Cell Bio Final Exam Chapters 1 - 14

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Cell Bio Final Exam Chapters 1 - 14 - Quiz

Your hard work and study have led you to this moment, but will it finally pay off? Take the following quiz on chapters 1-14 of your cell biology curriculum and find out if you know enough to ace your final exam. Think you’ve been listening hard enough in class? Let’s take a look!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which is the smallest unit of life that can survive and reproduce on its own?

    • A.

      An atom

    • B.

      A cell

    • C.

      A molecule

    • D.

      An organ

    • E.

      A population

    Correct Answer
    B. A cell
    Explanation
    A cell is the smallest unit of life that can survive and reproduce on its own. Cells are the basic building blocks of all living organisms and are capable of carrying out all the necessary functions of life, such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction. They contain genetic material and are able to replicate themselves through cell division. Cells can exist as single-celled organisms, such as bacteria, or as part of multicellular organisms, such as plants and animals.

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  • 2. 

    Organisms designated as producers usually obtain their energy from____________ ?

    • A.

      Other products

    • B.

      Dead consumers

    • C.

      Decomposers

    • D.

      The sun

    • E.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. The sun
    Explanation
    Producers, in the context of organisms, are typically plants or other photosynthetic organisms that can convert sunlight into energy through the process of photosynthesis. This energy is then used to produce food and fuel for themselves and other organisms in the ecosystem. Therefore, the correct answer is "The sun", as producers obtain their energy from sunlight.

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  • 3. 

    What is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element

    • A.

      Atom

    • B.

      Compound

    • C.

      Ion

    • D.

      Molecule

    • E.

      Mixture

    Correct Answer
    A. Atom
    Explanation
    An atom is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element. Atoms are the building blocks of matter and cannot be broken down into smaller particles without losing their elemental properties. Each atom consists of a nucleus, which contains protons and neutrons, and electrons that orbit around the nucleus. The properties of an element, such as its atomic number and chemical behavior, are determined by the number and arrangement of its atoms. Therefore, an atom is the correct answer as it is the fundamental unit that retains the properties of an element.

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  • 4. 

    The negative subatomic particle is the ___________ ?

    • A.

      Neutron

    • B.

      Proton

    • C.

      Electron

    • D.

      Neutron and proton

    • E.

      Proton and electron

    Correct Answer
    C. Electron
    Explanation
    The correct answer is electron because electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles. They are found outside the nucleus of an atom and are involved in chemical reactions and electricity. Neutrons and protons are both found in the nucleus of an atom and do not have a negative charge. Protons have a positive charge.

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  • 5. 

    For an atom to be neutral, ________ must have the same number.

    • A.

      Electrons and neutrons

    • B.

      Electrons and protons

    • C.

      Neutrons and protons

    • D.

      Electrons, neutrons, and protons

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Electrons and protons
    Explanation
    In order for an atom to be neutral, it must have an equal number of electrons and protons. Electrons have a negative charge, while protons have a positive charge. The positive charge of the protons balances out the negative charge of the electrons, resulting in a neutral atom. Neutrons, on the other hand, have no charge and do not affect the overall charge of the atom. Therefore, the correct answer is that electrons and protons must have the same number for an atom to be neutral.

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  • 6. 

    The atomic number is determined by the number of ____________ ?

    • A.

      Neutrons and protons

    • B.

      Neutrons and electrons

    • C.

      Protons and electrons

    • D.

      Protons only

    • E.

      Neutrons only

    Correct Answer
    D. Protons only
    Explanation
    The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. Protons have a positive charge and are found in the nucleus along with neutrons, which have no charge. Electrons, which have a negative charge, are found in the electron cloud surrounding the nucleus. Therefore, the correct answer is "Protons only" because the number of protons uniquely identifies an element and determines its atomic number.

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  • 7. 

    Water is an example of a(n) ____________ ?

    • A.

      Atom

    • B.

      Ion

    • C.

      Compound

    • D.

      Mixture

    • E.

      Element

    Correct Answer
    C. Compound
    Explanation
    Water is an example of a compound because it is made up of two different elements, hydrogen and oxygen, chemically bonded together. In a compound, the atoms of different elements are combined in a fixed ratio and can only be separated by a chemical reaction. Water, with its chemical formula H2O, consists of two hydrogen atoms bonded to one oxygen atom. This combination of elements gives water its unique properties and characteristics.

