CDC B3m071 Volume 2. Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol

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CDC B3m071 Volume 2. Readiness, Mortuary, And Protocol - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is NOT provided by the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) to support operations?

    • A. 

      Current policies

    • B. 

      Planning factors

    • C. 

      Concept of operations

    • D. 

      Global Force Management (GFM) forces

    Correct Answer
    C. Concept of operations
    Explanation
    The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides current policies, planning factors, and Global Force Management (GFM) forces to support operations. However, it does not provide the concept of operations. This refers to the overall plan or strategy for achieving military objectives and coordinating actions. While the WMP may include elements of the concept of operations, it is not explicitly provided by the plan itself.

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  • 2. 

    Which wartime priority supports the strategic offense and defensive missions?

    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Wartime priority 1 supports both the strategic offense and defensive missions. This suggests that it is a crucial aspect that helps in both attacking the enemy and defending against their attacks. The other options (2, 3, and 4) may support either offense or defense, but not both.

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  • 3. 

    Which part of the base support plan, expeditionary site plans (ESP) identifies resources?

    • A. 

      Part 1

    • B. 

      Part 2

    • C. 

      Services annex

    • D. 

      Joint support plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 1
    Explanation
    Expeditionary site plans (ESP) are a part of the base support plan that identifies resources. Therefore, the correct answer is Part 1.

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  • 4. 

    Within the emergency management process, who provides oversight for the installation commander during emergencies?

    • A. 

      Emergency operations center director

    • B. 

      Emergency support function staff

    • C. 

      Incident commander

    • D. 

      Unit control center officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency operations center director
    Explanation
    The emergency operations center director provides oversight for the installation commander during emergencies. They are responsible for coordinating and managing the overall emergency response efforts, ensuring that the necessary resources and support are provided to the incident commander and other personnel involved in the emergency response. The emergency operations center director acts as a central point of coordination and communication, making critical decisions and providing guidance to the installation commander throughout the emergency.

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  • 5. 

    Which organization serves as the office of primary responsibilities (OPR) for emergency support functions (ESF) dealing with mass care, housing, and human services?

    • A. 

      Medical group

    • B. 

      Force support

    • C. 

      Security forces

    • D. 

      Civil Engineer

    Correct Answer
    B. Force support
    Explanation
    Force support is the correct answer because they are responsible for providing support during emergencies, including mass care, housing, and human services. They work closely with other organizations and agencies to ensure the well-being and safety of individuals affected by the emergency. This includes coordinating shelter, food, and medical assistance, as well as providing support for emotional and mental health needs. Force support plays a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary resources and services are available to those in need during times of crisis.

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  • 6. 

    Which organization supervises food sources for deployed units?

    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • B. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

    • C. 

      United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC)

    • D. 

      Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV)

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC)
    Explanation
    The United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC) is responsible for supervising food sources for deployed units. This organization ensures that food provided to deployed units meets the necessary health and safety standards. They oversee the procurement, storage, preparation, and distribution of food to ensure the well-being of military personnel.

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  • 7. 

    When deployed, which ration type does not require cooks?

    • A. 

      A-ration

    • B. 

      B-rations

    • C. 

      Meal ready to eat (MRE)

    • D. 

      Unitized group ration (UGR)

    Correct Answer
    C. Meal ready to eat (MRE)
    Explanation
    The Meal Ready to Eat (MRE) ration type does not require cooks when deployed. MREs are pre-packaged meals that are designed to be easily consumed without the need for any additional preparation or cooking. They are self-contained and come with their own heating elements, allowing soldiers to heat up their meals without the need for a separate cooking facility or personnel. This makes MREs a convenient and practical option for military personnel in the field.

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  • 8. 

    To validate support for Air Force unit type code (AF UTC) availability within the adaptive planning process, use the

    • A. 

      Joint Support Plan

    • B. 

      Defense planning guidance (DPG)

    • C. 

      Air Force Program Objective Memorandum (AF POM)

    • D. 

      In-garrison expeditionary support planning committee (IGESP)

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Program Objective Memorandum (AF POM)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Program Objective Memorandum (AF POM) is the correct answer because it is a planning document used by the Air Force to prioritize and allocate resources for various programs and initiatives. It outlines the Air Force's objectives, goals, and budgetary requirements, including the availability of Air Force unit type codes (AF UTCs). By referencing the AF POM, one can validate support for AF UTC availability within the adaptive planning process. The other options, such as the Joint Support Plan, Defense Planning Guidance (DPG), and In-garrison Expeditionary Support Planning Committee (IGESP), are not specifically focused on AF UTC availability.

