CDC 6C051B Vol II

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CDC 6C051B Vol II - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (201) A negotiated contract is

    • A.

      A solicitation awarded from an invitation for bids (IFB).

    • B.

      A contract awarded without discussions.

    • C.

      Any contract awarded without using sealed bidding.

    • D.

      An awarded contract using noncompetitive methods.

    Correct Answer
    C. Any contract awarded without using sealed bidding.
    Explanation
    A negotiated contract refers to any contract that is awarded without using sealed bidding. Sealed bidding is a competitive method of awarding contracts where bids are submitted in sealed envelopes and opened at a specified time. In contrast, a negotiated contract involves discussions and negotiations between the government agency and the potential contractors to determine the terms and conditions of the contract. This method allows for more flexibility and customization in the contract terms, but it may not always result in the lowest price.

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  • 2. 

    (201) What circumstance allows an invitation for bids (IFB) to be converted to a request for proposal (RFP)?

    • A.

      Time allows for reasonable bidding time.

    • B.

      Unreasonable prices or only one bid was received.

    • C.

      The bids were independently arrived at and not collusive.

    • D.

      There is a reasonable expectation of at least two or more responsible bidders.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unreasonable prices or only one bid was received.
    Explanation
    If the prices offered by the bidders are deemed unreasonable or if only one bid is received, the invitation for bids (IFB) can be converted to a request for proposal (RFP). This allows for a more flexible and negotiated approach to the procurement process, as the organization can seek alternative solutions or negotiate with the single bidder to ensure a fair and reasonable outcome.

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  • 3. 

    (201) When compared to sealed bidding, the negotiation process is considered more

    • A.

      Rigid

    • B.

      Flexible.

    • C.

      Expeditious.

    • D.

      Competitive.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flexible.
    Explanation
    The negotiation process is considered more flexible when compared to sealed bidding. In sealed bidding, the terms and conditions are predetermined and non-negotiable, whereas in negotiations, there is room for discussion and adjustment of terms to meet the needs of both parties. This flexibility allows for a more customized and mutually beneficial agreement to be reached.

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  • 4. 

    (201) Once it has been determined that negotiation of a contract is in the best interest of the government, the contracting officer

    • A.

      Must award to the responsible bidder offering the lowest price.

    • B.

      Must award to the responsible bidder offering the lowest price.

    • C.

      Has to accept the contractor’s proposed profit and fee.

    • D.

      Has wide latitude in exercising business judgement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Has wide latitude in exercising business judgement.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "has wide latitude in exercising business judgement." This means that the contracting officer has the authority and flexibility to make decisions based on their own professional judgement and expertise. They are not required to award the contract to the bidder offering the lowest price, but can consider other factors such as the bidder's qualifications, past performance, and overall value for the government. This allows the contracting officer to make the best decision for the government's interests.

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  • 5. 

    (201) When responding to a solicitation for a negotiated action, contractors submit

    • A.

      A bid.

    • B.

      An offer.

    • C.

      A package.

    • D.

      A proposal.

    Correct Answer
    D. A proposal.
    Explanation
    When responding to a solicitation for a negotiated action, contractors submit a proposal. In a negotiated procurement process, the government agency invites contractors to submit proposals that outline their approach, capabilities, and pricing for a specific project or requirement. Unlike a bid, which is a firm offer to perform the work at a specified price, a proposal is a more detailed and comprehensive document that provides a thorough understanding of how the contractor intends to meet the government's requirements. Therefore, in this context, the correct answer is a proposal.

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  • 6. 

    (202) Exchanging information with industry serves what purpose?

    • A.

      Shortens large bid lists by eliminating contractors.

    • B.

      Allows the government to determine the lowest price a contractor will propose.

    • C.

      Improves the understanding of the government’s requirements and industry capabilities.

    • D.

      Streamlines the acquisition process by reducing the amount of paperwork required.

    Correct Answer
    C. Improves the understanding of the government’s requirements and industry capabilities.
    Explanation
    Exchanging information with industry serves the purpose of improving the understanding of the government's requirements and industry capabilities. This allows the government to gain valuable insights and knowledge about what is feasible and possible within the industry. It helps in aligning the government's needs with the industry's capabilities, leading to better decision-making and more effective acquisition processes. By exchanging information, the government can also clarify its requirements and expectations, ensuring that the final product or service meets their needs.