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  • 8. 

    Which substance is NOT an element?

    • A.

      Water

    • B.

      Oxygen

    • C.

      Carbon

    • D.

      Chlorine

    • E.

      Hydrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. Water
    Explanation
    Water is not an element because it is a compound made up of two elements, hydrogen and oxygen. Elements are substances that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means, whereas compounds are made up of two or more different elements chemically combined. Oxygen, carbon, chlorine, and hydrogen are all elements because they consist of only one type of atom.

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  • 9. 

    The bond in table salt (NaCl) is _____________ ?

    • A.

      Polar

    • B.

      Ionic

    • C.

      Covalent

    • D.

      Double

    • E.

      Nonpolar

    Correct Answer
    B. Ionic
    Explanation
    Table salt (NaCl) is formed by the bond between sodium (Na) and chlorine (Cl) ions. In this bond, sodium loses an electron to become a positively charged ion (Na+), while chlorine gains that electron to become a negatively charged ion (Cl-). The attraction between the oppositely charged ions results in an ionic bond. Therefore, the correct answer is ionic.

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  • 10. 

    What type of bond is (are) usually strongest?

    • A.

      Hydrogen

    • B.

      Ionic

    • C.

      Covalent

    • D.

      Hydrogen and covalent are equal

    • E.

      Ionic and covalent are equal

    Correct Answer
    C. Covalent
    Explanation
    Covalent bonds are usually the strongest type of bond. In a covalent bond, two atoms share electrons, creating a strong bond between them. This sharing of electrons allows both atoms to achieve a stable electron configuration. In contrast, ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, resulting in a weaker bond. Hydrogen bonds, on the other hand, are relatively weak attractions between a hydrogen atom and an electronegative atom. Therefore, covalent bonds are typically stronger than both ionic and hydrogen bonds.

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  • 11. 

    The three most common atoms in your body are ________ ?

    • A.

      Hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon

    • B.

      Carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

    • C.

      Carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen

    • D.

      Nitrogen, hydrogen, and oxygen

    • E.

      Carbon, oxygen, and sulfur

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon
    Explanation
    The three most common atoms in the human body are hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon. These elements are essential for life and make up the building blocks of organic molecules such as carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids. Hydrogen is found in water and many organic compounds, oxygen is necessary for respiration and is a component of water and organic molecules, and carbon is the backbone of organic compounds.

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  • 12. 

    An OH group is a(n) _____________ group.

    • A.

      Carboxyl

    • B.

      Hydroxyl

    • C.

      Amino

    • D.

      Methyl

    • E.

      Carbonyl

    Correct Answer
    B. Hydroxyl
    Explanation
    An OH group is commonly known as a hydroxyl group. This group consists of an oxygen atom bonded to a hydrogen atom, and it is commonly found in alcohols and other organic compounds. The hydroxyl group is characterized by its ability to form hydrogen bonds, making it important in various chemical reactions and biological processes.

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  • 13. 

    Which organic molecules are the most common in cells?

    • A.

      Carbohydrates

    • B.

      Salts and minerals

    • C.

      Proteins

    • D.

      Fats

    • E.

      Water

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbohydrates
    Explanation
    Carbohydrates are the most common organic molecules in cells because they serve as a major source of energy. They are made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms, and are found in various forms such as sugars, starches, and cellulose. Carbohydrates are essential for cellular processes like respiration and provide structural support in the form of cell walls. They also play a role in cell recognition and signaling. Overall, carbohydrates are vital for the proper functioning of cells and are therefore the most common organic molecules.

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  • 14. 

    Monosaccharides have a carbon to hydrogen to oxygen ratio of ____________ ?

    • A.

      1:1:1

    • B.

      1:1:2

    • C.

      2:1:1

    • D.

      1:2:1

    • E.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    D. 1:2:1
    Explanation
    Monosaccharides have a carbon to hydrogen to oxygen ratio of 1:2:1. This means that for every carbon atom, there are twice as many hydrogen atoms and the same number of oxygen atoms. This ratio is important because it determines the structure and properties of monosaccharides, which are the building blocks of carbohydrates.

