CDC Study Guide: Volume 1

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1. As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which office was established?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Provost Marshal. In 1943, as a part of the reorganization of the War Department, the office of Air Provost Marshal was established. This office was responsible for maintaining discipline and law enforcement within the Air Force. They were in charge of investigating crimes, enforcing military regulations, and ensuring the security of air bases and personnel. The establishment of the Air Provost Marshal office was a significant step in improving the organization and efficiency of the Air Force during World War II.

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About This Quiz
CDC Study Guide: Volume 1 - Quiz

Explore the evolution of US Air Force security measures in 'CDC Study Guide: Volume 1'. This quiz assesses knowledge on historical milestones such as the establishment of key... see moresecurity organizations and roles, significant events affecting base security, and progressive integration of women into security roles. see less

2. Proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be

Explanation

The answer suggests that the proportionality of force to counter hostile acts must be of reasonable intensity, duration, and magnitude. This means that the force used in response to hostile acts should not exceed what is necessary to defend oneself or others. It should be proportional to the threat faced and should not be excessive or prolonged. Additionally, the answer does not mention anything about using force only in defense of foreign nationals, so it can be inferred that force can be used to counter hostile acts regardless of the nationality of the individuals involved.

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3. What is the first step in finding ways to reduce stress?

Explanation

The first step in finding ways to reduce stress is recognizing stressors. This involves identifying the factors or situations that cause stress in one's life. By being aware of these stressors, individuals can then take steps to manage or eliminate them, leading to a reduction in overall stress levels. This could involve making lifestyle changes, seeking support or therapy, practicing relaxation techniques, or implementing stress management strategies.

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4. Microorganisms that are present in blood and cause disease are called

Explanation

Bloodborne pathogens are microorganisms that are present in the blood and can cause diseases. These pathogens can be transmitted through contact with infected blood or other body fluids. Examples of bloodborne pathogens include HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. These microorganisms pose a significant risk to healthcare workers and others who may come into contact with blood or body fluids in their work or daily life. Therefore, it is important to take proper precautions to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens and ensure the safety of individuals.

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5. Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person interviewed, and

Explanation

Investigative notes should contain important details such as the case number, date, person interviewed, and the time of interview. These details are crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the investigation and ensuring that all relevant information is properly documented. The time of interview is particularly important as it allows investigators to establish a timeline of events and cross-reference information provided by different individuals. By including the time of interview in the investigative notes, investigators can effectively organize and analyze the information gathered during the investigation.

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6. Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule Security Forces members follow?

Explanation

Security Forces members follow the simple courtroom rule of not talking to court members. This rule is in place to ensure that there is no interference or influence on the court proceedings from the security forces. It helps to maintain the integrity and impartiality of the judicial process by preventing any potential bias or manipulation. By not engaging in conversation with court members, security forces can uphold the principles of fairness and justice in the courtroom.

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7.  Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must

Explanation

Before releasing a military working dog to search a building, the handler must give a verbal warning stating they are about to release the dog. This is important for several reasons. Firstly, it alerts any individuals inside the building that a dog will be released and they should take appropriate precautions. Secondly, it helps to ensure the safety of the dog itself, as it gives the dog a clear signal that it is about to be released and can prepare for the search. Lastly, it helps to maintain control over the situation, as the handler can communicate their intentions and maintain authority over the dog during the search.

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8.  Search authorizations are based upon

Explanation

Search authorizations are typically granted based on probable cause, which means that there must be a reasonable belief that a crime has been committed and that the evidence related to that crime can be found in the location to be searched. This requirement ensures that searches are not conducted arbitrarily and protects individuals from unreasonable searches and seizures. The other options mentioned, such as free search rules, evidentiary value, and trial admissibility, are not the primary basis for granting search authorizations.

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9. If you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state, "Okay if I have to," what are you actions?

Explanation

The correct answer is to restate the request and ask for a 'yes or no' answer. This is because the person's response of "Okay if I have to" does not clearly indicate their consent for the search. By restating the request and asking for a 'yes or no' answer, it ensures that the person's consent is clearly and unambiguously given before proceeding with the search.

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10. If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an interview

Explanation

In order to ensure a fair and unbiased interview, it is important to have a second investigator present if a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present. This helps to maintain the integrity of the interview process and prevents any potential allegations of impropriety or bias. Having a second investigator present allows for multiple perspectives and ensures that the interview is conducted in a professional and objective manner.

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11. Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because

Explanation

Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because other personnel need to readily identify SF members during crisis situations. This is important for maintaining effective communication and coordination during emergencies, as well as preventing friendly fire incidents. By wearing these distinguishing uniform items, SF members can be easily recognized and differentiated from enemy personnel, ensuring the safety and security of all personnel involved.

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12. As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which office was established?

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Provost Marshal. In 1943, the War Department underwent a reorganization, which led to the establishment of the Air Provost Marshal office. This office was responsible for overseeing military aviation companies and ensuring the enforcement of military police and security measures within the air force.

