should not interfere with this client's medication. Trade name medications can be used, and nurse can administer each pill one at a time

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  • 44. 

    An entry in a patient chart indicates wound drainage is "sanguineous". What does this mean? 

    • Foul-smelling

    • Green-tinged or yellow

    • Watery in appearance

    • Bright red

    Correct Answer
    A. Bright red
    Explanation
    Sanguineous drainage is bright red and the result of active bleeding. A watery appearance is characteristic of serous or serosanguineous drainage. Green or yellow and foul odor are typical of purulent drainage.

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  • 45. 

      A male patient was admitted for abdominal surgery. Client's initial vital signs are temperature at 37 C (98.6 F), pulse 98 / min, respirations 20 / min and blood pressure at 148 / 88 mm Hg. The client states, :I am really worried. This is the first surgery I ever had." Which of the following is an appropriate use of a complementary alternative intervention?

    • Call provider and get permission to use relaxation techniques with the patient.

    • Offer information and ask the client if he is interested in trying a relaxation technique

    • Provide client with reassurance and information about the procedure

    • Give client a therapeutic back massage and tell him to try to relax

    Correct Answer
    A. Offer information and ask the client if he is interested in trying a relaxation technique
    Explanation
    Providing information will help patient make an informed decision,. A provider's order is not required for relaxation therapy. Providing reassurance may negate the client's fear. Providing more information without validating this as a need may increase anxiety. The nurse should not give any therapy without informing the patient and obtaining his consent. Telling him to relax does not acknowledge the impact ot his anxiety

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following formula contains a complete nutrition?

    • Polymeric

    • Modular

    • Elemental

    • Specialty

    Correct Answer
    A. Polymeric
    Explanation
    Polymeric formulas are nutritionally complete. Modular formulas provide a single macronutrient. Elemental formulas are composed of predigested nutrients, and specialty formulas are designed to meet specific nutritional needs and are not nutritionally complete.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following can alter the results of blood glucose testing?

    • Amoxicillin (Amoxil)

    • Dexamethasone (Decadron)

    • Morphine (Duramorph)

    • Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

    Correct Answer
    A. Dexamethasone (Decadron)
    Explanation
    Dexamethasone is a steroid that may raise blood glucose. Amoxicillin, morphine and acetaminophen should not affect blood glucose levels.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following should be a part of a care plan designed for a hypernatremic patient?

    • Administer a loop diuretic

    • Increase sodium intake

    • Restrict oral intake of water

    • Infuse hypotonic IV fluids

    Correct Answer
    A. Infuse hypotonic IV fluids
    Explanation
    A hypernatremic patient should have an intake of hypotonic or isotonic fluids. Water intake is recommended. Sodium intake is restricted. A loop diuretic will increase the excretion of sodium.

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  • 49. 

    A 70-year old female has had a bowel obstruction surgery six days ago. During the past day, she has complained of nausea, and she threw up small amounts of clear liquid in the last 7 hours. Her vital signs are stable. Currently, her incision is well approximated without redness, tenderness or swelling. Which of the following could indicate the possibility of a wound infection?  

    • Increased pain

    • Decreased pulse rate

    • Decrease WBC count

    • Increased thirst

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased pain
    Explanation
    An increase pain from an incision is an indication of a possible wound infection. With infection, pulse rate and WBC count both increase. Increased thirst has many possible causes and does not always mean an infection is taking place.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 23, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Arnoldjr2
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