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  • 9. 

    (?) Which of the following is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

    • A. 

      Unit line number (ULN)

    • B. 

      Unitized group ration (UGR)

    • C. 

      Force requirement number (FRN)

    • D. 

      Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit line number (ULN)
    Explanation
    The Unit line number (ULN) is considered a data element that controls and identifies each entry in Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). The ULN is a unique identifier assigned to each unit within the JOPES system, allowing for easy tracking and management of units during planning and execution of joint operations. The other options, such as Unitized group ration (UGR), Force requirement number (FRN), and Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD), are not specifically related to controlling and identifying each entry in JOPES.

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  • 10. 

    Which time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operational plan (OPLAN)?

    • A. 

      Requirements driven

    • B. 

      Balance and certified

    • C. 

      Capabilities driven

    • D. 

      Ratified

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements driven
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Requirements driven." In an operational plan (OPLAN), the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is typically based on the specific requirements outlined in the plan. This means that the deployment of forces is driven by the specific needs and objectives identified in the plan. The TPFDD is developed in accordance with these requirements to ensure that the necessary resources and capabilities are available at the right time and place to support the plan's execution.

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  • 11. 

    Which numerical figure is NOT one of the population bases that Services unit type code (UTC) are built on?

    • A. 

      275

    • B. 

      550

    • C. 

      1100

    • D. 

      2200

    Correct Answer
    D. 2200
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the numerical figure that is NOT one of the population bases for Services unit type code (UTC). The options provided are 275, 550, 1100, and 2200. The correct answer is 2200 because it is the only figure that is not one of the population bases for Services UTC.

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  • 12. 

    The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on

    • A. 

      70 percent of patients in medical facility

    • B. 

      80 percent of convalescent

    • C. 

      90 percent of base population

    • D. 

      100 percent of base population

    Correct Answer
    D. 100 percent of base population
    Explanation
    The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on 100 percent of the base population. This means that when planning for feeding during wartime flights, the factor takes into account the entire population of the base. This ensures that enough food and resources are allocated to meet the needs of everyone in the base population during wartime flights.

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  • 13. 

    Within the force support squadron (FSS), who ENSURES qualified individuals fill each deployable unit type code (UTC) position assigned to the unit?

    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Activity manager

    • C. 

      Unit deployment manager (UDM)

    • D. 

      Resource manager (RM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit deployment manager (UDM)
    Explanation
    The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) is responsible for ensuring that qualified individuals are assigned to each deployable Unit Type Code (UTC) position within the Force Support Squadron (FSS). They are in charge of coordinating and managing the deployment process, including identifying personnel with the necessary skills and qualifications to fill each position. The UDM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the FSS is properly staffed for deployment operations.

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  • 14. 

    Which form are you required to obtain when a physically limiting condition is detected that limit your capability to perform deployment duties?

    • A. 

      AF Form 412

    • B. 

      AF Form 422

    • C. 

      AF Form 512

    • D. 

      AF Form 522

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 422
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF Form 422. This form is required to be obtained when a physically limiting condition is detected that limits an individual's capability to perform deployment duties. It is used to document medical conditions and limitations that may affect an individual's ability to deploy and to ensure appropriate medical care and accommodations are provided.

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  • 15. 

    What is the fundamental premise of Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?

    • A. 

      Integrity

    • B. 

      Accuracy

    • C. 

      Timeliness

    • D. 

      Statistical data

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity
    Explanation
    The fundamental premise of SORTS reporting is integrity. This means that the reporting system is based on honesty, trustworthiness, and adherence to ethical principles. It ensures that the data reported is reliable, complete, and free from manipulation or bias. Integrity is crucial in maintaining the credibility and effectiveness of SORTS reporting, as it allows decision-makers to make informed choices based on accurate and trustworthy information.

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  • 16. 

    Which Force Support Squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) supports initial deployment to a bare-base (BB)?

    • A. 

      RFSR1

    • B. 

      RFSR7

    • C. 

      RFSRJ

    • D. 

      RFSRF

    Correct Answer
    A. RFSR1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RFSR1. This Force Support Squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) supports initial deployment to a bare-base (BB).

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  • 17. 