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13. The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are

Explanation

The correct answer is exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary. These types of jurisdiction refer to the different levels of authority that the US government has over its installations. Exclusive jurisdiction means that the US government has complete control and authority over the installation. Concurrent jurisdiction means that both the US government and the local government share authority. Partial jurisdiction means that the US government has limited authority over certain aspects of the installation. Proprietary jurisdiction refers to the control and authority that the US government has over its own property.

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14. When should you give your opinion during court proceedings

Explanation

During court proceedings, it is important to only give your opinion if asked to do so by the prosecution or defense. This is because as an expert witness, your role is to provide objective and unbiased information based on your expertise. Offering your opinion without being prompted can be seen as unprofessional and may undermine your credibility. It is crucial to wait for the appropriate time and context to present your professional opinion, ensuring that it is relevant and requested by the legal teams involved.

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15. What course is mandatory for award of the Air Force specialty code 3PO51?

Explanation

The SF Journeyman career development course is mandatory for the award of the Air Force specialty code 3PO51. This course is specifically designed for Security Forces (SF) personnel and focuses on developing their skills and knowledge in their career field. It is a comprehensive course that covers various aspects of SF duties and responsibilities, including law enforcement, base defense, and force protection. By completing this course, individuals demonstrate their readiness and competence to serve as SF Journeyman and contribute effectively to the Air Force's security mission.

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16. You must complete Airman Leadership School prior to

Explanation

Completing Airman Leadership School is a requirement before assuming the rank of staff sergeant. This means that in order to be promoted to the rank of staff sergeant, one must have successfully completed Airman Leadership School.

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17. What happened to the air bases located in the forward areas during the Korean War?

Explanation

During the Korean War, the air bases located in the forward areas were suddenly overrun by the enemy. This suggests that the enemy forces were able to successfully breach the defenses and gain control of the air bases, resulting in their capture. This would have had significant implications for the operations and capabilities of the allied forces, as the loss of these air bases would have hindered their ability to provide air support and conduct aerial operations in the forward areas.

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18. In Oct 1997, the security specialists, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance career fields merged into one career field that

Explanation

In October 1997, the different career fields of security specialists, law enforcement specialists, and combat arms training and maintenance merged into one career field. This new career field was then given a new name, which was Security Forces.

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19. If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that person

Explanation

If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, they can be tried in the US and vice versa. This means that regardless of where the offense takes place, the person can be held accountable under the military justice system of their own country. This allows for jurisdiction and legal proceedings to be carried out even when the offense occurs outside the home country.

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20. The punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice are

Explanation

The punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice are listed from 77 to 134. These articles outline the various offenses and crimes that can be committed by military personnel, as well as the corresponding punishments for each offense. They cover a wide range of offenses including insubordination, desertion, assault, theft, and more. The articles provide a comprehensive guide for maintaining discipline and order within the military, ensuring that all members are held accountable for their actions.

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21. The military working dog's greatest advantage to Security Forces is their

Explanation

The military working dog's superior ability to detect individuals, particularly during periods of reduced visibility, is their greatest advantage to Security Forces. This means that the dogs have a heightened sense of smell and hearing, allowing them to locate and identify individuals even when visibility is low. This is especially useful in situations where the enemy may try to hide or move stealthily, as the dogs can effectively track and locate them. Their superior detection ability makes them an invaluable asset to Security Forces in ensuring the safety and security of their surroundings.

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22. The main source of stress can be found in your

Explanation

The main source of stress can be found in your personal life and job. Personal life and job are two areas where individuals experience various challenges and responsibilities that can lead to stress. Personal life encompasses relationships, family issues, financial pressures, and personal goals, while the job includes work demands, deadlines, conflicts, and the need to perform well. Both personal life and job can contribute to stress due to the demands and expectations placed on individuals in these areas.

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23. Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ

Explanation

Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that the UCMJ applies everywhere. This means that the provisions and regulations outlined in the UCMJ are applicable to all members of the military, regardless of their location or circumstances. Whether on a military base, in a combat zone, or even on a ship, the UCMJ governs the behavior and conduct of military personnel. It ensures that military members are subject to a consistent set of rules and regulations, regardless of their physical location.

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24. Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 31–207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This is because AFI 31–207 specifically addresses the guidelines and regulations for arming and the use of force by Air Force personnel. It provides the necessary guidance for conducting apprehensions of suspects, ensuring that the actions taken are in accordance with the correct procedures and protocols.

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25. Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must

Explanation

Military working dogs should be kept on a leash except when they need to bite and hold a suspect or search an unoccupied building. This is because in these situations, the dogs need to have the freedom to move quickly and effectively without being restricted by a leash. By allowing them to be off-leash in these specific scenarios, the dogs can better fulfill their duties of apprehending suspects or searching for potential threats in unoccupied buildings.

