3e951 Vol 2 Edit Code 8

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(226) What is the nickname for the area of the US that consistently experiences a high frequency of tornadoes each year?
- Tornado Row.
- Tornado Alley.
- Tornado Corner.
- Tornado Central.

About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3E951 Vol 2 Edit Code 8', assesses knowledge on the Air Force's emergency management practices, including historical developments and modern systems like NIMS and AFIMS. It is designed for learners aiming to understand military readiness and disaster response.

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2.

(228) Which weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants?
- Chemical.
- Biological.
- Radiological.
- Conventional.
Correct Answer

A. Biological.

Explanation

Biological weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants. These weapons involve the deliberate use of living organisms or toxins derived from them to harm or kill the targeted population. Examples of biological weapons include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and toxins. They can be dispersed through various means such as aerosols, contaminated food or water, or direct contact. The use of biological weapons can have severe consequences, causing widespread outbreaks of diseases and disrupting ecosystems.

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3.

(210) What is the key to logistics?
- Carefully planning your budget.
- Effective inventory management.
- Determining equipment requirements.
- Ensuring you stock enough spare parts.
Correct Answer

A. Effective inventory management.

Explanation

Effective inventory management is the key to logistics because it ensures that the right amount of inventory is available at the right time and in the right place. This helps in minimizing stockouts and excess inventory, reducing costs, and improving customer satisfaction. By managing inventory effectively, companies can optimize their supply chain operations, streamline processes, and maintain a balance between supply and demand.

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4.

(207) After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting?
- Conduct follow-up.
- Prepare documentation.
- Send out meeting minutes.
- Schedule the time and place for the meeting.
Correct Answer

A. Schedule the time and place for the meeting.

Explanation

The next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting is to schedule the time and place for the meeting. This is important because it ensures that all members of the group are aware of when and where the meeting will take place, allowing them to plan accordingly. Scheduling the meeting also helps to ensure that all necessary resources and facilities are available for the meeting to take place. Once the time and place are scheduled, the other steps such as conducting follow-up, preparing documentation, and sending out meeting minutes can be carried out in a timely manner.

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5.

(209) Which emergency management (EM) section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment?
- Planning.
- Training.
- Logistics.
- Operations.
Correct Answer

A. Logistics.

Explanation

The Logistics section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment. This includes procuring, storing, and maintaining the necessary equipment for emergency management operations. They ensure that all equipment is ready and available for use during emergencies and coordinate with other sections to ensure proper distribution and utilization of resources.

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6.

(227) Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as the result of a single incident that exceeds local logistic support capabilities, is called a
- Disaster.
- Major accident.
- Mass casualty incident.
- Full-scale medical response.
Correct Answer

A. Mass casualty incident.

Explanation

A mass casualty incident refers to a situation where a large number of casualties occur within a short period of time, overwhelming the local resources available to handle the situation. It typically results from a single incident that surpasses the logistical capabilities of the area. The term "disaster" is a more general term that can encompass a wide range of events, not necessarily limited to casualties. "Major accident" and "full-scale medical response" do not accurately capture the specific characteristics of a mass casualty incident.

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7.

(228) A dirty bomb is another name for what kind of weapon?
- Chemical agents.
- Biological agents.
- Conventional explosives.
- Radiological Dispersion Device.
Correct Answer

A. Radiological Dispersion Device.

Explanation

A dirty bomb is a type of weapon that combines conventional explosives with radioactive materials. When the bomb detonates, it disperses the radioactive materials, causing contamination and potentially harmful radiation exposure. This type of weapon is also known as a radiological dispersion device, which accurately describes its function and purpose. Chemical agents and biological agents refer to different types of weapons that involve the use of chemicals or biological substances, while conventional explosives do not involve the use of radioactive materials.

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8.

(201) What career field award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually?
- The 1Lt Joseph Terry award.
- The SrA John L. Levitow award.
- The General Eugene Lupia award.
- The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.
Correct Answer

A. The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.

Explanation

The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually.

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9.