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  • 7. 

    (202) Which statement best describes oral presentation?

    • A.

      They may be a substitute for written information

    • B.

      They occur during the final round of negotiations.

    • C.

      They are evaluated quantitatively and scored by the government.

    • D.

      They may contain only the information provided in the offeror’s proposal.

    Correct Answer
    A. They may be a substitute for written information
    Explanation
    Oral presentations can serve as a substitute for written information because they allow individuals to convey their message verbally instead of relying solely on written documents. This can be especially useful in situations where complex or technical information needs to be explained or when personal interaction and persuasion are important. Oral presentations provide an opportunity for individuals to engage with their audience, answer questions in real-time, and convey their message more effectively through tone, body language, and visual aids.

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  • 8. 

    (202) When are contracting officers relieved from complying with portions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) concerning letter request for proposals (RFPs)?

    • A.

      When supervising foreign procurement.

    • B.

      When an urgency exists and FAR compliance would be restricted.

    • C.

      When permitted under circumstances of other than full-and-open competition.

    • D.

      Using a letter RFP does not eliminate the requirement to comply with other portions of FAR

    Correct Answer
    D. Using a letter RFP does not eliminate the requirement to comply with other portions of FAR
    Explanation
    Contracting officers are not relieved from complying with portions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) concerning letter request for proposals (RFPs) even when using a letter RFP. This means that regardless of the type of RFP being used, contracting officers must still adhere to other provisions outlined in the FAR.

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  • 9. 

    (202) If a negotiated procurement is to be awarded based on other-than-price and price-related factors, this information is found in solicitation Section

    • A.

      B, Supplies or services and prices/costs.

    • B.

      C, Description/specifications/work statement.

    • C.

      L, Instructions, conditions, and notices to offerors and respondents

    • D.

      M, Evaluation factors for award

    Correct Answer
    D. M, Evaluation factors for award
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M, Evaluation factors for award. This is because the evaluation factors for award determine the criteria that will be used to evaluate proposals and select the winning offer. These factors can include technical capabilities, past performance, management approach, and other non-price related factors. The evaluation factors for award are typically outlined in the solicitation document to provide transparency and guidance to potential offerors.

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  • 10. 

    (202) Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?

    • A.

      Contract specialist.

    • B.

      Contracting officer.

    • C.

      Functional commander.

    • D.

      Quality assurance personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for deciding if a preproposal conference is required and making the necessary arrangements. This is because the contracting officer is the individual who oversees the entire contracting process and has the authority to make decisions regarding the procurement process. They are responsible for ensuring that the procurement is conducted in accordance with regulations and guidelines, and determining if a preproposal conference is necessary is part of their role in ensuring a fair and competitive bidding process.

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  • 11. 

    (202) When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?

    • A.

      Quantity, specifications, contract.

    • B.

      Quantity, contract type, specifications

    • C.

      Quantity, specifications, delivery schedules

    • D.

      Defects or ambiguities after the closing date.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quantity, specifications, delivery schedules
    Explanation
    When amending a request for proposal (RFP), changes can be made to the quantity of goods or services required, the specifications or requirements for those goods or services, and the delivery schedules for when they need to be provided.

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  • 12. 

    (202) After the closing date, amendments to request for proposals (RFPs) are provided to

    • A.

      All interested parties

    • B.

      Only the top three ranked offerors

    • C.

      All parties on the original bidders mailing list.

    • D.

      All offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range.

    Correct Answer
    D. All offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range.
    Explanation
    After the closing date of the request for proposals (RFPs), amendments are provided to all offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range. This means that only the offerors who are still being considered for the contract will receive the amendments. The purpose of providing amendments is to keep all interested parties informed about any changes or updates to the RFPs, allowing them to make necessary adjustments to their proposals.

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  • 13. 

    (202) Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?

    • A.

      The incumbent contractor did not submit a proposal

    • B.

      Several contractors have combined together into a teaming arrangement.

    • C.

      Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.

    • D.