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26. Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every aspect of a unit's

Explanation

Military working dog teams are highly versatile and can be utilized in various roles within a unit's operations. This includes law enforcement, where they can assist in apprehending suspects and detecting contraband. They are also valuable in providing security, as their keen senses and training make them excellent at detecting threats and providing early warning. Additionally, they can be deployed in contingency operations, such as search and rescue missions or disaster response, where their tracking and detection abilities can be crucial. Therefore, the correct answer is law enforcement, security, and contingency operations.

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27. What is the military working dog team's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators?

Explanation

The military working dog team's role when the riot control team is apprehending demonstrators is to protect members of the apprehension team. The dogs are trained to provide security and ensure the safety of the team members by deterring any potential threats or attacks from the demonstrators. Their presence can help to maintain order and prevent any harm to the apprehension team during the operation.

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28. The taking of items by authorities for evidence at courts-martial is called

Explanation

Seizure refers to the act of authorities taking items for evidence at courts-martial. This process involves the confiscation and removal of potential evidence from the possession of individuals or locations. It is an essential step in the legal process to gather evidence for the court proceedings. Searching, search affidavit, and obtaining evidence are not accurate terms to describe this specific action of taking items for evidence at courts-martial.

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29. What are the interviewee classifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Witness, victim, complainant, and suspect." This answer provides a comprehensive list of the possible classifications for interviewees in a situation. A witness is someone who has seen or has knowledge of the event, a victim is someone who has been harmed or affected by the event, a complainant is someone who has filed a complaint or reported the event, and a suspect is someone who is believed to be involved in the event. This answer covers all the possible roles that interviewees can have in a situation.

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30. What Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3PO31A. This Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members upon completion of the military working dog (MWD) handler apprentice course.

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31. The budget program operates on a fiscal year basis beginning the first day of

Explanation

The correct answer is "oct and ending on 30 sept". This means that the budget program operates on a fiscal year basis starting in October and ending on September 30th.

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32. Which section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office?

Explanation

The S4S Supply section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply, hazardous materials, General Services Administration, and Defense Reutilization Marketing Office. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and facilitating communication and logistics between these different entities, ensuring that all necessary supplies, materials, and equipment are obtained and distributed efficiently and effectively.

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33. The military working dog's greatest advantage during security operations is

Explanation

The correct answer is detection capabilities during periods of limited visibility. Military working dogs are trained to have heightened senses, including their sense of smell and hearing. This allows them to detect threats or suspicious items even in conditions where visibility is poor, such as in thick fog or rain. Their ability to detect and alert their handlers to potential dangers during these periods of limited visibility makes them a valuable asset in security operations.

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34. Which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?

Explanation

In December 2001, the operation launched against the Taliban was called "Enduring Freedom." This military operation was led by the United States, with the goal of removing the Taliban regime from power in Afghanistan and dismantling Al-Qaeda. The operation aimed to disrupt terrorist networks and promote stability in the region.

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35. The four-step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing, and

Explanation

The four-step interview process involves several stages, including preparing, planning, closing, and conducting the interview. Conducting the interview is the final step in the process, where the interviewer engages with the interviewee and asks the prepared questions to gather information or insights. This step is crucial as it allows for the collection of relevant data and enables the interviewer to assess the interviewee's suitability for the position or purpose of the interview.

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36. As part of a more distinctive uniform, Security Forces (SF) personnel wear a beret with a Defensor Fortis flash, which

Explanation

The correct answer is "identifies SF as an elite group charged with protecting the Air Force worldwide." This explanation is supported by the statement in the passage that the beret with the Defensor Fortis flash is part of a distinctive uniform for Security Forces personnel. This indicates that the beret serves as a visual identifier for SF personnel, highlighting their status as an elite group responsible for protecting the Air Force globally.

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37. Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague and Geneva conventions?

Explanation

The correct answer is Law of Armed Conflict. The Hague and Geneva conventions were international treaties that established rules and regulations for the conduct of armed conflicts. These conventions aimed to protect civilians and combatants who are no longer taking part in the hostilities, and to restrict the means and methods of warfare. The Law of Armed Conflict encompasses these conventions and provides a framework for the ethical and legal conduct of warfare. It ensures that parties involved in armed conflicts adhere to principles such as distinction, proportionality, and military necessity.

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38.  What is a posse comitatis?

Explanation

A posse comitatis is a summons for all able-bodied males of the country to aid the sheriff in keeping the peace or to pursue criminals. This practice originated in medieval England and was later adopted in the United States. It allows the sheriff to gather a group of citizens to assist in maintaining law and order when necessary. The posse comitatis is an important tool for law enforcement agencies to ensure public safety and apprehend criminals effectively.

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39. What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being assigned to operational duties?

Explanation

The military working dog must obey the commands "out" and "heel" prior to being assigned to operational duties. The command "out" is used to make the dog release an object or let go of a person, while the command "heel" is used to make the dog walk closely next to the handler's side. These commands are important for ensuring control and discipline over the dog during operations.

