Foundation Of Nursing Trivia Test! Practice Quiz

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Foundation Of Nursing Trivia Test! Practice Quiz - Quiz


How much do you know about the foundation of nursing? Are you ready for this trivia test? This quiz emphasizes specific topics in nursing. This trivia includes what kind of food you can allow on a 500-mg low sodium diet, what are the primary principles of nursing, what is an example of nursing malpractice, what position must the patient be in for an abdominal inspection, etc. This quiz will reveal solid information about nursing. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

     Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium diet. These include:

    • A.

      Ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole-wheat bread.

    • B.

      Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken.

    • C.

      A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives.

    • D.

      Chicken bouillon.

    Correct Answer
    B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mashed potatoes and broiled chicken. This is because both mashed potatoes and broiled chicken are low in sodium. The other options, such as the ham and Swiss cheese sandwich and chicken bouillon, are likely to be higher in sodium content. Similarly, the tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives may also have a higher sodium content due to the olives and salad dressing. Therefore, mashed potatoes and broiled chicken would be the best choice for someone on a 500-mg low sodium diet.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following principles of primary nursing has proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse?

    • A.

      Continuity of patient care promotes efficient, cost-effective nursing care.

    • B.

      Autonomy and authority for planning are best delegated to a nurse who knows the patient well.

    • C.

      Accountability is clearest when one nurse is responsible for the overall plan and its implementation.

    • D.

      The holistic approach provides for a therapeutic relationship, continuity, and efficient nursing care.

    Correct Answer
    D. The holistic approach provides for a therapeutic relationship, continuity, and efficient nursing care.
    Explanation
    The holistic approach provides for a therapeutic relationship, continuity, and efficient nursing care. This principle recognizes that patients are not just physical beings, but also have emotional, mental, and spiritual needs. By addressing all aspects of a patient's well-being, nurses can establish a therapeutic relationship, which promotes trust and open communication. This approach also emphasizes the importance of continuity of care, ensuring that patients receive consistent and coordinated care throughout their healthcare journey. Additionally, by considering the patient as a whole, nurses can provide efficient and effective nursing care that meets the unique needs of each individual.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is an example of nursing malpractice?

    • A.

      The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and has cerebral damage resulting from anoxia.

    • B.

      The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal cramping.

    • C.

      The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position; the patient slips and fractures his right humerus.

    • D.

      The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient and the patient vomits. This information is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and has cerebral damage resulting from anoxia.
    Explanation
    Administering penicillin to a patient with a known allergy to the drug is an example of nursing malpractice. This action goes against the standard of care and puts the patient at risk. The patient's allergic reaction and subsequent cerebral damage resulting from anoxia further highlight the severity of the malpractice.

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  • 4. 

    A patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain. Which of the following would immediately alert the nurse that the patient has bleeding from the GI tract?

    • A.

      Complete blood count

    • B.

      Guaiac test

    • C.

      Vital signs

    • D.

      Abdominal girth

    Correct Answer
    B. Guaiac test
    Explanation
    The guaiac test is used to detect the presence of blood in the stool, which can indicate bleeding from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Since the patient is experiencing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain, a positive guaiac test would immediately alert the nurse that the patient is likely experiencing bleeding from the GI tract. The other options, such as the complete blood count, vital signs, and abdominal girth, may provide additional information but are not specific indicators of GI bleeding.

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  • 5. 

    For a rectal examination, the patient can be directed to assume which of the following positions?

    • A.

      Genupecterol

    • B.

      Sims

    • C.

      Horizontal recumbent

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because for a rectal examination, the patient can be directed to assume any of these three positions: Genupectoral, Sims, or Horizontal recumbent. These positions allow for better access and visualization of the rectal area, making the examination easier and more comfortable for both the patient and the healthcare provider.

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  • 6. 

    The four main concepts common to nursing that appear in each of the current conceptual models are:

    • A.

      Person, nursing, environment, medicine

    • B.

      Person, health, nursing, support systems

    • C.

      Person, health, psychology, nursing

    • D.