(202) The Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management system (NIMS) by
- Modifying installation plans.
- Reorganizing emergency response agencies.
- Modifying installation command and control operations.
- Implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.
Correct Answer

A. Implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.

Explanation

The correct answer is implementing the Air Force Incident Management System. This is because the question states that the Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management System (NIMS), and the most appropriate way to comply with this directive would be to implement their own incident management system, specifically designed for the Air Force. The other options, such as modifying installation plans or reorganizing emergency response agencies, do not directly address the adoption of the NIMS.

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10.

(202) The Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge in
- 2001.
- 2003.
- 2005.
- 2006.
Correct Answer

A. 2006.

Explanation

In 2006, the Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge. This indicates that the badge was officially recognized and established within the Air Force during that year.

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11.

(204) Which section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10–210, Prime BEEF Program, and Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 10–219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management?
- Planning section.
- Operations section.
- Emergency management section.
- Expeditionary engineering section.
Correct Answer

A. Expeditionary engineering section.

Explanation

The expeditionary engineering section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements. This section is mentioned in AFI 10-210 and AFPAM 10-219, Volume 8, which are the governing documents for the Prime BEEF program. The other sections mentioned, such as planning, operations, and emergency management, may have their own responsibilities within the civil engineer squadron, but they are not specifically responsible for the Prime BEEF program requirements.

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12.

(219) Which of the following is not one of the three assessments required to be completed as part of the risk management process?
- Hazards assessment.
- Capability assessment.
- Efficiency assessment.
- Vulnerability assessment.
Correct Answer

A. Efficiency assessment.

Explanation

The question asks for the assessment that is not required to be completed as part of the risk management process. The three assessments that are required are hazards assessment, capability assessment, and vulnerability assessment. Efficiency assessment is not mentioned as one of the required assessments, therefore it is the correct answer.

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13.

(224) What is used during a natural, man-made, or technological emergency condition to provide limited protection for unprotected personnel or casualties?
- Lockdown.
- Shelter-in-place.
- Collective protection.
- Extended operations shelters.
Correct Answer

A. Shelter-in-place.

Explanation

Shelter-in-place is the correct answer because it refers to a protective action taken during emergencies to keep individuals safe by staying indoors and creating a barrier between themselves and any potential hazards. This can be used in various emergency situations, whether they are natural disasters, man-made incidents, or technological accidents. Shelter-in-place provides limited protection for both unprotected personnel and casualties by minimizing their exposure to dangerous elements outside. It is a recommended response to situations where evacuation may not be possible or could potentially put individuals at greater risk.

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14.

(229) According to the World Food Programme, what is the greatest worldwide threat to health?
- Water contamination.
- Contagious diseases.
- Natural radiation.
- Famine.
Correct Answer

A. Famine.

Explanation

Famine is identified as the greatest worldwide threat to health by the World Food Programme. Famine refers to a severe shortage of food in a particular region or country, leading to widespread hunger and malnutrition. This can have devastating effects on the health of individuals, especially children and vulnerable populations. Famine not only directly causes starvation and malnutrition-related diseases but also leads to other health issues such as weakened immune systems, increased susceptibility to infections, and higher mortality rates. Addressing and preventing famine is crucial for ensuring the overall well-being and health of populations globally.

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15.

(202) After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of the
- Joint Task Force-Civil Support (JTF-CS).
- Full Spectrum Threat Response (FSTR).24
- National Incident Management System (NIMS).
- Chemical Biological Incident Response Force (CBIRF).
Correct Answer

A. National Incident Management System (NIMS).

Explanation

After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, the implementation of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) was a significant change to emergency management and response. NIMS provides a comprehensive framework for managing incidents, including terrorism-related incidents, in a coordinated and effective manner. It establishes standardized procedures, protocols, and organizational structures to ensure seamless coordination between different agencies and jurisdictions involved in emergency response. NIMS also emphasizes the importance of interoperability and communication among responders, enabling a more efficient and effective response to emergencies.

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16.