    After the start of the "open the base" force module (FM), no later than (NLT) what day will the "generate the mission" FM be expected to be in place?

    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    The "open the base" force module (FM) is expected to be in place before the "generate the mission" FM. Since the "open the base" FM starts at the beginning, it will definitely be in place by day 2. Therefore, the "generate the mission" FM will be expected to be in place no later than day 4.

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  • 18. 

    Which mortuary program is the PREFERRED method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

    • A. 

      Current death

    • B. 

      Concurrent return

    • C. 

      Temporary internment

    • D. 

      Wartime mortuary affairs

    Correct Answer
    B. Concurrent return
    Explanation
    Concurrent return is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict. This means that the deceased are transported back to their home country or place of origin as soon as possible, simultaneously with ongoing military operations. This allows for timely and respectful repatriation of the remains, ensuring that the deceased can be laid to rest in their homeland.

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  • 19. 

    The Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP) must be responsive to the information needs of the 

    • A. 

      Unti

    • B. 

      Media

    • C. 

      Public

    • D. 

      Family

    Correct Answer
    D. Family
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "family." The Air Force survivor assistance program (AFSAP) is designed to provide support and assistance to the families of deceased Air Force members. It is important for the program to be responsive to the information needs of the families, as they are the ones directly affected by the loss and may require guidance and resources during this difficult time.

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  • 20. 

    Within how many HOURS should training be completed once you are identified as a family affairs representative (FAR)?

    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      36

    • D. 

      48

    Correct Answer
    B. 24
    Explanation
    Once identified as a family affairs representative (FAR), training should be completed within 24 hours. This suggests that there is a sense of urgency in ensuring that the FAR is properly trained and equipped to handle their responsibilities. It is important to act quickly in order to effectively address any family affairs that may arise and provide the necessary support to those involved.

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  • 21. 

    Who makes the recommendation for an individual to be the family affairs representative (FAR) of a deceased member?

    • A. 

      Next-of-kin

    • B. 

      Mortuary officer

    • C. 

      Unit commander

    • D. 

      Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit commander
    Explanation
    The unit commander is responsible for making the recommendation for an individual to be the family affairs representative (FAR) of a deceased member. This is because the unit commander has a direct understanding of the deceased member's family dynamics and can assess who would be best suited to fulfill the responsibilities of the FAR role. The unit commander is also in a position of authority and has the necessary knowledge and information to make an informed recommendation.

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  • 22. 

    Which person is appointed by the installation commander to handle the personal property and the effects of an eligible deceased member?

    • A. 

      Next-of-kin

    • B. 

      Mortuary officer

    • C. 

      Summary courts officer

    • D. 

      Family affairs representative

    Correct Answer
    C. Summary courts officer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Summary courts officer. The installation commander appoints the Summary courts officer to handle the personal property and effects of an eligible deceased member. This officer is responsible for ensuring that the deceased member's personal belongings are properly accounted for and distributed according to legal requirements and the wishes of the deceased member or their next-of-kin.

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  • 23. 

    Which tab of the mortuary case file is the family affairs representative (FAR) log of events located?

    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      2

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. The family affairs representative (FAR) log of events is located in tab 6 of the mortuary case file. This tab likely contains all the relevant information and documentation related to the involvement and communication with the family affairs representative, including any events or updates that have occurred throughout the process.

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  • 24. 

    Which form would you use as a death confirmation letter if the death occurs overseas?

    • A. 

      Form 57, Mortuary Guide

    • B. 

      AF Form 970, Statement of Disposition of Remains

    • C. 

      DD Form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains

    • D. 

      DD Form 2065, Death Certificate

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 2065, Death Certificate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 2065, Death Certificate. This form is used as a death confirmation letter when the death occurs overseas. It is a document that officially records the details of a person's death, including the cause of death, place of death, and other relevant information. It is an essential form for legal and administrative purposes, and it is used to notify various agencies and organizations about the death.

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  • 25. 

    Mortuary case files are kept for the current year plus how many additional years?

    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

    Correct Answer
    D. 1
    Explanation
    Mortuary case files are kept for the current year plus one additional year. This means that after the current year, the files are retained for one more year before they are no longer needed. This allows for easy access to the files in case any information or documentation is required in the future.

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  • 26. 

    How many copies of a certified state death certificate are given to a person authorized to direct disposition (PADD)?

    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      16

    • D. 