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  • 15. 

    Which is NOT a monosaccharide?

    • A.

      Glucose

    • B.

      Fructose

    • C.

      Deoxyribose

    • D.

      Starch

    • E.

      Ribose

    Correct Answer
    D. Starch
    Explanation
    Starch is not a monosaccharide because it is a polysaccharide made up of multiple glucose molecules bonded together. Monosaccharides, on the other hand, are the simplest form of carbohydrates and cannot be broken down into smaller sugar molecules. Glucose, fructose, deoxyribose, and ribose are all examples of monosaccharides.

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  • 16. 

    An example of a saturated fat is ___________ ?

    • A.

      Olive oil

    • B.

      Corn oil

    • C.

      Butter

    • D.

      Canola oil

    • E.

      Soybean oil

    Correct Answer
    C. Butter
    Explanation
    Butter is an example of a saturated fat because it is primarily composed of saturated fatty acids. Saturated fats are solid at room temperature and are typically found in animal products such as meat and dairy, as well as some tropical oils. These fats have been linked to an increased risk of heart disease and should be consumed in moderation.

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  • 17. 

    Proteins may function as ___________ ?

    • A.

      Structural units

    • B.

      Enzymes

    • C.

      Storage molecules

    • D.

      Transport molecules

    • E.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    E. All of these
    Explanation
    Proteins can function as structural units, providing support and shape to cells and tissues. They can also act as enzymes, facilitating chemical reactions in the body. Additionally, proteins can serve as storage molecules, storing nutrients and other essential substances. Lastly, proteins can function as transport molecules, carrying substances such as oxygen and hormones throughout the body. Therefore, the correct answer is that proteins can function as all of these.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not a component of all cells?

    • A.

      Plasma membrane

    • B.

      DNA

    • C.

      Cytoplasm

    • D.

      Nucleus

    • E.

      Mitochondria

    Correct Answer
    D. Nucleus
    Explanation
    While most cells have a nucleus that houses their DNA, not all cells do; for example, red blood cells lack a nucleus. All cells have a plasma membrane, which is a protective barrier around the cell. They also contain DNA, the genetic material that carries instructions for the cell's functions. Cytoplasm is the gel-like substance inside the cell where various organelles and cellular processes occur. Mitochondria are present in many but not all cell types; they are the "powerhouses" responsible for energy production.

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  • 19. 

    An organelle found in the nucleus is a _________________ ?

    • A.

      Plastid

    • B.

      Vacuole

    • C.

      Microvillus

    • D.

      Nucleolus

    • E.

      Basal body

    Correct Answer
    D. Nucleolus
    Explanation
    The nucleolus is an organelle found within the nucleus of a cell. It is responsible for the production and assembly of ribosomes, which are essential for protein synthesis. The nucleolus contains DNA, RNA, and proteins, and it plays a crucial role in the regulation of cell growth and division.

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  • 20. 

    These organelles are sometimes referred to as rough or smooth, depending on the structure.

    • A.

      Golgi bodies

    • B.

      Ribosomes

    • C.

      Mitochondria

    • D.

      Lysosomes

    • E.

      Endoplasmic reticula

    Correct Answer
    E. Endoplasmic reticula
    Explanation
    The endoplasmic reticula are sometimes referred to as rough or smooth, depending on their structure. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is named so because it is studded with ribosomes, which give it a rough appearance under a microscope. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum, on the other hand, lacks ribosomes and appears smooth. These organelles play a crucial role in protein synthesis, lipid metabolism, and detoxification within the cell.

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  • 21. 

    The organelle that is compared to a whip is a ________________ ?

    • A.

      Microfilament

    • B.

      Cilium

    • C.

      Microvillus

    • D.

      Flagellum

    • E.

      Microtubule

    Correct Answer
    D. Flagellum
    Explanation
    A flagellum is an organelle that is comparable to a whip in terms of its structure and function. Like a whip, a flagellum is a long, whip-like appendage that is used for movement. In many organisms, such as bacteria and sperm cells, flagella are responsible for propelling the cell through its environment. The whip-like motion of a flagellum allows for efficient and rapid movement, similar to how a whip is used to move quickly through the air. Therefore, the correct answer is flagellum.