      Person, environment, health, nursing

    Correct Answer
    D. Person, environment, health, nursing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Person, environment, health, nursing." This answer aligns with the four main concepts common to nursing that appear in each of the current conceptual models. These concepts include the person or individual receiving care, the environment in which the care is provided, the health of the individual, and the role of nursing in providing that care. The answer "Person, nursing, environment, medicine" includes the concept of medicine, which is not one of the four main concepts common to nursing. The answer "Person, health, nursing, support systems" includes the concept of support systems, which is not one of the four main concepts common to nursing. The answer "Person, health, psychology, nursing" includes the concept of psychology, which is not one of the four main concepts common to nursing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Person, environment, health, nursing."

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  • 7. 

    A registered nurse reaches to answer the telephone on a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3 month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The nurse could be charged with:

    • A.

      Defamation

    • B.

      Assault

    • C.

      Battery

    • D.

      Malpractice

    Correct Answer
    D. Malpractice
    Explanation
    The nurse could be charged with malpractice because malpractice refers to the failure of a professional to provide the standard of care expected in their field, resulting in harm or injury to a patient. In this case, the nurse's momentary distraction and failure to ensure the safety of the infant resulted in the baby falling off the scale and suffering a skull fracture. This incident could be seen as a breach of the nurse's duty of care towards the patient, which is a key element in a malpractice claim.

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  • 8. 

    A patient about to undergo abdominal inspection is best placed in which of the following positions?

    • A.

      Prone

    • B.

      Trendelenburg

    • C.

      Supine

    • D.

      Side-lying

    Correct Answer
    C. Supine
    Explanation
    The patient is best placed in the supine position for abdominal inspection. The supine position refers to lying flat on the back with the face upward. This position allows easy access to the abdomen and provides a clear view of the abdominal area for inspection. It also allows for proper examination and palpation of the abdomen by the healthcare provider.

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  • 9. 

    The most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath would be…

    • A.

      Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times

    • B.

      Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed

    • C.

      Administer oxygen by Venturi mask at 24%, as needed

    • D.

      Allow a 1 hour rest period between activities

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
    Explanation
    Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position can help alleviate dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position involves sitting upright and leaning forward, which allows for maximum expansion of the lungs and can improve breathing. It helps to reduce the work of breathing and increase lung capacity, making it easier for the patient to breathe. Administering oxygen may also be necessary, but the orthopneic position is the most appropriate nursing order to address the immediate symptom of dyspnea.

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  • 10. 

    The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

    • A.

      Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.

    • B.

      Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician

    • C.

      Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The physician has ordered a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin for Mrs. Mitchell. This medication is an anticoagulant, which means it helps prevent blood clots. To ensure the medication is working effectively and not causing any adverse effects, the nurse must review the daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time. These tests measure how long it takes for the blood to clot and can indicate if the dose of heparin needs to be adjusted. If the APTT is above 45 seconds, it should be reported to the physician as it may indicate a higher risk of bleeding. Additionally, the nurse should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of both frank (visible) and occult (hidden) bleeding, as this could be a potential side effect of heparin. Therefore, all of the above are nursing responsibilities when administering subcutaneous heparin.

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  • 11. 

    A 38-year old patient’s vital signs at 8 a.m. are axillary temperature 99.6 F (37.6 C); pulse rate, 88; respiratory rate, 30. Which findings should be reported?

    • A.

      Respiratory rate only

    • B.

      Temperature only

    • C.

      Pulse rate and temperature

    • D.

      Temperature and respiratory rate

    Correct Answer
    D. Temperature and respiratory rate
    Explanation
    The vital signs of a patient are important indicators of their overall health. In this case, the patient's axillary temperature is slightly elevated at 99.6 F (37.6 C), which could indicate a mild fever or an underlying infection. Additionally, the patient's respiratory rate is elevated at 30 breaths per minute, which is higher than the normal range. This could suggest respiratory distress or an underlying respiratory condition. Therefore, both the temperature and respiratory rate findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible intervention.

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  • 12. 

    The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is:

    • A.

      Tympanic percussion, measurement of abdominal girth, and inspection

    • B.

      Assessment for distention, tenderness, and discoloration around the umbilicus.

    • C.

      Percussions, palpation, and auscultation

    • D.

      Auscultation, percussion, and palpation

    Correct Answer
    D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation
    Explanation
    The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is auscultation, percussion, and palpation. This order allows the healthcare provider to first listen for bowel sounds and abnormal sounds using a stethoscope. Then, percussion is performed by tapping on the abdomen to assess the density of underlying organs and detect any abnormal fluid or masses. Finally, palpation is done to assess for tenderness, masses, and organ enlargement. This sequence is followed to ensure a systematic and thorough examination of the abdomen.