(220) Planners can test whether critical plan elements are sufficiently flexible by
- Allowing all first responders to test the plan.
- Having multiple people read the plan before approval.
- Exercising them against the same scenario over and over.
- Exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude.
Correct Answer

A. Exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude.

Explanation

Testing a plan against scenarios of varying type and magnitude allows planners to assess the flexibility of critical plan elements. By exposing the plan to different types of scenarios and varying magnitudes, planners can evaluate how well the plan adapts and responds to different situations. This helps identify any weaknesses or limitations in the plan and allows for adjustments and improvements to be made. Testing against a range of scenarios ensures that the plan is robust and can effectively handle different challenges that may arise in real-world situations.

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17.

(223) Which plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency response to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made, or technological hazards?
- Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.
- Civil Engineering (CE) Contingency Response Plan.
- National response framework.
- Base support plan.
Correct Answer

A. Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2.

Explanation

The correct answer is the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2. This plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency response to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made, or technological hazards. It is specifically designed for installations and addresses the specific needs and challenges that may arise during emergencies. The plan outlines the roles and responsibilities of various personnel, procedures for coordination and communication, as well as mitigation and recovery measures. It aims to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel, property, and the environment during emergency situations.

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18.

(224) Which announcement is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident?
- All clear.
- Lockdown
- Evacuation.
- Shelter-in-place.
Correct Answer

A. Lockdown

Explanation

Lockdown is the correct answer because it is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident. During a lockdown, individuals are instructed to stay in a secure location, lock doors, turn off lights, and remain quiet until law enforcement gives the all-clear. This protocol aims to minimize the risk of harm and prevent the shooter from easily accessing potential targets.

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19.

(229) Critical water or sewer system failures can and do occur quite often, primarily as a result of
- Terrorism.
- Natural hazards.
- Chemical agents.
- Biological agents.
Correct Answer

A. Natural hazards.

Explanation

Critical water or sewer system failures can occur quite often as a result of natural hazards. Natural hazards such as hurricanes, earthquakes, floods, and storms can cause significant damage to water and sewer infrastructure, leading to failures in the system. These hazards can disrupt the supply of clean water and the proper functioning of sewage systems, posing a threat to public health and safety. While terrorism, chemical agents, and biological agents can also potentially cause system failures, natural hazards are more commonly responsible for such incidents.

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20.

(209) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed?
- Operations.
- Logistics.
- Planning.
- Training.
Correct Answer

A. Logistics.

Explanation

The element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight that is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed is Logistics.

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21.

(210) Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of
- 45 calendar days or less.
- 89 calendar days or less.
- 180 calendar days or less.
- 364 calendar days or less.
Correct Answer

A. 180 calendar days or less.

Explanation

Temporarily required items are items that are needed for a specific period of time and not on a permanent basis. The correct answer is 180 calendar days or less because this timeframe encompasses a longer duration compared to the other options. It allows for a sufficient amount of time to use the items before they are no longer needed.

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22.

(211) When emergency management (EM) training is completed the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element updates
- Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR).
- Automated Civil Engineer System – Resource Module- ACES-RM).
- ACES-PM Unit Scheduler.
- ACES-PR Unit Scheduler.
Correct Answer

A. Automated Civil Engineer System – Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR).

Explanation

When emergency management (EM) training is completed, the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight's training element updates the Automated Civil Engineer System - Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR). This suggests that the ACES-PR is the appropriate system to track and manage personnel readiness in emergency management. The other options, ACES-RM and ACES-PM Unit Scheduler, do not specifically mention personnel readiness and are therefore not the correct answer.

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23.

(212) What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training?
- Proper documentation.
- A rigid training schedule.
- Selecting instructors that are already experts on the topic being covered.
- Selecting instructors that are not experts on the topic and challenging them to research the topic.
Correct Answer

A. Proper documentation.

Explanation

Proper documentation can help evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered. It ensures that all the essential areas are addressed and prevents the tendency to focus only on favorite topics. With proper documentation, trainers can review the training materials and assess if all critical areas have been covered adequately. It also allows for easy tracking and monitoring of the training progress, making it easier to identify any gaps or areas that need improvement. Ultimately, proper documentation helps ensure a comprehensive and well-rounded training program.