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  • 22. 

    Amoeba move by using ____________ ?

    • A.

      Cilia

    • B.

      Flagella

    • C.

      Pseudopods

    • D.

      Cilia and flagella

    • E.

      Cilia and pseudopods

    Correct Answer
    C. Pseudopods
    Explanation
    Amoeba move by using pseudopods, which are temporary projections of the cell membrane and cytoplasm. These pseudopods extend and contract, allowing the amoeba to move in a crawling motion. This method of movement is called amoeboid movement. Cilia and flagella are not used by amoeba for movement.

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  • 23. 

    Discrete packages of light energy are called ___________ ?

    • A.

      Electrons

    • B.

      Photons

    • C.

      Protons

    • D.

      Neutrons

    • E.

      Phycobilins

    Correct Answer
    B. Photons
    Explanation
    Photons are discrete packages of light energy. They are particles of electromagnetic radiation that have both wave-like and particle-like properties. Photons are massless and travel at the speed of light. They carry energy and can interact with matter, causing various effects such as the emission or absorption of light.

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  • 24. 

    The light reflected by chlorophyll is ___________ ?

    • A.

      Red

    • B.

      Orange

    • C.

      Green

    • D.

      Blue

    • E.

      Purple

    Correct Answer
    C. Green
    Explanation
    Chlorophyll is a pigment found in plants that is responsible for absorbing light energy for photosynthesis. It absorbs light most efficiently in the blue and red regions of the visible spectrum, but reflects or transmits light in the green region. This is why plants appear green to our eyes, as they reflect green light while absorbing other colors. Therefore, the correct answer is green.

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  • 25. 

    Plants need which of the following to carry out photosynthesis?

    • A.

      H20

    • B.

      CO2

    • C.

      O2

    • D.

      Both CO2 and O2

    • E.

      Both CO2 and H2O

    Correct Answer
    E. Both CO2 and H2O
    Explanation
    Plants need both carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) to carry out photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, plants use sunlight as an energy source to convert CO2 and H2O into glucose and oxygen (O2). CO2 is obtained from the air through tiny openings called stomata on the leaves, while water is absorbed by the roots from the soil. These two substances are essential for plants to produce food and release oxygen as a byproduct.

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  • 26. 

    Glucose is stored as ____________ in most complex plants.

    • A.

      Glucose

    • B.

      Ribulose bisphosphate

    • C.

      Starch

    • D.

      Sucrose

    • E.

      Glycogen

    Correct Answer
    C. Starch
    Explanation
    In most complex plants, glucose is stored as starch. Starch is a polysaccharide made up of glucose molecules linked together. It serves as a long-term energy storage molecule in plants. When glucose is abundant, plants convert it into starch and store it in various parts of the plant, such as roots, tubers, and seeds. Starch can be broken down back into glucose when the plant needs energy for growth or other metabolic processes.

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  • 27. 

    Opening in leaves through which gases enter and exit are called _____________ ?

    • A.

      Mesophylls

    • B.

      Pores

    • C.

      Rubiscos

    • D.

      Stomata

    • E.

      Veins

    Correct Answer
    D. Stomata
    Explanation
    Stomata are the openings in leaves through which gases enter and exit. They are responsible for the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen during photosynthesis and respiration. Stomata are surrounded by two specialized cells called guard cells, which control their opening and closing. This allows the plant to regulate the amount of gases and water vapor that enter and exit the leaf.

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  • 28. 

    What is the major gas released into the environment when organic material is burned?

    • A.

      O2

    • B.

      CO2

    • C.

      N2

    • D.

      H2

    • E.

      O2 and H2

    Correct Answer
    B. CO2
    Explanation
    When organic material is burned, the major gas released into the environment is carbon dioxide (CO2). This is because organic material, such as plants and fossil fuels, contain carbon, and when they are burned, the carbon combines with oxygen in the air to form carbon dioxide. CO2 is a greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change and global warming.

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  • 29. 

    The longest part of the cell cycle is usually __________ ?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Interphase

    • C.

      Metaphase

    • D.