      The civil servants union submitted a complaint about the ongoing competitive sourcing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.
    Explanation
    If the changes to the project are significant enough that it is likely that additional sources would have submitted offers, it would be justifiable to cancel the request for proposal (RFP) before closing. This is because the changes may have a significant impact on the requirements and scope of the project, and it would be fair to allow potential contractors to submit revised proposals that take these changes into account.

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  • 14. 

    (203) The best description of a modification to a proposal is

    • A.

      A change made to correct a mistake after award.

    • B.

      A change made after the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • C.

      A change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • D.

      All changes made after exceeding the maximum number of amendments.

    Correct Answer
    C. A change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.
    Explanation
    A modification to a proposal refers to a change made to the proposal before the solicitation's closing date and time. This means that any adjustments or corrections made to the proposal can be considered as modifications as long as they are made prior to the deadline for submission. This allows for flexibility and ensures that any necessary changes or improvements can be made before the proposal is finalized and submitted.

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  • 15. 

    (203) The best description of a revision to a proposal is

    • A.

      A revision amends a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • B.

      A change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a result of negotiations.

    • C.

      A revision corrects a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • D.

      A change made after the solicitation closing date made during negotiations at the contractor’s request.

    Correct Answer
    B. A change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a result of negotiations.
    Explanation
    A revision to a proposal refers to a change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a result of negotiations. This means that the proposal has undergone modifications or alterations based on discussions and negotiations between the contracting officer and the contractor. The change is made after the closing date of the solicitation, indicating that it occurred during the evaluation and negotiation process.

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  • 16. 

    (203) Can a proposal be withdrawn at anytime before award?

    • A.

      Yes, by written notice at any time before award.

    • B.

      No, the proposal is retained with the contract file.

    • C.

      No, once submitted, the proposal will be opened at closing.

    • D.

      Yes, at any time before award, provided the contracting officer writes a determination and finding (D&F).

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, by written notice at any time before award.
    Explanation
    A proposal can be withdrawn at any time before award by providing written notice. This means that if the party who submitted the proposal decides they no longer wish to be considered for the contract, they can formally communicate their withdrawal through written documentation. This allows for flexibility and ensures that parties are not bound to their proposals if they have a change of heart or circumstances.

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  • 17. 

    (204) When using a tradeoff process, all the evaluation factors that affect award will be disclosed

    • A.

      In the solicitation.

    • B.

      During negotiations.

    • C.

      In presolicitation notices.

    • D.

      In the notice to unsuccessful offerors.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the solicitation.
    Explanation
    When using a tradeoff process, all the evaluation factors that affect award will be disclosed in the solicitation. This means that the factors that will be considered in determining the winning bid will be clearly stated in the solicitation document. This allows potential offerors to understand what criteria will be used to evaluate their proposals and make informed decisions on how to structure their bids. It also promotes transparency and fairness in the award process, as all parties have access to the same information.

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  • 18. 

    (204) Which statement is true about the lowest price technically acceptable source selection process?

    • A.

      Any tradeoffs are okay and are encouraged.

    • B.

      Exchanges with contractors will not be required or allowed.

    • C.

      Proposals are ranked based on noncost/price factors.

    • D.

      Award is made to the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards

    Correct Answer
    D. Award is made to the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards
    Explanation
    The lowest price technically acceptable source selection process is a method used by the government to award contracts based on the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards. This means that the contractor with the lowest price will be selected as long as their proposal meets the required standards. Any tradeoffs between price and other factors are not allowed or encouraged, and exchanges with contractors are also not required. The focus of this process is solely on selecting the lowest priced proposal that meets the necessary standards.

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  • 19. 

    (204) Performance price tradeoff allows tradeoffs between which two evaluation factors?

    • A.

      Technical merit and price/cost.

    • B.

      Price/cost and past performance.

    • C.

      Past performance and quality.

    • D.

      Quality and technical merit.

    Correct Answer
    B. Price/cost and past performance.
    Explanation
    The performance price tradeoff allows for tradeoffs between the evaluation factors of price/cost and past performance. This means that when making a decision, one can weigh the cost of a product or service against its past performance, considering factors such as reliability, efficiency, and effectiveness. By considering both price and past performance, individuals or organizations can make informed choices that balance their budgetary constraints with their need for quality and reliability.