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40. Under concurrent jurisdiction,

Explanation

Under concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal governments have authority. This means that both levels of government have the power to enforce laws and regulate certain areas. In cases where there is concurrent jurisdiction, both the state and federal laws can be enforced and individuals can be subject to prosecution by both levels of government. This allows for a sharing of power and responsibilities between the state and federal governments in order to ensure effective governance.

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41. Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government?

Explanation

The primary responsibility of operations and administration during military government lies with the Army. This branch of the military is typically tasked with maintaining order, enforcing laws, and providing essential services in areas under military control. The Army's training and expertise in ground operations make them well-suited for the challenges of governing and maintaining stability in these situations.

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42. Which statement describes our Security Forces symbol?

Explanation

The correct answer is Falcon over crossed runways. This symbol represents our Security Forces, as it combines the image of a falcon, which symbolizes speed, agility, and keen eyesight, with crossed runways, which symbolize the airfield and the importance of protecting it. This symbol reflects the core values and mission of our Security Forces, who are responsible for the security and defense of our airfields and installations.

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43. The beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the forehead and

Explanation

The beret is properly worn when it is positioned 1 inch above the eyebrows. This allows the beret to sit comfortably on the head without obstructing the wearer's vision. Additionally, positioning the beret 1 inch above the eyebrows gives it a stylish and balanced appearance.

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44. On 1 September 1950, which organization was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida?

Explanation

On 1 September 1950, the Air Police school was established at Tyndall AFB, Florida. This organization was responsible for training and educating individuals in the field of air policing and base defense. It played a crucial role in maintaining the security and safety of military installations and personnel.

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45. Which Code of Conduct Article are you following if you continuously attempt to escape when captured?

Explanation

The correct answer is III. General Order 10. This article of the Code of Conduct pertains to the behavior and actions of individuals who are captured or become prisoners of war. It states that prisoners of war must resist any attempts by the enemy to obtain information or cooperation, and they are expected to make every effort to escape and aid others in their escape. Therefore, continuously attempting to escape when captured aligns with the principles outlined in General Order 10.

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46. Under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunicatons System (NLETS) program, where is the communications terminal located?

Explanation

The correct answer is "At authorized security forces (SF) control centers." This is because the National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS) program is designed to provide secure and reliable communication between law enforcement agencies. By locating the communications terminal at authorized security forces control centers, it ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the system, maintaining the security and integrity of the communication network.

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47. The use of pro-words in radio communication help

Explanation

The use of pro-words in radio communication helps to shorten transmissions and facilitate message reception. Pro-words are specific words or phrases that have standardized meanings in radio communication. By using pro-words, radio operators can convey information more efficiently and effectively, reducing the time needed for transmissions. This allows for quicker message reception and understanding, especially in situations where time is crucial, such as emergency or military communications.

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48. What are the elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE)?

Explanation

The elements of self-defense according to the Rules of Engagement (ROE) are proportionality and necessity. Proportionality means that the level of force used in self-defense should be reasonable and not excessive in relation to the threat faced. Necessity means that the use of force is necessary to protect oneself or others from imminent harm. These two elements ensure that self-defense is carried out in a measured and justified manner, balancing the need for protection with the avoidance of unnecessary harm.

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49. Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective

Explanation

Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide a psychological deterrent. This means that the presence of these dog teams can deter potential criminals or threats due to the fear or intimidation factor associated with trained dogs. The dogs' presence and their ability to detect and apprehend suspects can create a sense of fear and hesitation, discouraging individuals from engaging in illegal activities. This psychological deterrent can be highly effective in maintaining law and order and ensuring the safety and security of the area.

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50. Which AF form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis?

Explanation

The AF form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary basis. This form is used to document the temporary issue of firearms to individuals and tracks the accountability of the weapons. It ensures that the individuals are properly trained and qualified to use the firearms and that they are responsible for returning the firearms once their temporary use is complete.

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51. A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search is called a

Explanation

A search authorization is a written order issued by a competent military command authority to an authorized person to conduct a search. This means that the military command authority grants permission for a specific individual to carry out a search. It is different from a search warrant, which is typically issued by a civilian court and applies to civilian law enforcement agencies. In the military context, a search authorization is necessary to ensure that searches are conducted legally and within the chain of command.

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52. The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are

Explanation

The correct answer is "simple and complete." In confinement facilities, two types of searches are conducted: simple searches and complete searches. Simple searches involve a basic inspection of the person or area, while complete searches are more thorough and comprehensive. Both types of searches are used to ensure the safety and security of the facility and its occupants.

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53. Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as

Explanation

Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated as "critical" because they play a crucial role in ensuring the safety, security, and proper functioning of nuclear resources. These positions require individuals with specialized knowledge, skills, and training to handle and maintain nuclear materials, equipment, and facilities. The designation of "critical" emphasizes the importance of these positions and the need for highly qualified personnel to fulfill their responsibilities effectively and prevent any potential risks or incidents related to nuclear resources.