      Prophase

    • E.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer
    B. Interphase
    Explanation
    Interphase is the correct answer because it is the longest part of the cell cycle. During interphase, the cell grows, carries out its normal functions, and replicates its DNA in preparation for cell division. This phase accounts for about 90% of the cell cycle and is divided into three stages: G1, S, and G2. Anaphase, metaphase, prophase, and telophase are all stages of mitosis, which is a shorter part of the cell cycle.

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  • 30. 

    Cells with two sets of genetic information are described by the term:

    • A.

      Polyploid

    • B.

      Diploid

    • C.

      Triploid

    • D.

      Haploid

    • E.

      Tetraploid

    Correct Answer
    B. Diploid
    Explanation
    Diploid cells have two sets of genetic information, one set inherited from each parent. This allows for genetic variation and the ability to undergo meiosis and sexual reproduction. Polyploid cells have more than two sets of genetic information, triploid cells have three sets, haploid cells have only one set, and tetraploid cells have four sets. Therefore, the correct term for cells with two sets of genetic information is diploid.

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  • 31. 

    He nuclear envelop begins to break up in late ___________ ?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Interphase

    • C.

      Metaphase

    • D.

      Prophase

    • E.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer
    D. Prophase
    Explanation
    During prophase, the nuclear envelope starts to break up. This is because prophase is the first stage of mitosis, where the chromosomes condense and become visible. The breakdown of the nuclear envelope allows the chromosomes to be released into the cytoplasm where they can align and separate during subsequent stages of mitosis.

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  • 32. 

    The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during _________ ?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Interphase

    • C.

      Metaphase

    • D.

      Prophase

    • E.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer
    C. Metaphase
    Explanation
    During metaphase, the chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator. This is a crucial stage in cell division, specifically in mitosis or meiosis, where the chromosomes condense and become visible. The spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes, pulling them towards the center of the cell and aligning them along the metaphase plate or equator. This alignment ensures that during anaphase, the sister chromatids can be separated and pulled towards opposite poles of the cell. Overall, metaphase plays a vital role in ensuring the accurate distribution of genetic material to daughter cells.

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  • 33. 

    The chromosomes are moved in opposite poles during _________ ?

    • A.

      Anaphase

    • B.

      Interphase

    • C.

      Metaphase

    • D.

      Prophase

    • E.

      Telophase

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaphase
    Explanation
    During anaphase, the chromosomes are moved in opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the spindle fibers, which attach to the centromeres of the chromosomes and pull them apart. As a result, each pole of the cell receives an equal number of chromosomes, ensuring that each daughter cell will have the correct number of chromosomes.

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  • 34. 

    The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished during ________ ?

    • A.

      Prokaryotic fission

    • B.

      Mitosis

    • C.

      Meiosis

    • D.

      Cytokinesis

    • E.

      Karyokinesis

    Correct Answer
    B. Mitosis
    Explanation
    During mitosis, the cytoplasm of a cell is distributed equally to the two daughter cells. This process occurs after the nucleus has divided and the chromosomes have been separated. The cytoplasmic division, known as cytokinesis, ensures that each daughter cell receives the necessary organelles and cytoplasmic components to function properly. Therefore, mitosis is the correct answer for the distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells.

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  • 35. 

    The building blocks of nucleic acids are:

    • A.

      Amino acids

    • B.

      Fatty acids

    • C.

      Monosaccharides

    • D.

      Nucleotides

    • E.

      All of the choices

    Correct Answer
    D. Nucleotides
    Explanation
    Nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, are composed of repeating units called nucleotides. These nucleotides consist of a sugar molecule (either ribose or deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine/uracil). Therefore, the correct answer is nucleotides.

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  • 36. 

    The DNA molecule could be compared to a:

    • A.

      Hairpin

    • B.

      Ladder

    • C.

      Key

    • D.

      Globular mass

    • E.

      Flat plate

    Correct Answer
    B. Ladder
    Explanation
    The DNA molecule can be compared to a ladder because it consists of two strands that are twisted together, similar to the rungs of a ladder. The two strands are connected by hydrogen bonds, just like the rungs of a ladder hold the two sides together. Additionally, the ladder-like structure of DNA allows for easy replication and transcription of genetic information.