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  • 20. 

    (205) When using source selection procedures, the source selection organization consists of personnel representing

    • A.

      Government and contractor personnel as needed.

    • B.

      Government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member.

    • C.

      Contractor personnel representing the various functional disciplines involved.

    • D.

      Government and contractor personnel representing various functional and technical disciplines.

    Correct Answer
    B. Government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member. In source selection procedures, the source selection organization is composed of government personnel who are responsible for evaluating and selecting the best source for a particular contract. This includes having at least one technical member who can assess the technical aspects of the proposals and one contracting member who can evaluate the contractual and financial aspects. The involvement of both technical and contracting members ensures a comprehensive evaluation of the proposals and helps in making an informed decision.

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  • 21. 

    (205) Who is normally the source selection authority for procurements?

    • A.

      Contract specialist.

    • B.

      Contracting officer.

    • C.

      Functional commander

    • D.

      Quality assurance personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is normally the source selection authority for procurements. They are responsible for evaluating proposals, selecting the best offer, and awarding the contract. They have the authority to negotiate and make decisions on behalf of the government agency. The contract specialist assists the contracting officer in the procurement process, but they do not have the final authority to make the selection. The functional commander and quality assurance personnel may have input or provide recommendations, but the ultimate decision lies with the contracting officer.

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  • 22. 

    (205) The source selection authority is responsible for

    • A.

      The contract award portion only.

    • B.

      Selection and contract award only

    • C.

      Selecting the source selection evaluation team only.

    • D.

      Solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award.

    Correct Answer
    D. Solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award." The source selection authority is responsible for all stages of the procurement process, including soliciting bids or proposals, evaluating them, selecting the best source, and finally awarding the contract. This ensures that the entire process is handled by a single authority to maintain consistency and fairness in the selection and awarding of contracts.

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  • 23. 

    (205) All are distinct parts that are included in the source selection plan (SSP) except a. source selection team.

    • A.

      Source selection team.

    • B.

      Presolicitation activities.

    • C.

      Evaluation factors and subfactors.

    • D.

      Source selection approval document.

    Correct Answer
    D. Source selection approval document.
    Explanation
    The source selection plan (SSP) is a document that outlines the process and procedures for selecting a source for a particular project or contract. It includes various components such as the source selection team, presolicitation activities, and evaluation factors and subfactors. These are all distinct parts that are included in the SSP to ensure a fair and transparent selection process. However, the source selection approval document is not a part of the SSP. It is a separate document that is prepared after the selection process is complete to document the final decision and approval of the selected source.

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  • 24. 

    (205) Evaluation factors and subfactors establish the level an offeror’s proposal must meet in order to be judged minimally acceptable. Therefore, the factors should

    • A.

      Include every aspect of the solicitation.

    • B.

      Be quantitative, qualitative, or both.

    • C.

      Be tailored to each proposal.

    • D.

      Be quantitative only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Be quantitative, qualitative, or both.
    Explanation
    Evaluation factors and subfactors establish the level an offeror's proposal must meet in order to be judged minimally acceptable. This means that the factors should encompass every aspect of the solicitation, including both quantitative and qualitative aspects. By including both quantitative and qualitative factors, the evaluation process can consider both measurable data and subjective criteria, allowing for a more comprehensive and fair assessment of the proposals. Therefore, the correct answer is that the factors should be quantitative, qualitative, or both.

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  • 25. 

    (205) “Can potentially cause some disruption of schedule, increase in cost, or degradation of performance,” is the definition of which proposal risk?

    • A.

      Low

    • B.

      High

    • C.

      Medium

    • D.

      Moderate

    Correct Answer
    D. Moderate
    Explanation
    The definition of "Can potentially cause some disruption of schedule, increase in cost, or degradation of performance" aligns with the concept of moderate proposal risk. Moderate proposal risk implies that there is a possibility of encountering certain issues that may disrupt the schedule, increase the cost, or degrade the performance of the proposal. This level of risk falls between low and high, indicating a moderate level of potential negative impacts.

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  • 26. 

    (205) When determining which offerors to include in the competitive range, the contracting officer

    • A.