      18

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    A person authorized to direct disposition (PADD) is given 10 copies of a certified state death certificate. These copies are necessary for legal and administrative purposes, such as settling the deceased person's estate, filing insurance claims, and notifying government agencies. Having multiple copies ensures that the PADD can distribute them as needed without having to make additional requests or copies.

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  • 27. 

    Burial clothing is classified as which type of mortuary expense?

    • A. 

      Other

    • B. 

      Additional

    • C. 

      Secondary

    • D. 

      Primary

    Correct Answer
    D. Primary
    Explanation
    Burial clothing is classified as a primary mortuary expense because it is an essential cost directly associated with the burial process. It is considered a necessary expense that is incurred in order to properly prepare and present the deceased for their final resting place. Secondary expenses, on the other hand, are typically optional or additional costs that are not directly related to the core burial process. Therefore, burial clothing falls under the category of primary mortuary expenses.

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  • 28. 

    What is the MAXIMUM allowable number of internment flags given to a deceased's family?

    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable number of internment flags given to a deceased's family is 3. This suggests that the family of the deceased can receive up to three internment flags as a symbol of honor and respect for the individual's service.

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  • 29. 

    Which transport method is NOT authorized for movement of a deceased member's remains?

    • A. 

      Commercial aircraft

    • B. 

      Hearse of service car

    • C. 

      Government aircraft

    • D. 

      Personal vehicle

    Correct Answer
    D. Personal vehicle
    Explanation
    Personal vehicle is not authorized for the movement of a deceased member's remains. This is because transporting human remains requires specific equipment and procedures to ensure the dignity and respect of the deceased. Personal vehicles may not have the necessary facilities or meet the required standards for handling and transporting human remains. Therefore, alternative authorized methods such as commercial aircraft, hearse or service car, and government aircraft are used for this purpose.

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  • 30. 

    Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses?

    • A. 

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (HQ AFPC/SV)

    • B. 

      Headquarters Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO)

    • C. 

      MAJCOM/A1S

    • D. 

      Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    C. MAJCOM/A1S
    Explanation
    MAJCOM/A1S is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses.

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  • 31. 

    The government purchase card (GPC) may be used for which type of expense?

    • A. 

      Primary

    • B. 

      Secondary

    • C. 

      Advertisement

    • D. 

      Other

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    The government purchase card (GPC) is primarily used for making purchases related to official government business and expenses. It is a convenient and efficient way for government employees to acquire goods and services necessary for their work. The card can be used for a wide range of expenses such as office supplies, equipment, travel expenses, and other authorized purchases. However, it cannot be used for personal expenses or non-government related expenses.

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  • 32. 

    Which deceased member relative is NOT authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel?

    • A. 

      Spouse

    • B. 

      Children

    • C. 

      Parent(s)

    • D. 

      Grandchildren

    Correct Answer
    D. Grandchildren
    Explanation
    Grandchildren are not authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel. This is because the entitlements are typically limited to immediate family members such as the spouse, children, and parents of the deceased member. Grandchildren are considered to be one step removed from the immediate family and therefore do not qualify for these entitlements.

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  • 33. 

    Which document cites the performance requirements of the contractor?

    • A. 

      Quality assurance surveillance plan

    • B. 

      Memorandum of understanding

    • C. 

      Service delivery summary

    • D. 

      Quality control program

    Correct Answer
    C. Service delivery summary
    Explanation
    The service delivery summary is the document that cites the performance requirements of the contractor. This document outlines the expectations and standards for the contractor's performance in delivering the service. It provides a summary of the agreed-upon service levels, key performance indicators, and any specific requirements that the contractor needs to meet. By referring to the service delivery summary, both the contractor and the client can ensure that the performance requirements are clearly defined and understood.

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  • 34. 

    Which person provides a complete quality control program to assure contract requirements are met?

    • A. 

      Quality assurance evaluator (QAE)

    • B. 

      Mortuary officer

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Contractor

    Correct Answer
    D. Contractor
    Explanation
    A contractor is the person who provides a complete quality control program to assure contract requirements are met. As the one responsible for executing the contract, the contractor is accountable for ensuring that the work meets the specified standards and requirements. They are responsible for implementing quality control measures, conducting inspections, and addressing any deficiencies or non-compliance issues. The contractor plays a crucial role in ensuring that the project or service meets the necessary quality standards.

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  • 35. 

    Who may waive funeral honors performed by the honor guard?

