Anatomy And Physiology Chapter 7 And 8 Test

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Anatomy And Physiology Chapter 7 And 8 Test - Quiz

The "Anatomy and Physiology Test" is designed to assess your understanding of the intricacies of the human body. This quiz delves into anatomy and physiology's structural and functional aspects, covering various topics from organs and tissues to physiological processes.

Each question is crafted to challenge and enhance your knowledge in a friendly and informative manner. Whether you're a student, a healthcare professional, or someone keen on understanding the human body's complexities, this test provides a comprehensive overview.

Try this quiz to test your grasp of anatomical structures and physiological functions. It's an opportunity to reinforce your knowledge and gain a Read moredeeper appreciation for the marvels of the human form. It's not just a test – it's your chance to delve into the intricacies of anatomy and physiology.


Anatomy and Physiology Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    The 2nd cranial nerve is the optic.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The 2nd cranial nerve is indeed the optic nerve. It is responsible for transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. This nerve plays a crucial role in vision, as it carries signals that allow us to perceive and interpret the world around us.

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  • 2. 

    Cranial nerves 5 and 7 supply the face.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cranial nerves 5 and 7 are responsible for supplying the face. This means that these nerves innervate the muscles of the face and provide sensory information from the face to the brain. Cranial nerve 5, also known as the trigeminal nerve, is responsible for providing sensation to the face, including touch, pain, and temperature. Cranial nerve 7, also known as the facial nerve, controls the muscles of facial expression. Therefore, it is correct to say that cranial nerves 5 and 7 supply the face.

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  • 3. 

    Cranial nerve 8 is called the vestibulocochlear.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because cranial nerve 8 is indeed called the vestibulocochlear nerve. This nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information related to hearing and balance from the inner ear to the brain. It consists of two branches, the vestibular branch which is involved in balance and the cochlear branch which is involved in hearing. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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  • 4. 

    Cranial nerve 10 is the Vagus and supplies the heart.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because cranial nerve 10, also known as the vagus nerve, does indeed supply the heart. The vagus nerve is responsible for regulating the heart rate and controlling the parasympathetic functions of the heart, such as slowing down the heart rate during rest and relaxation. It also plays a role in controlling blood pressure and gastrointestinal functions. Therefore, it is correct to say that cranial nerve 10 supplies the heart.

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  • 5. 

    Cranial nerve 12 is the hypoglossal and allows one to move his tongue.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cranial nerve 12, known as the hypoglossal nerve, is responsible for controlling the movement of the tongue. It allows us to perform various functions such as speaking, swallowing, and chewing. Therefore, the statement that cranial nerve 12 allows one to move their tongue is true.

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  • 6. 

    There are how many pairs of spinal nerves?

    • A.

      29

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      31

    • D.

      33

    Correct Answer
    C. 31
    Explanation
    The human spinal cord consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves. These nerves emerge from the spinal cord and pass through openings between the vertebrae of the spine. Each pair of spinal nerves is responsible for transmitting sensory information from a specific region of the body to the brain and for transmitting motor signals from the brain to the muscles. Therefore, the correct answer is 31.

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  • 7. 

    Which dermatome allows you to hold and fire a pistol?

    • A.

      C1

    • B.

      C7

    • C.

      C3

    • D.

      C6

    Correct Answer
    B. C7
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C7. The dermatome C7 innervates the muscles that control finger flexion and extension, allowing for the movement and coordination required to hold and fire a pistol. C1, C3, and C6 do not have direct innervation of the finger muscles and therefore would not provide the necessary control for this action.

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  • 8. 

    Which dermatome gives sensations when a baby is breastfeed?

    • A.

      T3

    • B.

      T4

    • C.

      T10

    • D.

      C7

    Correct Answer
    B. T4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is T4. Dermatomes are specific areas of the skin that are innervated by a particular spinal nerve. In the case of breastfeeding, the nipple and areola are innervated by the T4 dermatome. This means that sensations such as touch, pressure, and pain are transmitted to the brain through the T4 spinal nerve.

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  • 9. 

    Which dermatome supplies the leg and allows a soccer player to kick the ball hard?

    • A.

      S1

    • B.

      L3

    • C.

      S5

    • D.

      L1

    Correct Answer
    B. L3
    Explanation
    The L3 dermatome supplies the leg and allows a soccer player to kick the ball hard. The L3 dermatome corresponds to the third lumbar spinal nerve, which innervates the muscles and skin of the anterior and medial aspects of the thigh. The muscles in this region, such as the quadriceps, are responsible for generating the force required to kick the ball with power. Therefore, the L3 dermatome is crucial for a soccer player to kick the ball hard.

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  • 10. 