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54. The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening situations is known as

Explanation

The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening situations is known as stress. Stress is a natural response that triggers the body's fight-or-flight response, preparing it to either confront or escape from the perceived threat. This response involves the release of stress hormones, increased heart rate, heightened alertness, and other physiological changes.

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55. What approach is primarily used to interrogate?

Explanation

Direct interrogation is the primary approach used to interrogate. This approach involves questioning the individual directly and expecting immediate responses. It is a straightforward and confrontational method where the interrogator asks specific questions to obtain information or elicit a confession. The direct approach aims to put pressure on the person being interrogated and relies on direct confrontation and assertiveness to extract the desired information.

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56. The Code of Conduct is a guide for actions during

Explanation

The Code of Conduct serves as a guide for actions during war and as a prisoner of war. It outlines the ethical principles and standards that military personnel must adhere to in these situations. It provides guidelines on how to conduct oneself, maintain integrity, and uphold the rights of others even in the most challenging circumstances. This code ensures that military operations are carried out with professionalism, respect for human rights, and adherence to international laws and treaties. It also aims to protect the well-being and dignity of prisoners of war, ensuring they are treated fairly and humanely.

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57.  Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of

Explanation

Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of lawful apprehensions. This means that if law enforcement officers have a valid reason to believe that a person has committed a crime or is about to commit a crime, they can conduct a search without needing probable cause. This exception to the probable cause requirement allows officers to take immediate action to ensure public safety and prevent further criminal activity.

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58. When providing missile field security, how often do you test the alarm systems to ensure operational capabilities of the security system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "as necessary" because the frequency of testing the alarm systems for missile field security depends on various factors such as the specific security system in use, the level of threat, and any recent incidents or changes in the security protocols. Testing the alarm systems as necessary ensures that they are regularly evaluated and maintained to ensure their operational capabilities, without being bound to a fixed schedule that may not align with the actual security needs.

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59.  Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2707, confinement order. This form is used to order inmates into confinement. It is a document that authorizes the placement of an inmate in a confined space, such as a cell or a detention facility. The confinement order ensures that the inmate is securely held and separated from the general population.

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60. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects the

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects the positions authorized to accomplish the mission. This means that the UMD lists all the positions that are authorized within a unit to carry out their assigned tasks and responsibilities. It serves as a reference for determining the manpower requirements and capabilities of the unit. The UMD helps ensure that the unit has the necessary personnel in place to effectively accomplish their mission.

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61.  Supply discipline is mandatory in order to

Explanation

Supply discipline is mandatory in order to conserve, protect, and maintain available government supplies, equipment, and real property. This means that by implementing supply discipline, organizations can ensure that their resources are used efficiently and effectively. It helps in preventing wastage, damage, and loss of supplies, equipment, and real property. By conserving and protecting these resources, organizations can also ensure that they are available when needed, reducing the risk of shortages and disruptions in operations. Additionally, maintaining these resources helps in extending their lifespan and maximizing their value, saving costs in the long run.

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62. The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on installations

Explanation

When the government has exclusive jurisdiction, it means that it has complete control and authority over a particular area or installation. This means that the federal government has the sole power to enforce laws and regulations within that jurisdiction, without any interference from state or local governments. In such cases, the federal government has the ultimate responsibility for maintaining law and order, ensuring security, and enforcing the law on installations or areas under its exclusive jurisdiction.

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63. You may display the Security Forces emblem and shield together when

Explanation

Displaying the Security Forces emblem and shield together enhances the career field image. This suggests that wearing the emblem and shield together is seen as a symbol of pride and professionalism within the Security Forces career field. It implies that individuals who wear their mess dress with the emblem and shield are showcasing their commitment and dedication to their role in the Security Forces, which in turn enhances the overall reputation and perception of the career field.

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64. In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?

Explanation

The first trial issue of the shield was approved in 1957.

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65.  Determining a time and place to interview is the first step in

Explanation

The correct answer is planning. Determining a time and place to interview is an essential part of the planning process. It involves organizing and scheduling the interview, considering factors such as availability of the interviewer and interviewee, location logistics, and any necessary preparations. This step sets the foundation for a successful interview by ensuring that all parties involved are aware of when and where the interview will take place.

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66. Under the Stan/Eval program, unit functional areas are inspected once

Explanation

Under the Stan/Eval program, unit functional areas are inspected once every 12 months. This means that the inspections of these areas occur once a year. This time frame allows for a thorough evaluation of the unit functional areas and ensures that they are meeting the necessary standards and requirements. Inspecting these areas annually also allows for any necessary improvements or corrective actions to be identified and implemented in a timely manner.

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67. After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it was redesignated as which defense school?

Explanation

After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it was redesignated as "Air Base." This suggests that the school was transformed into an Air Base, indicating a change in its purpose and function.

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68. The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own is known as

Explanation

The correct answer is military jurisdiction. Military jurisdiction refers to the authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own. It allows the military to enforce discipline and maintain order within their ranks, including the ability to investigate and prosecute offenses committed by military personnel. This concept is essential for maintaining the effectiveness and integrity of the military justice system.