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24.

(215) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight ensures emergency support function (ESF)–5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC)?
- Planning.
- Training.
- Logistics.
- Operations.
Correct Answer

A. Operations.

Explanation

The element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight that ensures emergency support function (ESF)-5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC) is Operations. Operations is responsible for coordinating and directing all activities in the EOC during an emergency. They ensure that ESF-5, which focuses on information and planning, has the necessary resources and support to carry out its functions effectively. Operations plays a crucial role in managing the overall response and ensuring smooth operations within the EOC.

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25.

(223) What was developed and adopted to assist Air Force emergency managers in the development process of their respective Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2?
- CPG 101.
- IEMP 10–2 Planning Tool.
- AF “Be Ready” Awareness Campaign.
- All Hazards Risk Management Process.
Correct Answer

A. IEMP 10–2 Planning Tool.

Explanation

The IEMP 10-2 Planning Tool was developed and adopted to assist Air Force emergency managers in the development process of their respective Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2. This tool provides a structured framework and guidelines for emergency managers to effectively plan and prepare for emergencies and disasters. It helps them identify potential hazards, assess risks, develop response and recovery strategies, and coordinate resources and actions. The IEMP 10-2 Planning Tool ensures that emergency managers have a standardized and comprehensive approach to emergency management planning, enhancing the readiness and resilience of Air Force installations.

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26.

(226) When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico as well as in the Central Pacific basin?
- 1 January to 31 March.
- 1 March to 30 June.
- 1 June to 30 November.
- 1 July to 31 October.
Correct Answer

A. 1 June to 30 November.

Explanation

Hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico, as well as in the Central Pacific basin, occurs from 1 June to 30 November. This is the period when the conditions are most favorable for the formation and intensification of hurricanes in these regions. The warm ocean waters, low wind shear, and other atmospheric factors during this time contribute to the development of tropical cyclones. It is important to be prepared and take necessary precautions during this season to minimize the potential impact of hurricanes.

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27.

(228) Chemical agents are categorized based on their
- Lethality.
- Rate of action.
- Exposure routes.
- Physiological effects.
Correct Answer

A. Physiological effects.

Explanation

Chemical agents are categorized based on their physiological effects because different chemicals can have different effects on the body. Some chemicals may cause irritation or inflammation, while others may be corrosive or toxic. By categorizing chemicals based on their physiological effects, it becomes easier to understand the potential risks and hazards associated with their use or exposure. This information is crucial for developing safety protocols, handling procedures, and emergency response plans.

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28.

(204) What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight?
- MAJCOM.
- Size of the installation.
- Manpower authorizations.
- Installation threats/hazards.
Correct Answer

A. Manpower authorizations.

Explanation

Manpower authorizations determine the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight. This means that the number of personnel authorized to work on a flight determines the number of 3E9s that will be assigned. The size of the installation, MAJCOM, and installation threats/hazards do not directly determine the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight.

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29.

(206) Which of the following would not be included in the meeting agenda?
- Location.
- Date/Time.
- Purpose of meeting.
- List of people attending.
Correct Answer

A. List of people attending.

Explanation

The meeting agenda typically includes the location, date/time, and purpose of the meeting. These details are necessary for participants to know when and where the meeting will take place and what it will be about. However, the list of people attending is not typically included in the meeting agenda as it is usually distributed separately as a participant list or attendance sheet.

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30.

(210) Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard?
- Vehicles.
- Communication equipment.
- War reserve material (WRM).
- Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) equipment.
Correct Answer

A. War reserve material (WRM).

Explanation

An allowance standard is a document that specifies the types and quantities of equipment and supplies needed for a specific purpose or mission. It helps in ensuring that the necessary resources are available when required. In this context, vehicles, communication equipment, and chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) equipment are all essential components that would typically be included in an allowance standard. However, war reserve material (WRM) refers to the stockpile of equipment and supplies specifically reserved for use during times of war or other emergencies. Since an allowance standard is focused on regular operations rather than emergency situations, WRM would not be found in an allowance standard.