    If a man has injury to S2 and S3 and S4, than it is possible he may be incontinent of urine.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    If a man has an injury to the S2, S3, and S4 spinal nerves, it is possible for him to experience urinary incontinence. The S2, S3, and S4 nerves are responsible for controlling the bladder and the muscles involved in urination. Damage to these nerves can disrupt the normal functioning of the bladder, leading to a loss of control over urine flow and resulting in incontinence. Therefore, it is true that if a man has an injury to these specific spinal nerves, he may be incontinent of urine.

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  • 11. 

    Parkinson's disease has 'neurofibrillary tangles' in the brain.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Parkinson's disease is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, not neurofibrillary tangles, in the brain. Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark feature of Alzheimer's disease, not Parkinson's disease. Therefore, the statement that Parkinson's disease has neurofibrillary tangles in the brain is false.

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  • 12. 

    Cerebral Palsy has tremors.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Cerebral Palsy is a neurological disorder that affects muscle control and coordination. While tremors can be a symptom of some types of cerebral palsy, it is not a defining characteristic of the condition. Therefore, the statement that "Cerebral Palsy has tremors" is false.

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  • 13. 

    The stomach is under control of the autonomic nervous system.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions, such as digestion. The stomach, being responsible for the digestion of food, is also under the control of the autonomic nervous system. Therefore, the statement that the stomach is under the control of the autonomic nervous system is true.

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  • 14. 

    Axons carry signals of nerves to a tissue and away from the cell body.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Axons are long, slender projections of nerve cells that transmit electrical impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons, muscles, or glands. These signals can travel over long distances, allowing for communication between different parts of the body. Therefore, the statement that axons carry signals of nerves to a tissue and away from the cell body is true.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following are neurotransmitters ? Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Ach

    • B.

      Epinephrine

    • C.

      Serotonin

    • D.

      Insulin

    • E.

      Glucagon

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ach
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Serotonin
    Explanation
    Ach (acetylcholine), Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline), and Serotonin are all neurotransmitters. These are chemical messengers that transmit signals between nerve cells in the brain and throughout the body. Insulin and glucagon are hormones involved in regulating blood sugar levels and are not neurotransmitters.

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  • 16. 

    A decrease in serotonin is the cause of depression.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating mood, emotions, and overall well-being. Research has shown that a decrease in serotonin levels in the brain is associated with depression. Serotonin helps to regulate and stabilize mood, and when its levels are low, it can lead to symptoms of depression, such as sadness, loss of interest, and low energy. Therefore, it is accurate to say that a decrease in serotonin is indeed a cause of depression.

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  • 17. 

    Schwann cells make myelin.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Schwann cells are a type of glial cell that is found in the peripheral nervous system. One of their main functions is to produce myelin, which is a fatty substance that wraps around and insulates nerve fibers. This insulation helps to increase the speed and efficiency of nerve impulse conduction. Therefore, it is correct to say that Schwann cells make myelin.

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  • 18. 

    Which waves are involved in dreaming and studying?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      D

    • D.

      T

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    The waves involved in dreaming and studying are typically beta waves. Beta waves are associated with active thinking, problem-solving, and concentration, which are all processes involved in studying. During dreaming, the brain also exhibits beta waves, as it is still actively processing information and creating dreams. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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  • 19. 

    Which region of the brain controls appetite?

    • A.

      Adenohypophysis

    • B.

      Cerebellum

    • C.

      Pons

    • D.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    D. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is the region of the brain that controls appetite. It plays a crucial role in regulating food intake and energy balance. It contains specialized cells that detect hunger and satiety signals, and it also interacts with hormones and neurotransmitters involved in appetite regulation. Damage or dysfunction in the hypothalamus can lead to appetite disturbances, such as overeating or loss of appetite. Therefore, the hypothalamus is considered the primary brain region responsible for controlling appetite.

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  • 20. 

    If Broca's area is involved in disease, than a person displays which symptom?

    • A.

      Increased appetite

    • B.

      Visual disturbances

    • C.

      Deafness

    • D.

      Broken speech

    Correct Answer
    D. Broken speech
    Explanation
    If Broca's area is involved in a disease, a person may display the symptom of broken speech. Broca's area is responsible for the production of speech and language comprehension. When this area is affected by a disease or injury, it can result in difficulty in forming words and sentences, leading to broken or impaired speech. Other symptoms such as increased appetite, visual disturbances, and deafness are not directly associated with Broca's area dysfunction.

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  • 21. 

    Which exact cells make CSF?

    • A.

      Ependymal

    • B.

      Microglia

    • C.

      Oligodendrocytes

    • D.

      Astrocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Ependymal
    Explanation
    Ependymal cells are responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). These cells line the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord. They have cilia that help in the movement of CSF and also contain specialized cells called choroid plexus, which actively secrete CSF. Ependymal cells play a crucial role in maintaining the composition and volume of CSF, as well as providing a protective and supportive environment for the central nervous system.