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  • 13. 

    If a patient’s blood pressure is 150/96, his pulse pressure is:

    • A.

      54

    • B.

      96

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      246

    Correct Answer
    A. 54
    Explanation
    Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure. In this case, the systolic blood pressure is 150 and the diastolic blood pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure can be calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure: 150 - 96 = 54. Hence, the correct answer is 54.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following parameters should be checked when assessing respirations?

    • A.

      Rate

    • B.

      Rhythm

    • C.

      Symmetry

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When assessing respirations, it is important to check multiple parameters to gather a comprehensive understanding of the individual's breathing. The rate of respirations refers to the number of breaths per minute, which can indicate any abnormalities or distress. Rhythm refers to the regularity and pattern of breaths, which can help identify irregularities or abnormal breathing patterns. Symmetry refers to the equality of chest movements during breathing, which can indicate any asymmetrical or uneven breathing. Therefore, checking all of these parameters is crucial for a thorough assessment of respirations.

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  • 15. 

    The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:

    • A.

      Tachypnea

    • B.

      Eupnca

    • C.

      Orthopnea

    • D.

      Hyperventilation

    Correct Answer
    C. Orthopnea
    Explanation
    Orthopnea is a term used to describe difficulty breathing while lying flat. It is relieved by elevating the head of the bed or sitting upright. In this scenario, the nurse observed that Mr. Adams had increased difficulty breathing, but it improved when the head of the bed was elevated. Therefore, the nurse would document this breathing as orthopnea. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea refers to normal breathing, and hyperventilation refers to excessive breathing.

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  • 16. 

    The family of an accident victim who has been declared brain-dead seems amenable to organ donation. What should the nurse do?

    • A.

      Iscourage them from making a decision until their grief has eased

    • B.

      Listen to their concerns and answer their questions honestly

    • C.

      Encourage them to sign the consent form right away

    • D.

      Tell them the body will not be available for a wake or funeral

    Correct Answer
    B. Listen to their concerns and answer their questions honestly
    Explanation
    The nurse should listen to the concerns of the family and answer their questions honestly. This approach respects the family's autonomy and allows them to make an informed decision about organ donation. It also helps to build trust between the nurse and the family, as they navigate through this difficult situation. By providing accurate information and addressing their concerns, the nurse can support the family in making the decision that is best for them.

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  • 17. 

    The physician orders a platelet count to be performed on Mrs. Smith after breakfast. The nurse is responsible for:

    • A.

      Instructing the patient about this diagnostic test

    • B.

      Writing the order for this test

    • C.

      Giving the patient breakfast

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Giving the patient breakfast
    Explanation
    The correct answer is giving the patient breakfast. In this scenario, the physician has ordered a platelet count to be performed on Mrs. Smith after breakfast. The nurse's responsibility in this situation would be to ensure that the patient receives breakfast before the test is conducted. This is important because certain foods or medications can affect the results of the platelet count, so it is necessary for the patient to have breakfast before the test. The nurse is not responsible for instructing the patient about the test or writing the order, as these tasks would typically be performed by the physician.

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  • 18. 

    In Maslow’s hierarchy of physiologic needs, the human need of greatest priority is:

    • A.

      Love

    • B.

      Elimination

    • C.

      Nutrition

    • D.

      Oxygen

    Correct Answer
    D. Oxygen
    Explanation
    Maslow's hierarchy of physiological needs states that the most basic and fundamental need for humans is oxygen. Without oxygen, the body cannot function properly and sustain life. Oxygen is essential for the process of respiration, which provides energy to the body's cells. It is necessary for the functioning of vital organs and systems, including the brain and cardiovascular system. Therefore, oxygen is of utmost priority in meeting the physiological needs of humans.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find when assessing an Asian patient for postoperative pain following abdominal surgery?

    • A.

      Decreased blood pressure and heart rate and shallow respirations

    • B.

      Quiet crying

    • C.

      Immobility, diaphoresis, and avoidance of deep breathing or coughing

    • D.