      Excludes the bottom 10% of the offerors.

    • B.

      Only includes the top 10% of the offerors.

    • C.

      Includes all of the most highly rated proposals.

    • D.

      Includes all offerors who are technically acceptable.

    Correct Answer
    C. Includes all of the most highly rated proposals.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "includes all of the most highly rated proposals." When determining which offerors to include in the competitive range, the contracting officer includes all of the most highly rated proposals. This means that only the proposals that are considered to be the best in terms of their ratings will be included in the competitive range. The bottom 10% of the offerors are excluded, meaning that their proposals are not considered to be highly rated enough to be included in the competitive range.

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  • 27. 

    (205) What action is appropriate when the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not be included in the competitive range?

    • A.

      Begin negotiations with offeror.

    • B.

      Request the offeror clarify their proposal.

    • C.

      Allow the offeror one more change to revise their proposal.

    • D.

      Eliminate from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror.

    Correct Answer
    D. Eliminate from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror.
    Explanation
    When the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not be included in the competitive range, the appropriate action is to eliminate the proposal from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror. This means that the proposal will not be further considered for the contract and the offeror will be informed of this decision. It is important to notify the offeror in order to maintain transparency and keep them informed about the status of their proposal.

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  • 28. 

    (205) What type of exchanges is held after determining the competitive range?

    • A.

      Discussions.

    • B.

      Presentations.

    • C.

      Clarifications.

    • D.

      Communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discussions.
    Explanation
    After determining the competitive range, discussions are held. This means that the contracting officer engages in conversations with the offerors who are within the competitive range. These discussions allow the contracting officer to seek clarification on certain aspects of the proposals, negotiate terms, and potentially request revised proposals. The purpose of these discussions is to ensure that the government obtains the best value for the procurement and to allow offerors to improve their proposals based on the feedback received.

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  • 29. 

    (205) What comparisons are allowed in a source selection decision document?

    • A.

      No comparisons are allowed.

    • B.

      One contractor’s approach to another.

    • C.

      All of the contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.

    • D.

      The top three contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.

    Correct Answer
    B. One contractor’s approach to another.
    Explanation
    In a source selection decision document, comparisons are allowed between one contractor's approach to another. This means that the document can evaluate and compare the different approaches proposed by different contractors to determine the most suitable one. However, it does not allow comparisons against the SSET's personal knowledge or limit the comparisons to only the top three contractors. The focus is on comparing the approaches of different contractors to make an informed decision.

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  • 30. 

    (206) Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it

    • A.

      Is less time-consuming.

    • B.

      Normally determines price reasonableness.

    • C.

      Is the process of evaluating separate cost elements.

    • D.

      Requires little or no comparison of proposed prices.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is less time-consuming.
    Explanation
    Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it is less time-consuming. This means that conducting a price analysis requires less time and effort compared to conducting a cost analysis. Price analysis involves evaluating the reasonableness of prices by comparing them to historical data, market prices, or prices obtained from other sources. It does not involve evaluating separate cost elements or comparing proposed prices. Therefore, price analysis is a quicker and more efficient method for determining price reasonableness.

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  • 31. 

    (206) What factors are considered in determining whether a cost is allowable?

    • A.

      Cost and pricing data are certified.

    • B.

      Costs are not allocable to the contract.

    • C.

      Rough yardsticks (such as dollars per pound) have been applied.

    • D.

      Standards have been established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.

    Correct Answer
    D. Standards have been established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.
    Explanation
    The factors considered in determining whether a cost is allowable include whether cost and pricing data are certified, whether costs are allocable to the contract, and whether rough yardsticks have been applied. However, the correct answer is that standards have been established by the Cost Accounting Standard Board. This suggests that the Cost Accounting Standard Board has set specific guidelines or criteria that must be met for a cost to be considered allowable.

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  • 32. 

    (206) A cost is reasonable if

    • A.

      It does not exceed the fair market value paid by the contractor over the last three years.

    • B.

      It does not exceed 110% of the price last paid by the government for the same item.

    • C.

      . the amount is determined fair and reasonable by the contracting officer and its nature is not illegal.

    • D.

      Its nature and amount does not exceed that which would be included by a prudent business person in the conduct of competitive business.