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31.

(210) Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as
- Special allowances.
- Special requirements.
- Unfunded requirements.
- Unauthorized allowances.
Correct Answer

A. Special allowances.

Explanation

Items that are not included in an allowance standard but are necessary for an organization to carry out its mission can be obtained through special allowances. This means that the organization can acquire these items outside of the standard allowance system in order to meet its specific needs and requirements.

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32.

(210) Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process?
- Determining requirements.
- Accounting for equipment on-hand.
- Establishing equipment turn-in procedures.
- Actively addressing the shortfalls and overages.
Correct Answer

A. Establishing equipment turn-in procedures.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Establishing equipment turn-in procedures." This is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process. The four basic steps are determining requirements, accounting for equipment on-hand, actively addressing the shortfalls and overages, and establishing equipment turn-in procedures.

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33.

(210) What must you do prior to starting any equipment task?
- Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures.
- Request the latest copy of the TO for the specific equipment item you are using.
- Complete an operations check and document any discrepancies.
- Review the equipment operations checklist.
Correct Answer

A. Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures.

Explanation

Prior to starting any equipment task, it is important to review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures. This ensures that you have the most up-to-date information and instructions on how to safely and effectively operate the equipment. It helps to prevent any errors or accidents that may occur due to outdated or incorrect procedures. By reviewing the technical orders, you can ensure that you are following the correct steps and guidelines for the task at hand.

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34.

(211) The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by
- AF/A7CV.
- AF/A7CXR
- AFCEC/CXR.
- AFCEC/CXX.
Correct Answer

A. AFCEC/CXR.

Explanation

The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight's training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by AFCEC/CXR. This means that AFCEC/CXR is responsible for creating the instructor guides that are used to develop the lesson plans for these courses.

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35.

(212) When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmentees should be
- Scheduled before active duty personnel to ensure they receive the training quickly.
- Scheduled after all active duty personnel have been scheduled.
- Scheduled only if the active duty personnel cannot attend.
- Given the same consideration as active duty personnel.
Correct Answer

A. Given the same consideration as active duty personnel.

Explanation

Individual mobilization augmentees should be given the same consideration as active duty personnel when formal training slots are available. This means that they should be scheduled and given priority for training just like active duty personnel, ensuring that they receive the training quickly. This recognizes the importance of their role and the need to ensure they are adequately trained and prepared for their responsibilities.

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36.

(213) How often must the installation Disaster Response Force’s (DRF) ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2 be exercised?
- Every quarter.
- Twice a year.
- Annually.
- Every 2 years.
Correct Answer

A. Annually.

Explanation

The installation Disaster Response Force (DRF) is required to exercise their ability to respond to adversarial, technological, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) annually. This means that they must conduct these exercises once every year to ensure that they are prepared and capable of responding effectively to any emergency situation.

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37.

(213) Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed?
- Simple.
- Attainable.
- Measurable.
- Task-oriented.
Correct Answer

A. Task-oriented.

Explanation

The task-oriented component of the SMART approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed. This means that the objectives should clearly define the actions or activities that need to be performed in order to achieve the desired outcome. By setting task-oriented objectives, developers can ensure that the exercise is designed with specific actions in mind, making it easier to measure progress and determine if the objectives have been met.

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38.

(216) Who determines which installation will train and equip geographically separated units (GSU) units in compliance with the emergency management (EM) program?
- HQ USAF.
- MAJCOMs.
- Unit commanders.
- Installation commanders.
Correct Answer

A. MAJCOMs.

Explanation

MAJCOMs, or major commands, are responsible for determining which installation will train and equip geographically separated units (GSU) in compliance with the emergency management (EM) program. This means that the decision-making authority lies with the higher-level command rather than the individual unit or installation commanders. These MAJCOMs have the knowledge and expertise to assess the needs and capabilities of different installations and allocate resources accordingly to ensure effective emergency management across the entire Air Force.