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  • 37. 

    In DNA, complementary base pairing occurs between:

    • A.

      Cytosine and uracil

    • B.

      Adenine and guanine

    • C.

      Adenine and uracil

    • D.

      Adenine and thymine

    • E.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. Adenine and thymine
    Explanation
    In DNA, complementary base pairing occurs between adenine and thymine. This means that adenine always pairs with thymine and vice versa. This pairing is important for DNA replication and the transmission of genetic information. The other options listed (cytosine and uracil, adenine and guanine, adenine and uracil) are incorrect because they do not represent the correct base pairing in DNA.

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  • 38. 

    Which is not a nucleotide base in DNA

    • A.

      Adenine

    • B.

      Guanine

    • C.

      Uracil

    • D.

      Thymine

    • E.

      Cytosine

    Correct Answer
    C. Uracil
    Explanation
    Uracil is not a nucleotide base in DNA. DNA is composed of four nucleotide bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), thymine (T), and cytosine (C). Uracil (U) is found in RNA instead of thymine. RNA, like DNA, is also composed of nucleotide bases, but it substitutes thymine with uracil. Therefore, uracil is not a part of DNA's genetic code.

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  • 39. 

    When DNA replication begins, _________________.

    • A.

      The two DNA strands unwind from each other

    • B.

      The two DNA strands condense for base transfer

    • C.

      Two DNA molecules bond

    • D.

      Old strands move to find new strands

    Correct Answer
    A. The two DNA strands unwind from each other
    Explanation
    When DNA replication begins, the two DNA strands unwind from each other. This is a crucial step in the replication process as it allows the DNA polymerase enzyme to access the individual strands and synthesize new complementary strands. The unwinding of the DNA strands creates a replication fork where the new strands will be synthesized. This process is facilitated by various proteins and enzymes that work together to separate the DNA strands and initiate replication.

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  • 40. 

    Each codon specifies a(n) ____________ ?

    • A.

      Protein

    • B.

      Polypeptide

    • C.

      Amino acid

    • D.

      MRNA

    Correct Answer
    C. Amino acid
    Explanation
    Each codon is a sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that corresponds to a specific amino acid. Therefore, the correct answer is "Amino acid." Codons do not directly specify proteins or polypeptides, but rather the amino acids that make up these molecules. MRNA is the molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis, but it is not directly specified by codons.

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  • 41. 

    The DNA molecules is usually made up of how many strands?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      6

    • E.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    DNA molecules are usually made up of two strands. Each strand is composed of a long chain of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA. The two strands are twisted together in a double helix structure, with the nucleotides on one strand pairing with complementary nucleotides on the other strand. This double-stranded structure allows for DNA replication and transcription, which are essential processes for the transmission of genetic information.

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  • 42. 

    The RNA transcript is made up of how many strands?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    RNA transcript is made up of a single strand. Unlike DNA, which is double-stranded, RNA is single-stranded. During transcription, the DNA template is used to synthesize a complementary RNA molecule, resulting in a single-stranded RNA transcript. This RNA molecule can then be used for various cellular processes, such as protein synthesis.

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  • 43. 

    The genetic code is made up of units consisting of how many nucleotide bases?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    • E.

      12

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The genetic code is made up of units consisting of three nucleotide bases. Each unit, known as a codon, corresponds to a specific amino acid or a stop signal in protein synthesis. This three-base code allows for a total of 64 possible combinations, providing enough variation to code for all 20 amino acids found in proteins.

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  • 44. 

    Ribosomes are located:

    • A.

      In the cytoplasm

    • B.

      In the nucleus

    • C.

      In the cytoplasm and on the endoplasmic reticulum

    • D.

      All of the choices

    Correct Answer
    C. In the cytoplasm and on the endoplasmic reticulum
    Explanation
    Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm and on the endoplasmic reticulum. This is because ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis, and they can be found freely floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. The cytoplasm is the site where most cellular processes occur, including protein synthesis. The endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle involved in the production, folding, and transport of proteins. Therefore, ribosomes are found in both of these locations to carry out their function of protein synthesis efficiently.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 09, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 21, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Javanhove
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