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  • 22. 

    Grey matter in the brain does have lots of myelin around it.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Grey matter in the brain does not have lots of myelin around it. Myelin is a fatty substance that forms a protective covering around nerve fibers, and it is mainly found in white matter, which is responsible for transmitting signals between different areas of the brain. Grey matter, on the other hand, contains mostly cell bodies and dendrites, and it is involved in processing and integrating information. Therefore, the statement that grey matter in the brain has lots of myelin around it is false.

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  • 23. 

    Which electrolyte is in high concentrations in the cell membrane prior to a contraction/action potential?

    • A.

      K

    • B.

      Na

    • C.

      Cl

    • D.

      PO4

    Correct Answer
    A. K
    Explanation
    Potassium (K) is the electrolyte that is found in high concentrations in the cell membrane prior to a contraction/action potential. This is because the cell membrane is more permeable to potassium ions, allowing them to flow out of the cell more easily. This creates an imbalance of positive charge, resulting in a negative resting membrane potential. When the cell is stimulated, the permeability of the membrane to potassium decreases, causing a rapid influx of sodium ions and triggering the action potential.

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  • 24. 

    Which electrolyte is primarily outside the cell membrane prior to an action potential?

    • A.

      K

    • B.

      Na

    • C.

      PO4

    • D.

      Mg

    Correct Answer
    B. Na
    Explanation
    Na (sodium) is primarily outside the cell membrane prior to an action potential. This is because the concentration of sodium ions is higher outside the cell compared to inside. During an action potential, the cell membrane becomes permeable to sodium ions, allowing them to rush into the cell and depolarize it. This depolarization triggers the action potential and initiates the transmission of electrical signals in the neuron. Therefore, sodium plays a crucial role in the initiation of an action potential.

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  • 25. 

    Name the parts of the midbrain. Select all that apply.

    • A.

      Hypothalamus

    • B.

      Medulla

    • C.

      Pons

    • D.

      Midbrain

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Medulla
    C. Pons
    D. Midbrain
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes the parts of the midbrain, which are the medulla, pons, and midbrain itself. The hypothalamus, however, is not a part of the midbrain. The medulla is responsible for controlling vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. The pons serves as a bridge connecting different parts of the brain and is involved in sleep and arousal. The midbrain plays a role in relaying sensory information and coordinating motor movements.

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  • 26. 

    Check all that apply. Name the meninges.

    • A.

      Dura mater

    • B.

      Pia mater

    • C.

      Arachnoid mater

    • D.

      Myelin sheath

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Dura mater
    B. Pia mater
    C. Arachnoid mater
    Explanation
    The meninges are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The dura mater is the tough outermost layer, the pia mater is the thin innermost layer, and the arachnoid mater is the middle layer that is web-like in appearance. The myelin sheath, on the other hand, is not a part of the meninges. It is a fatty substance that surrounds and insulates nerve fibers.

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  • 27. 

    The right side of the brain controls the left side of the body and vice versa.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the human brain is divided into two hemispheres, with each hemisphere controlling the opposite side of the body. This is known as brain lateralization. The left hemisphere primarily controls the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere controls the left side. This is why damage to one side of the brain can result in paralysis or loss of function on the opposite side of the body.

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  • 28. 

    Reticular Activiating System has to do with degree of consciousness.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Reticular Activating System (RAS) is a network of neurons in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in regulating wakefulness and alertness. It filters and processes sensory information, determining the level of consciousness and attention. Therefore, it is directly related to the degree of consciousness.

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  • 29. 

    A spinal tap is done at which level?

    • A.

      L2/L3

    • B.

      S4/S5

    • C.

      T10

    • D.

      C7

    Correct Answer
    A. L2/L3
    Explanation
    A spinal tap, also known as a lumbar puncture, is performed at the level of the L2/L3 vertebrae. This is the region of the lower back where the spinal cord ends, and cerebrospinal fluid can be safely collected for diagnostic purposes. The procedure involves inserting a needle into the subarachnoid space, which is located below the level of the spinal cord, between the L2 and L3 vertebrae. By accessing this area, healthcare professionals can collect cerebrospinal fluid for analysis or administer medications directly into the spinal canal.

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  • 30. 

    EEG/electroencephalogram is a primary test for seizures/epilepsy.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    EEG, or electroencephalogram, is indeed a primary test used for diagnosing seizures and epilepsy. This test measures the electrical activity in the brain and can help identify abnormal brain waves that are characteristic of seizures. By analyzing the patterns and frequencies of these brain waves, doctors can make a more accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment for the patient. Therefore, it is correct to say that EEG is a primary test for seizures and epilepsy.

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 30, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 25, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Doctorjuc
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