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39.

(228) Which of the following is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack?
- Detonation of a nuclear bomb.
- Dispersal of radiological material.
- Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons.
- Attacking a facility housing nuclear material.
Correct Answer

A. Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons." This option is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack. The three primary mechanisms mentioned are detonation of a nuclear bomb, dispersal of radiological material, and attacking a facility housing nuclear material. Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons does not involve the use of radiation as a primary mechanism for carrying out an attack.

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40.

(203) Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) fall into what readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set?
- Planning.
- Prevention.
- Operations.
- Preparedness.
Correct Answer

A. Operations.

Explanation

Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) involves actively carrying out tasks and actions during an emergency situation. This aligns with the operations aspect of readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set, where the focus is on executing plans, coordinating resources, and managing the response to emergencies.

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41.

(221) What establishes an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents?
- Support plans.
- Assistance plans.
- Support agreements.
- Assistance agreements.
Correct Answer

A. Support agreements.

Explanation

Support agreements establish an agreement between parties and document proof of the agreement and its contents. These agreements outline the terms and conditions of the support being provided, including the scope of services, responsibilities of each party, and any limitations or exclusions. They serve as a legally binding document that helps ensure both parties are on the same page and have a clear understanding of their obligations and expectations.

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42.

(222) At the national level, who is responsible for Emergency Management (EM) within the continental United States (CONUS)?
- The president.
- Joint director of military support.
- Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
Correct Answer

A. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).

Explanation

FEMA is responsible for Emergency Management (EM) within the continental United States (CONUS). FEMA is an agency of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) and its primary role is to coordinate and respond to emergencies and disasters, providing assistance and support to state, local, tribal, and territorial governments, as well as to individuals and communities affected by disasters. The president, although having overall authority, delegates the responsibility for EM to FEMA. The Joint Director of Military Support may play a role in supporting FEMA's efforts during emergencies, but FEMA is the primary agency responsible for EM at the national level.

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43.

(225) Which agency is responsible for providing notification of earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and to reduce losses through effective forecasts based on the best possible scientific information?
- National Weather Service (NWS).
- United States Geological Survey (USGS).
- International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS).
- National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
Correct Answer

A. United States Geological Survey (USGS).

Explanation

The United States Geological Survey (USGS) is responsible for providing notification of earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and reduce losses. They use the best possible scientific information to make effective forecasts and provide information to the public. The USGS is a government agency that focuses on studying and monitoring earthquakes, volcanoes, and other natural hazards in the United States. They play a crucial role in providing accurate and timely information about earthquakes to help communities prepare and respond to these events. The National Weather Service (NWS), International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS), and National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) are not specifically responsible for earthquake notifications.

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44.

(226) A boundary separating hot, dry air to the west from warm, moist air to the east is called
- A dry line.
- An isobar.
- A storm line.
- A thermocline.
Correct Answer

A. A dry line.

Explanation

A boundary separating hot, dry air to the west from warm, moist air to the east is called a dry line. This term is commonly used in meteorology to describe a weather phenomenon where two contrasting air masses meet. The hot, dry air from the west and the warm, moist air from the east create a distinct boundary known as the dry line. This boundary often acts as a trigger for severe weather events such as thunderstorms and tornadoes.

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45.

(201) What emergency management (EM) career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today?
- The base civil engineer (BCE) emblem.
- The disaster control group (DCG) emblem.
- The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.
- The EM emblem.
Correct Answer

A. The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.

Explanation

The correct answer is the disaster response force (DRF) emblem. This emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry and is still in use today. It graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements in emergency management (EM) career field.

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46.

(210) Which of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard?
- When allowances are excessive.
- When allowances are inadequate.
- When broken equipment needs to be repaired.
- When equipment is unsuitable for peacetime or wartime.
Correct Answer

A. When broken equipment needs to be repaired.

Explanation

When broken equipment needs to be repaired is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard because allowances standards refer to the quantity or amount of supplies or equipment that are authorized to be issued to individuals or units. The repair of broken equipment falls under maintenance and repair procedures, which are separate from allowances standards.