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69.  Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in your presence, commits a crime amounting to breach of the peace?

Explanation

The correct answer is citizens right of arrest. This right allows individuals to arrest someone who is committing a crime in their presence, specifically a crime that amounts to a breach of the peace. This right empowers citizens to take immediate action to prevent further harm or disturbance and ensures the preservation of public order and safety.

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70. Who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFOSI. AFOSI stands for Air Force Office of Special Investigations, which is responsible for entering information about lost or stolen firearms into the National Crime Information Center (NCIC). The NCIC is a database used by law enforcement agencies across the United States to track and share information about criminal activity, including stolen firearms. AFOSI, as part of their duties, handles investigations and security matters within the United States Air Force, including the entry of such information into the NCIC.

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71. Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they

Explanation

If persons have an unfavorable information file, they will not be tasked to supervise inmates. This suggests that individuals with a negative record or history may not be suitable for overseeing inmates due to potential risks or concerns.

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72. A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the definition of a/an

Explanation

The correct answer is "attempted suicide" because it refers to the act of intentionally trying to end one's own life using methods that are believed to be lethal. This term specifically denotes the action of trying to commit suicide but does not necessarily imply that the person was successful in causing their own death.

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73. Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress, and these laws are contained in the

Explanation

The correct answer is "us code". The US Code is a compilation of all federal laws passed by Congress. It is organized into titles and sections, making it easy to locate specific laws. The US Code is a primary source of federal statutory law and serves as a reference for legal professionals and the general public. It is regularly updated to include new laws and amendments.

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74. Who cannot be given the power to authorize search and seizure?

Explanation

The chief, sf and sja cannot be given the power to authorize search and seizure because they are not directly involved in the operational command structure. The group commander, wing commander, and squadron commanders are all part of the operational command structure and have the authority to authorize search and seizure actions. However, the chief, sf and sja are typically responsible for legal and administrative matters, rather than operational decision-making. Therefore, they do not have the power to authorize search and seizure.

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75. Government property requires search authorization when the

Explanation

The correct answer is that the person issued the property has a reasonable expectation of privacy. This means that if the government has issued property to an individual, that individual can expect their privacy to be protected in relation to that property. This implies that a search authorization would be required before conducting a search of the government-issued property, as the person has a legitimate expectation that their privacy will be respected.

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76. Which Article of the Code of Conduct states, "I will never surrender of my own free will."

Explanation

Article II of the Code of Conduct states, "I will never surrender of my own free will." This article emphasizes the importance of resilience and determination in the face of adversity. It highlights the commitment of individuals to uphold their duty and not give up, even in the most challenging circumstances. By including this statement in the Code of Conduct, it reinforces the values of courage and perseverance that are expected from military personnel.

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77.  In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code authorizes Security Forces to

Explanation

Title 18, Section 1382 of the US Code grants authorization to Security Forces to detain civilians for on-base offenses. This means that if a civilian commits an offense within a military base, the Security Forces have the legal authority to hold and detain them until proper legal action can be taken. This is done to maintain law and order within the military base and ensure that offenders are held accountable for their actions.

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78. Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?

Explanation

AF installation commanders can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries. This is because AF installation commanders have the authority and responsibility to ensure the safety and security of their installations and personnel, even when they are located in foreign countries. They have the power to authorize and conduct searches off-base if necessary to protect the interests of the Air Force and its personnel.

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79. A search affidavit of "probable cause" supports your request for

Explanation

The correct answer is "authorization to search and seize". A search affidavit of "probable cause" is a document that provides evidence and reasoning to support the request for authorization to search and seize items. This affidavit is typically submitted to a judge or magistrate to obtain a search warrant, which grants law enforcement officers the legal authority to conduct a search and seize evidence related to a criminal investigation.

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80. What two Air Force documents help you manage manpower resources?

Explanation

The correct answer is UMD and UPMR. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is a document that helps manage manpower resources by providing information on the authorized positions and personnel assigned to a specific unit. The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is another document that helps manage manpower resources by providing information on the personnel assigned to a specific unit, including their qualifications, training, and availability. These two documents work together to ensure that the unit has the necessary personnel and resources to fulfill its mission.

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81. Which Article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties?

Explanation

Article 92 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice gives Security Forces members the authority to issue lawful orders while executing their duties. This article states that any person subject to the UCMJ who violates or fails to obey any lawful general order or regulation shall be punished as a court-martial may direct. Therefore, Article 92 is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the authority of Security Forces members to issue lawful orders.

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82. Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog detect intruders?

Explanation

Under ideal conditions, a military working dog can detect intruders at a distance of 250 yards. This suggests that the dog has a highly developed sense of smell and hearing, allowing it to detect the presence of intruders from a significant distance away. This ability is crucial for military operations, as it gives the dog and its handler advanced warning of potential threats, allowing them to take appropriate action.