    • A. 

      Mortuary officer

    • B. 

      Major command

    • C. 

      Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

    • D. 

      Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)

    Correct Answer
    D. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)
    Explanation
    The Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) has the authority to waive funeral honors performed by the honor guard. This means that the SECDEF can decide to exempt certain individuals or situations from receiving funeral honors. The mortuary officer, major command, and Headquarters Air Force (HAF) do not have the power to make this decision. It is solely within the jurisdiction of the SECDEF.

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  • 36. 

    Who has overall responsibility for the base honor guard program?

    • A. 

      Protocol officer

    • B. 

      Mortuary officer

    • C. 

      Group commander

    • D. 

      Installation commander

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander has overall responsibility for the base honor guard program. As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the entire installation, they are responsible for overseeing all aspects of the base, including the honor guard program. This includes ensuring proper training, equipment, and resources are provided, as well as setting the standards and expectations for the program. The installation commander is ultimately accountable for the success and effectiveness of the base honor guard program.

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  • 37. 

    Who determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction for a civic leader visiting your installation?

    • A. 

      Protocol office

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Air Force Senior Leader Management Office

    • D. 

      Secretary of Defense

    Correct Answer
    B. Commander
    Explanation
    The commander determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction for a civic leader visiting the installation. This means that the commander is responsible for deciding the level of protocol and honors that will be extended to the visiting civic leader. The commander considers factors such as the leader's rank, position, and importance to determine the appropriate level of recognition and treatment during their visit.

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  • 38. 

    Which office develops operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field?

    • A. 

      Air Force Services (AF/A1S)

    • B. 

      Secretary if the Air Force

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • D. 

      Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV)

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV) is responsible for developing operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field. This office is specifically dedicated to providing services and support to Air Force personnel, including protocol services. Therefore, it is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 39. 

    What is the most embedded custom in the military culture?

    • A. 

      Calling a room to attention

    • B. 

      Place of honor

    • C. 

      Marching

    • D. 

      Saluting

    Correct Answer
    D. Saluting
    Explanation
    Saluting is the most embedded custom in military culture. It is a form of respect and recognition among military personnel. Saluting is a way to acknowledge a superior officer, showing obedience and adherence to the military hierarchy. It is a symbol of discipline and professionalism, emphasizing the chain of command. Saluting is deeply ingrained in military traditions and is practiced worldwide, making it an essential and well-known custom in military culture.

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  • 40. 

    Where is the second place of honor according to our customs and courtesies?

    • A. 

      Left

    • B. 

      Right

    • C. 

      In front

    • D. 

      Directly behind

    Correct Answer
    C. In front
    Explanation
    In our customs and courtesies, the second place of honor is in front. This means that the person or thing being honored is positioned ahead of others, symbolizing their importance and respect. Being in front signifies a position of prominence and recognition within our customs and courtesies.

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  • 41. 

    Spouses of high ranking officials are typically addressed as 

    • A. 

      Mr. or Mrs. with their first name

    • B. 

      Mr. or Mrs. with their surname

    • C. 

      The spouse's rank with their first name

    • D. 

      The spouse's rank with their name and surname

    Correct Answer
    B. Mr. or Mrs. with their surname
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mr. or Mrs. with their surname. This is because when addressing the spouse of a high ranking official, it is customary to use their surname as a sign of respect and formality. Using the first name alone may be considered too informal in this context, and using the spouse's rank may not be appropriate as it is the high ranking official who holds the position, not their spouse.

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  • 42. 

    Which privilege is used when determining invitation lists, seating for conferences and ceremonies, order of introduction, or military air (MILAIR) and housing priority?

    • A. 

      Position

    • B. 

      Precedence

    • C. 

      Date-of-rank

    • D. 

      Hosts' desore

    Correct Answer
    B. Precedence
    Explanation
    Precedence is the privilege used when determining invitation lists, seating arrangements, order of introduction, military air (MILAIR) priority, and housing priority. Precedence refers to the relative rank, importance, or priority given to individuals based on their position or status. It is often used in formal events, ceremonies, and military protocols to ensure proper order and hierarchy.

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  • 43. 

    When determining seating arrangements, who sits to the right of the hostess (or host at an all male event) to show precedence according to our customs and courtesies?

    • A. 

      Next junior officer in line Chaplain

    • B. 

      The guest of honor

    • C. 

      The Chaplain

    • D. 