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47.

(220) Which publication provides Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operations plans?
- CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans.
- AFI 10–2501, Air Force EM Planning and Operations.
- AFI 10–2502, AFIMS Standards and Procedures.
- DODI 6055.17, Installation EM Program.
Correct Answer

A. CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans.

Explanation

CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans, provides guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operations plans. This publication is specifically focused on FEMA and is designed to assist organizations in developing comprehensive and effective emergency plans. It covers topics such as hazard identification, risk assessment, plan development, and plan maintenance.

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48.

(223) Who approves the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2?
- Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight chief.
- Mission support group (MSG) commander.
- Installation commander.
- MAJCOM commander.
Correct Answer

A. Installation commander.

Explanation

The Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2 is approved by the Installation commander. This individual has the authority and responsibility to oversee and approve the emergency management plan for the installation. The R&EM flight chief, MSG commander, and MAJCOM commander may have roles and responsibilities related to emergency management, but the ultimate approval lies with the Installation commander.

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49.

When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) contamination?
- 3 consecutive days.
- 5 consecutive days.
- 7 consecutive days.
- 9 consecutive days.
Correct Answer

A. 7 consecutive days.

Explanation

When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, it is important to consider the duration of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) contamination. The correct answer is 7 consecutive days. This means that the planning should account for a period of 7 days after the onset of CBRN contamination, during which supplies and resources should be available to sustain the shelter operations. This timeframe allows for the necessary precautions and measures to be taken to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in the shelter.

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(228) Which weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants?

(210) What is the key to logistics?

(207) After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting?

(209) Which emergency management (EM) section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment?

(227) Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as the result of a single incident that exceeds local logistic support capabilities, is called a

(228) A dirty bomb is another name for what kind of weapon?

(201) What career field award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually?

(202) The Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management system (NIMS) by

(202) The Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge in

(204) Which section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10–210, Prime BEEF Program, and Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 10–219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management?

(219) Which of the following is not one of the three assessments required to be completed as part of the risk management process?

(224) What is used during a natural, man-made, or technological emergency condition to provide limited protection for unprotected personnel or casualties?

(229) According to the World Food Programme, what is the greatest worldwide threat to health?

(202) After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of the

(220) Planners can test whether critical plan elements are sufficiently flexible by

(223) Which plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency response to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made, or technological hazards?

(224) Which announcement is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident?

(229) Critical water or sewer system failures can and do occur quite often, primarily as a result of

(209) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed?

(210) Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of

(211) When emergency management (EM) training is completed the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element updates

(212) What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training?

(215) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight ensures emergency support function (ESF)–5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC)?

(223) What was developed and adopted to assist Air Force emergency managers in the development process of their respective Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2?

(226) When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico as well as in the Central Pacific basin?

(228) Chemical agents are categorized based on their

(204) What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight?

(206) Which of the following would not be included in the meeting agenda?

(210) Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard?

(210) Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as

(210) Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process?

(210) What must you do prior to starting any equipment task?

(211) The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight’s training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by

(212) When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmentees should be

(213) How often must the installation Disaster Response Force’s (DRF) ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2 be exercised?

(213) Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed?

(216) Who determines which installation will train and equip geographically separated units (GSU) units in compliance with the emergency management (EM) program?

(228) Which of the following is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack?

(203) Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) fall into what readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set?

(221) What establishes an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents?

(222) At the national level, who is responsible for Emergency Management (EM) within the continental United States (CONUS)?

(225) Which agency is responsible for providing notification of earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and to reduce losses through effective forecasts based on the best possible scientific information?

(226) A boundary separating hot, dry air to the west from warm, moist air to the east is called

(201) What emergency management (EM) career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today?

(210) Which of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard?

(220) Which publication provides Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operations plans?

(223) Who approves the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10–2?

When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) contamination?