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83. All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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84. When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as

Explanation

When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay loader with a weapon is present, the LF is designated as "a limited area." This means that access to the LF is restricted and only authorized personnel are allowed to enter. The designation of a limited area helps ensure the security and safety of the LF and its operations.

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85. A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to how many years?

Explanation

A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence up to 5 years.

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86. Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law?

Explanation

Article 2 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the people who are subject to military jurisdiction or military law. This article outlines the categories of individuals who fall under military jurisdiction, including members of the armed forces, prisoners of war, and individuals accompanying the armed forces in a time of war. It also covers military retirees and individuals who are otherwise subject to military law. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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87. When was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?

Explanation

The ban on women entering the security field was lifted in January 1985.

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88. Which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?

Explanation

In an investigation, victims are interviewed to develop facts. Victims are individuals who have experienced harm or wrongdoing and have firsthand knowledge of the events. By interviewing victims, investigators can gather information about the incident, gather evidence, and understand the sequence of events. Victims' statements and testimonies are crucial in building a case and determining the truth behind the investigation.

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89. Which is not the purpose of an interview?

Explanation

The purpose of an interview is to gain information, establish facts of a crime, and develop background information. However, interrogating witnesses to gain information is not the purpose of an interview. Interrogation typically involves more intense questioning and is often conducted by law enforcement officials during criminal investigations. In an interview, the focus is on gathering information and understanding the perspectives of the individuals involved.

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90. Which of the following is not a general classification of supply items?

Explanation

The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is not a general classification of supply items because it is a document used for personnel management, specifically for tracking and managing unit personnel. It is not related to the classification or categorization of supply items. The other options, Equipment authorized inventory data (EAID), Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL), and Non-EAID, are all related to supply items and their management.

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91. Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process describes

Explanation

Battle drills involve collective actions that are executed quickly without applying a deliberate decision-making process. These drills are designed to train military personnel to respond rapidly and efficiently to specific combat situations. By practicing battle drills, soldiers develop the ability to react instinctively and work together as a cohesive unit, enhancing their combat effectiveness on the battlefield.

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92. Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification training will Stan/Evals be conducted?

Explanation

Within 30 duty days after an individual completes qualification training, Stan/Evals will be conducted. This means that the evaluation process will be initiated and completed within a month of completing the training. It is important to conduct these evaluations promptly to ensure that the individual's skills and knowledge are assessed and to provide feedback for improvement if necessary.

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93. As a form of administration, where an occupying power exercises all executive, legislative, and judicial authority over an occupied territory, it is known as a

Explanation

The correct answer is military govt. This form of administration refers to a situation where an occupying power has complete control over all aspects of governance in an occupied territory, including the executive, legislative, and judicial branches. It implies that the military is in charge of running the government and making decisions on behalf of the occupied population.

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94. What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?

Explanation

The common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk are inconvenience, resentment, and fear of involvement. This means that the interviewee may find it inconvenient to participate in the interview, they may feel resentment towards the situation or the interviewer, and they may have a fear of getting involved in the matter being discussed. These factors can contribute to their reluctance to openly communicate and share information during the interview.

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95.  Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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96. During qualified martial law, Security Forces members have the authority to

Explanation

During qualified martial law, Security Forces members are granted the authority to detain civilians, but not to apprehend them. This means that they have the power to temporarily hold individuals in custody, but they do not have the authority to actively capture or arrest civilians. The distinction between detention and apprehension is important, as it limits the scope of the Security Forces' actions and ensures that they do not overstep their boundaries during martial law.

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97. During peacetime operations within a US territory, do not confuse Rules of Engagement with

Explanation

During peacetime operations within a US territory, it is important not to confuse Rules of Engagement with rules for use of force. Rules of Engagement are guidelines that define the circumstances and limitations under which military personnel are authorized to use force, while rules for use of force specifically outline the procedures and restrictions for employing force in a given situation. While both concepts are related to the use of force, they serve different purposes and should not be mistaken for one another.

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98. Within how many months after qualification training must Security Forces and battlefield Airmen complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon?

Explanation

Security Forces and battlefield Airmen must complete unit live-fire sustainment training on their primary weapon within 5 to 7 months after qualification training. This training is crucial to ensure that they maintain proficiency and readiness in using their primary weapon in combat situations. It allows them to practice and hone their skills, ensuring they are prepared for any potential threats or challenges they may face in the field.

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99. Military jurisdiction stems from

Explanation

Military jurisdiction stems from international laws because these laws provide the framework and guidelines for the conduct of armed forces in relation to their jurisdiction and legal authority. International laws, such as the Geneva Conventions and the United Nations Charter, establish the rights and responsibilities of states and individuals during armed conflicts. They outline the rules of engagement, the treatment of prisoners of war, and other important aspects of military operations. Therefore, military jurisdiction is derived from these international laws to ensure that military personnel operate within the boundaries of legal and ethical standards.

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100. How far from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control areas should collection points be located?