      Changing position every 2 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. Immobility, diaphoresis, and avoidance of deep breathing or coughing
    Explanation
    Asian patients may exhibit different cultural expressions of pain compared to Western patients. Immobility, diaphoresis (excessive sweating), and avoidance of deep breathing or coughing are signs that an Asian patient may be experiencing postoperative pain. This is because Asian cultures often value stoicism and may not openly express pain or discomfort. Decreased blood pressure and heart rate and shallow respirations are not specific signs of pain. Quiet crying and changing position every 2 hours are not indicative of postoperative pain in Asian patients.

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  • 20. 

    A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8 F (37.7 C) This temperature reading probably indicates:

    • A.

      Infection

    • B.

      Hypothermia

    • C.

      Anxiety

    • D.

      Dehydration

    Correct Answer
    D. Dehydration
    Explanation
    The patient's oral temperature of 99.8 F (37.7 C) is slightly elevated, but not high enough to indicate an infection. Hypothermia refers to low body temperature, which is not the case here. Anxiety can cause a temporary increase in body temperature, but it is unlikely to be the cause in this scenario. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the elevated temperature is dehydration, as the patient has been kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before surgery.

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  • 21. 

    A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?

    • A.

      Complain to her fellow nurses

    • B.

      Wait until she knows more about the unit

    • C.

      Discuss the problem with her supervisor

    • D.

      Inform the staff that they must volunteer to rotate

    Correct Answer
    C. Discuss the problem with her supervisor
    Explanation
    The new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor because they are responsible for addressing staffing issues and finding solutions. Complaining to her fellow nurses may not lead to any action being taken, and waiting until she knows more about the unit may only prolong the problem. Informing the staff that they must volunteer to rotate is not a viable solution as it may not be feasible or fair to expect staff to volunteer for unpopular shifts. Therefore, discussing the problem with her supervisor is the most appropriate course of action.

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  • 22. 

    During a Romberg test, the nurse asks the patient to assume which position?

    • A.

      Sitting

    • B.

      Standing

    • C.

      Genupectoral

    • D.

      Trendelenburg

    Correct Answer
    B. Standing
    Explanation
    During a Romberg test, the nurse asks the patient to assume the standing position. This is because the Romberg test is a neurological examination that assesses the patient's balance and proprioception. By asking the patient to stand with their feet together and arms by their side, the nurse can evaluate any loss of balance or swaying that may indicate a problem with the patient's sensory or motor function. The standing position allows for a more accurate assessment of the patient's ability to maintain balance without any external support.

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  • 23. 

    High-pitched gurgles head over the right lower quadrant are:

    • A.

      A sign of increased bowel motility

    • B.

      A sign of decreased bowel motility

    • C.

      Normal bowel sounds

    • D.

      A sign of abdominal cramping

    Correct Answer
    C. Normal bowel sounds
    Explanation
    High-pitched gurgles heard over the right lower quadrant are considered normal bowel sounds. Bowel sounds are produced by the movement of the intestines and are an important indicator of gastrointestinal function. Normal bowel sounds indicate that the intestines are functioning properly and there is no obstruction or abnormality present. This is a positive finding and is not indicative of any specific pathology or symptom.

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  • 24. 

    If patient asks the nurse her opinion about a particular physicians and the nurse replies that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for:

    • A.

      Slander

    • B.

      Libel

    • C.

      Assault

    • D.

      Respondent superior

    Correct Answer
    A. Slander
    Explanation
    If a patient asks a nurse for her opinion about a particular physician and the nurse responds by stating that the physician is incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for slander. Slander refers to making false spoken statements that damage a person's reputation. In this case, if the nurse's statement is false and harms the physician's professional reputation, it could be considered slanderous and the nurse may face legal consequences for making such statements.

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  • 25. 

    If nurse administers an injection to a patient who refuses that injection, she has committed:

    • A.

      Assault and battery

    • B.

      Negligence

    • C.

      Malpractice

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Assault and battery
    Explanation
    If a nurse administers an injection to a patient who refuses it, she has committed assault and battery. Assault refers to the intentional act of causing apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, while battery refers to the actual harmful or offensive contact itself. In this situation, the patient's refusal indicates their lack of consent, and the nurse's act of administering the injection against their will constitutes both assault (causing apprehension) and battery (the actual contact). Negligence and malpractice do not accurately describe the nurse's actions in this scenario.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 12, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Nursetopic
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