    Correct Answer
    D. Its nature and amount does not exceed that which would be included by a prudent business person in the conduct of competitive business.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that a cost is reasonable if its nature and amount do not exceed what a prudent business person would include in the conduct of competitive business. This means that the cost should be within the range of what is considered normal and acceptable in the industry or market. It should not be excessive or unreasonable compared to what other businesses would typically spend for similar goods or services. This criterion ensures that the cost is fair and justifiable in a competitive business environment.

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  • 33. 

    (206) Which would be identified as a direct cost?

    • A.

      The cost of doors for the building being constructed.

    • B.

      The cost of tools to cut and assemble wood.

    • C.

      The salary of a management official.

    • D.

      The cost of two pounds of nails.

    Correct Answer
    A. The cost of doors for the building being constructed.
    Explanation
    The cost of doors for the building being constructed would be identified as a direct cost because it can be directly traced and allocated to the specific project or building being constructed. Direct costs are expenses that are directly attributable to a particular product, service, or project and can be easily identified and measured. In this case, the cost of doors is directly related to the construction project and can be specifically allocated to it.

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  • 34. 

    (206) If a contractor buys a piece of equipment for $1,000, estimates its expected service life at 10 years and projects salvage value of $200, its annual depreciation value under the straight-line method is

    • A.

      $20.

    • B.

      $80

    • C.

      $100

    • D.

      $120

    Correct Answer
    B. $80
    Explanation
    The annual depreciation value under the straight-line method can be calculated by subtracting the salvage value from the initial cost and dividing it by the expected service life. In this case, the initial cost is $1,000 and the salvage value is $200. Therefore, the depreciation value per year would be ($1,000 - $200) / 10 = $80.

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  • 35. 

    (207) Cost or pricing data is described as

    • A.

      Factual.

    • B.

      Subjective.

    • C.

      Generalized.

    • D.

      Judgmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Factual.
    Explanation
    Cost or pricing data is described as factual because it is based on actual costs incurred or prices paid for goods, services, or construction. It involves objective and verifiable information, such as historical data, invoices, contracts, and financial statements. This data is used to determine the reasonableness and accuracy of proposed costs or prices in government contracts. It is important to rely on factual data to ensure transparency, fairness, and integrity in the procurement process.

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  • 36. 

    (207) Which is not an exception to obtaining cost and pricing data?

    • A.

      Acquisition of a commercial item.

    • B.

      A modification is made to an existing contract.

    • C.

      Prices agreed upon are based on adequate price competition.

    • D.

      Prices agreed upon are based on prices set by law or regulation.

    Correct Answer
    B. A modification is made to an existing contract.
    Explanation
    A modification made to an existing contract is not an exception to obtaining cost and pricing data because when a modification is made to an existing contract, it typically involves changes to the terms, scope, or price of the contract. In such cases, it is important to obtain cost and pricing data to ensure that the modification is fair and reasonable. This helps in evaluating the impact of the modification on the overall cost and pricing structure of the contract.

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  • 37. 

    (207) When cost or pricing data is required, the contracting officer requires the contractor to submit

    • A.

      A certificate of current cost or pricing data.

    • B.

      Projections of cost for the first six months of production.

    • C.

      A certificate of authenticity for each vendor quote provided.

    • D.

      Affidavits setting maximum expenditures for material and labor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A certificate of current cost or pricing data.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a certificate of current cost or pricing data. When cost or pricing data is required, the contracting officer requests the contractor to submit a certificate of current cost or pricing data. This certificate provides assurance that the data provided by the contractor is accurate, complete, and current. It helps the contracting officer in evaluating the reasonableness of the proposed prices and ensures that the government is paying a fair and reasonable price for the goods or services being procured.

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  • 38. 

    (207) If after award, cost and pricing data are found to be inaccurate, incomplete, or noncurrent, what contract price adjustment is the government entitled to?

    • A.

      No adjustment.

    • B.

      Any price increase or decrease that resulted from the faulty data.

    • C.

      Any price increase that resulted from the faulty data plus a 10% penalty charge.

    • D.