Explanation

Collection points should be located 10 ft and downwind from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control areas. This distance ensures that any potential hazards, such as explosions or chemical contamination, are minimized and do not pose a threat to the collection point. Being downwind also helps to prevent the collection point from being affected by any harmful substances or gases that may be released in the area.

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101. What form is used to document a search authorization?

Explanation

The AF Form 1364 is used to document a search authorization. This form is specifically designed for recording the details of a search warrant or authorization, including the purpose of the search, the location to be searched, and the items or information being sought. It serves as an official record of the authorization and ensures that the search is conducted within the legal boundaries.

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Investigative notes should contain the case number, date, person...
Which of the following is a simple courtroom rule Security Forces...
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 Search authorizations are based upon
If you ask a person to grant consent for a search and they state,...
If a same-sex Security Forces member cannot be present during an...
Security Forces members wear distinguishing uniform items because
As a result of the reorganization of the War Department in 1943, which...
The types of jurisdiction found on US government installations are
When should you give your opinion during court proceedings
What course is mandatory for award of the Air Force specialty code...
You must complete Airman Leadership School prior to
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In Oct 1997, the security specialists, law enforcement specialists,...
If a person subject to military law commits an offense overseas, that...
The punitive articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice are
The military working dog's greatest advantage to Security Forces is...
The main source of stress can be found in your
Article 5 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) states that...
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with
Military working dogs should be kept on leash except when they must
Military working dog teams can be effectively employed in almost every...
What is the military working dog team's role when the riot control...
The taking of items by authorities for evidence at courts-martial is...
What are the interviewee classifications?
What Air Force specialty code is awarded to Security Forces members...
The budget program operates on a fiscal year basis beginning the first...
Which section acts as the liaison between the unit, base supply,...
The military working dog's greatest advantage during security...
Which operation was launched against the Taliban in Dec 2001?
The four-step interview process includes preparing, planning, closing,...
As part of a more distinctive uniform, Security Forces (SF) personnel...
Through discussions, which international law was reached at The Hague...
 What is a posse comitatis?
What commands must the military working dog obey prior to being...
Under concurrent jurisdiction,
Which branch of the military has the primary responsibility of...
Which statement describes our Security Forces symbol?
The beret is properly worn when the headband is straight across the...
On 1 September 1950, which organization was established at Tyndall...
Which Code of Conduct Article are you following if you continuously...
Under the National Law Enforcement Telecommunicatons System (NLETS)...
The use of pro-words in radio communication help
What are the elements of self-defense according to the Rules of...
Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide...
Which AF form is used for personnel who use firearms on a temporary...
A written order issued by a competent military command authority to an...
The two types of searches used in confinement facilities are
Duty positions in direct support of nuclear resources are designated...
The automatic physical reaction to new, unpleasant, and threatening...
What approach is primarily used to interrogate?
The Code of Conduct is a guide for actions during
 Probable cause is not required when searching as a result of
When providing missile field security, how often do you test the alarm...
 Inmates are ordered into confinement utilizing which DD form?
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the primary document that reflects...
 Supply discipline is mandatory in order to
The federal government has sole authority to enforce the law on...
You may display the Security Forces emblem and shield together when
In what year was the first trial issue of the shield approved?
 Determining a time and place to interview is the first step in
Under the Stan/Eval program, unit functional areas are inspected once
After the Air Police school transferred to Parks AFB, California, it...
The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police...
 Which right could you invoke when apprehending a person who, in...
Who enters information about lost or stolen firearms into the National...
Persons will not be tasked to supervise inmates if they
A conscious intent to die by means believed to cause death is the...
Federal statutes are laws passed by Congress, and these laws are...
Who cannot be given the power to authorize search and seizure?
Government property requires search authorization when the
Which Article of the Code of Conduct states, "I will never surrender...
 In order to preserve law and order, Title 18, Section 1382 of...
Who can issue off-base search procedures in foreign countries?
A search affidavit of "probable cause" supports your request for
What two Air Force documents help you manage manpower resources?
Which Article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice gives Security...
Under ideal conditions, at what distance can the military working dog...
All inmates are assigned a custody status and classified as either
When the launch facility (LF) is penetrated or unlocked, or a pay...
A level II facility can house inmates serving a confinement sentence...
Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice identifies the...
When was the ban lifted on women entering the security field?
Which interviewee is interviewed to develop facts in an investigation?
Which is not the purpose of an interview?
Which of the following is not a general classification of supply...
Collective actions executed quickly without applying a deliberate...
Within how many duty days after an individual completes qualification...
As a form of administration, where an occupying power exercises all...
What are the common reasons for an interviewee's reluctance to talk?
 Investigators will conduct pretrial preparation with
During qualified martial law, Security Forces members have the...
During peacetime operations within a US territory, do not confuse...
Within how many months after qualification training must Security...
Military jurisdiction stems from
How far from bunkers, fighting positions, or contamination control...
What form is used to document a search authorization?
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