      The spouse

    Correct Answer
    B. The guest of honor
    Explanation
    The guest of honor is seated to the right of the hostess or host as a sign of respect and precedence according to our customs and courtesies. This position is reserved for the most important or distinguished individual attending the event.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of correspondence is used to follow up to a telephone invitation to a military event?

    • A. 

      E-mail reminder

    • B. 

      Proper formal invitation

    • C. 

      Written confirmation letter

    • D. 

      Written "to remind" invitation

    Correct Answer
    D. Written "to remind" invitation
    Explanation
    A "Written to remind" invitation is the correct answer because it refers to a type of correspondence that is used to follow up on a telephone invitation to a military event. This type of invitation is sent in writing to remind the recipient of the event details and ensure that they have all the necessary information. It serves as a formal reminder and helps in confirming the attendance of the invited person.

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  • 45. 

    What must be spelled out, in plain english on all military invitations?

    • A. 

      Host's unit

    • B. 

      Rank of invitee

    • C. 

      Military acronyms

    • D. 

      Date and time of event

    Correct Answer
    D. Date and time of event
    Explanation
    Military invitations must include the date and time of the event spelled out in plain English to ensure clear communication and understanding for all recipients. This is important because military acronyms can be confusing for those who are not familiar with them, so spelling out the date and time eliminates any potential misunderstandings. Additionally, including the host's unit and rank of the invitee may be relevant information, but it is not necessary to be spelled out in plain English on all military invitations.

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  • 46. 

    What is the recommended attire for men that are attending events that call for business casual?

    • A. 

      Dark business suit

    • B. 

      Sport coat, no tie

    • C. 

      Business suit

    • D. 

      Coat and tie

    Correct Answer
    B. Sport coat, no tie
    Explanation
    The recommended attire for men attending events that call for business casual is a sport coat without a tie. This suggests that the event requires a level of formality, but not to the extent of a full business suit or coat and tie. A sport coat adds a polished and professional touch, while omitting the tie allows for a more relaxed and comfortable look.

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  • 47. 

    What does our military tradition expect the display of during ALL military ceremonies?

    • A. 

      Flags

    • B. 

      Formations

    • C. 

      Esprit de corps

    • D. 

      Military bearing

    Correct Answer
    A. Flags
    Explanation
    During ALL military ceremonies, our military tradition expects the display of flags. Flags are an integral part of military ceremonies and represent the identity, unity, and pride of a military organization. They symbolize the values, history, and sacrifices of the armed forces. Displaying flags during military ceremonies is a way to honor and pay respect to the country, the military, and those who have served. It also serves as a reminder of the duty, honor, and commitment of the military personnel.

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  • 48. 

    When carried in marching procession with another flag(s), the location of the US flag is 

    • A. 

      To the flag's right

    • B. 

      To the marcher's left

    • C. 

      In line higher than all the other flags

    • D. 

      Two steps ahead of all others

    Correct Answer
    A. To the flag's right
    Explanation
    When carried in a marching procession with another flag(s), the US flag is positioned to the flag's right. This means that when looking at the procession, the US flag will be on the left side. This positioning is a sign of respect and honor for the US flag, as it is traditionally given the place of prominence. Placing the US flag to the right also ensures that it is the first flag that is seen by viewers or spectators.

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  • 49. 

    Who should be notified in advance and in writing each and every time a distinguished visitor (DV) arrives?

    • A. 

      Office of Special Investigations (OSI) personnel

    • B. 

      Anti-terrorism officer (ATO)

    • C. 

      Base operations (BASEOPS) personnel

    • D. 

      Wing safety (SE) personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Office of Special Investigations (OSI) personnel
    Explanation
    The Office of Special Investigations (OSI) personnel should be notified in advance and in writing each time a distinguished visitor (DV) arrives. This is because OSI personnel are responsible for conducting investigations and ensuring the security and safety of the base. They need to be aware of the arrival of any distinguished visitors to properly coordinate security measures and any necessary investigations.

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  • 50. 

    What is the spending limit for mementos purchased when using special morale and welfare (SM&W) funds?

    • A. 

      $50

    • B. 

      $30

    • C. 

      $40

    • D. 

      $20

    Correct Answer
    D. $20
    Explanation
    The spending limit for mementos purchased when using special morale and welfare (SM&W) funds is $20. This means that individuals can only spend up to $20 on mementos when using these funds.

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