      Any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data.
    Explanation
    If after award, cost and pricing data are found to be inaccurate, incomplete, or noncurrent, the government is entitled to any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data. This means that if the data provided by the contractor is found to be faulty, the government can adjust the contract price to account for any significant increase in costs, including profit or fee, that resulted from the faulty data.

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  • 39. 

    (208) A win/win negotiated outcome is preferred in achieving long-term satisfaction because

    • A.

      Each party feels the “victory” was at the other side’s expense

    • B.

      Competition enhancement is not as important as being trusting.

    • C.

      The government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships.

    • D.

      Government officials are required to get the lowest price yet remain friendly with suppliers.

    Correct Answer
    C. The government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships.
    Explanation
    A win/win negotiated outcome is preferred in achieving long-term satisfaction because the government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships. This means that the government values building and maintaining positive and lasting connections with other parties involved in negotiations. By prioritizing long-term relationships, the government aims to foster trust, cooperation, and mutual benefits for all parties involved, leading to greater satisfaction and successful outcomes in the long run.

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  • 40. 

    (208) What helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price?

    • A.

      Audit report.

    • B.

      Field pricing report.

    • C.

      Fact-finding meeting.

    • D.

      Prenegotiation objective.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prenegotiation objective.
    Explanation
    A prenegotiation objective helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price by providing them with a clear understanding of the desired outcome and the maximum acceptable limits for the negotiation. It helps the officer establish negotiation goals, identify potential areas of compromise, and develop a strategy to achieve a mutually beneficial agreement. This objective serves as a guideline during the negotiation process and ensures that the officer is able to effectively evaluate and negotiate the price in a fair and reasonable manner.

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  • 41. 

    (208) Due to the importance of unity during the bargaining session, who should be the only individual designated to speak?

    • A.

      Functional representative.

    • B.

      Senior team member.

    • C.

      Pricing specialist.

    • D.

      Chief negotiator.

    Correct Answer
    D. Chief negotiator.
    Explanation
    The chief negotiator should be the only individual designated to speak during the bargaining session because they are responsible for representing the interests of their party and leading the negotiation process. Having a designated spokesperson helps maintain unity and ensures a consistent message is conveyed to the other party. The chief negotiator is typically the most experienced and knowledgeable person in the negotiation team, making them the best choice to handle the communication and decision-making during the session.

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  • 42. 

    (208) How should the physical environment enhance win/win outcomes?

    • A.

      Facilitates your side “buying” a position.

    • B.

      Makes the contractor feel as comfortable as possible.

    • C.

      Gives other side the perception that they are being treated fairly.

    • D.

      Arranging the conference room gives you a psychological advantage.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gives other side the perception that they are being treated fairly.
    Explanation
    The physical environment should enhance win/win outcomes by giving the other side the perception that they are being treated fairly. This means creating a space that is conducive to open communication, collaboration, and mutual understanding. By setting up the physical environment in a way that promotes fairness and equality, it helps to build trust and positive relationships between the parties involved. This can ultimately lead to win/win outcomes where both sides feel satisfied and valued.

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  • 43. 

    (209) What is the best sequence for negotiating areas of disagreement?

    • A.

      No one approach is better than another

    • B.

      Start negotiating on secondary issue first.

    • C.

      Start negotiating issues of greatest importance.

    • D.

      Government negotiates the contractor’s demands first.

    Correct Answer
    A. No one approach is better than another
    Explanation
    Negotiating areas of disagreement can vary depending on the situation and the parties involved. There is no one-size-fits-all approach that is universally better than another. Different approaches may work better in different contexts and with different individuals or groups. It is important to consider the specific circumstances and dynamics of the negotiation to determine the most effective sequence for addressing areas of disagreement.

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  • 44. 

    (209) Once both sides have reached general agreement during negotiations, the next step is to

    • A.

      Close the negotiations as soon as possible.

    • B.

      Address specific issues which are still in question.

    • C.

      Take a short break to allow each side to reconsider each point.

    • D.

      Wait while your administrative staff finalizes the agreement for signature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Close the negotiations as soon as possible.
    Explanation
    Once both sides have reached general agreement during negotiations, it is logical to close the negotiations as soon as possible. This is because reaching a general agreement means that the parties involved have found a consensus and are satisfied with the terms and conditions discussed. Closing the negotiations promptly allows the parties to move forward and implement the agreed-upon terms, saving time and resources. It also prevents any potential delays or complications that may arise if the negotiations are left open-ended.

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  • 45. 

    (209) During negotiations, how should you handle weaknesses in your negotiation position?

    • A.

      Do not volunteer weaknesses.

    • B.

      Immediately reveal them as an act of good faith.

    • C.

      Divulge your weaknesses if the contractor does the same

    • D.

      Explain your weaknesses only after agreeing to a final price.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not volunteer weaknesses.
    Explanation
    During negotiations, it is advisable not to volunteer weaknesses in your negotiation position. This is because revealing weaknesses can put you at a disadvantage and give the other party leverage to exploit them. It is important to maintain a strong position and only disclose weaknesses if necessary or if the other party discloses theirs first. By keeping your weaknesses to yourself, you can negotiate from a position of strength and increase your chances of achieving a favorable outcome.

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  • 46. 

    (209) Deadlocks in negotiations

    • A.

      Are not always avoidable.

    • B.

      Only occur when parties are unfair

    • C.

      Only occur when parties are unreasonable

    • D.

      Always signify the end of negotiation attempts

    Correct Answer
    A. Are not always avoidable.
    Explanation
    Deadlocks in negotiations are not always avoidable because they can occur due to various factors such as conflicting interests, limited resources, or communication breakdowns. Negotiations involve multiple parties with different goals and perspectives, making it challenging to reach a mutually beneficial agreement. While parties can make efforts to prevent deadlocks through effective communication, compromise, and problem-solving, sometimes external factors or deeply entrenched positions can lead to a deadlock. Therefore, it is important to recognize that deadlocks can happen despite best efforts and find alternative approaches to move forward in negotiations.

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  • 47. 

    (210) Why must a price negotiation memorandum (PNM) permit the rapid reconstruction of the major consideration in pricing the contract?

    • A.

      So courts can render decisions quicker

    • B.

      In case the contract file is lost or destroyed.

    • C.

      It aids in auditing contract file by inspectors.

    • D.

      Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel." This is because a price negotiation memorandum (PNM) needs to allow for the rapid reconstruction of the major consideration in pricing the contract due to the high turnover rate for contracting personnel. This means that when new personnel take over a contract, they can quickly understand and reconstruct the pricing considerations without delays or difficulties.

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  • 48. 

    (210) A price negotiation memorandum (PNM) must contain all of the following except

    • A.

      A description of the acquisition

    • B.

      The basis for profit or fee negotiated.

    • C.

      The duration of the negotiation session

    • D.

      Documentation of fair and reasonable pricing.

    Correct Answer
    C. The duration of the negotiation session
    Explanation
    A price negotiation memorandum (PNM) is a document that outlines the details of a negotiation process for a particular acquisition. It typically includes a description of the acquisition, the basis for profit or fee negotiated, and documentation of fair and reasonable pricing. However, the duration of the negotiation session is not a necessary component of the PNM. It is not directly relevant to the details and outcomes of the negotiation, and therefore does not need to be included in the memorandum.

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  • 49. 

    (210) What contract award form is used for construction, alterations, or repair?

    • A.

      SF 26

    • B.

      SF 33

    • C.

      SF 1442

    • D.

      SF 1447

    Correct Answer
    C. SF 1442
    Explanation
    The SF 1442 form is used for contract awards in construction, alterations, or repair projects. This form is specifically designed for these types of contracts and includes all the necessary information and clauses required for such projects. It streamlines the contracting process and ensures that all the relevant details are included in the award document.

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  • 50. 

    (210) The contracting officer provides written notice of award to the unsuccessful offerors within

    • A.

      Three days

    • B.

      Four days

    • C.

      Five days

    • D.

      Six days

    Correct Answer
    A. Three days
    Explanation
    The contracting officer provides written notice of award to the unsuccessful offerors within three days. This means that within three days of the award decision being made, the contracting officer must notify the offerors who were not selected for the contract. This allows the unsuccessful offerors to be informed of the decision in a timely manner and begin exploring other opportunities.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 12, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Afbubba
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