Airforce Quiz - CDC 3f171b - Readiness, Mortuary, And Honor Guard

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  • 1/55 Questions

    Which of the following is not provided by the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) to support operations?

    • Current policies
    • Planning factors
    • Concept of operations (CONOPS)
    • Global force management (GFM) forces
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Airforce Quiz - CDC 3f171b - Readiness, Mortuary, And Honor Guard - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) addresses all of the following except

    • The mission

    • Execution tasks

    • Specific situations

    • The concept of operations (CONOPS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific situations
    Explanation
    The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) covers various aspects related to military operations, such as the mission, execution tasks, and the concept of operations (CONOPS). However, it does not specifically address specific situations. This means that while the WMP provides a framework and guidelines for carrying out military operations, it does not provide detailed instructions for handling every possible scenario that may arise during the execution of the plan.

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  • 3. 

    Which wartime priority supports the strategic offense and defensive missions?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Wartime priority number 1 supports the strategic offense and defensive missions. This suggests that it is the most important priority during war that supports both offensive and defensive strategies. It implies that this priority is crucial for achieving success in military operations by effectively attacking the enemy and defending against their attacks.

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  • 4. 

    Which plan is chiefly associated with a temporary base?

    • Base support and expeditionary (BaS&E)

    • Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP)

    • Expeditionary site plan (ESP)

    • Base support plan (BSP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Expeditionary site plan (ESP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Expeditionary site plan (ESP). An expeditionary site plan is chiefly associated with a temporary base. This plan is developed to provide a detailed layout and design of the temporary base, including the location of facilities, infrastructure, and operational areas. It helps in organizing and coordinating various activities and resources at the temporary base to ensure efficient operations during the expedition. The other options, such as Base support and expeditionary (BaS&E), Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP), and Base support plan (BSP), are not specifically designed for the purpose of planning a temporary base.

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  • 5. 

    Which part of the base support expeditionary site plan (ESP) identifies resources?

    • Part 1

    • Part 2

    • Services annex

    • Joint Support Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 1
    Explanation
    Part 1 of the base support expeditionary site plan (ESP) identifies resources. This suggests that Part 1 of the plan contains information about the resources that will be needed and utilized during the expeditionary site operation. It could include details about the personnel, equipment, supplies, and other resources required to support the mission effectively.

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  • 6. 

    Within the emergency management (EM) process, who communicates to higher headquarters (HQ) and with civilian agencies during emergencies?

    • Emergency operations center (EOC)

    • Installation commander's office

    • Emergency support function (ESF)

    • Installation control center (ICC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation control center (ICC)
    Explanation
    The Installation Control Center (ICC) communicates with higher headquarters and civilian agencies during emergencies within the emergency management process. The ICC is responsible for coordinating and managing emergency response efforts, including communication and coordination with external agencies and organizations. They serve as a central point of contact for information sharing and decision-making, ensuring effective communication and collaboration between all involved parties.

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  • 7. 

    Which organization serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for emergency support functions (ESF) dealing with mass care, housing, and human services?

    • Force Support Squadron (FSS)

    • Civil engineer (CE)

    • Security Forces (SF)

    • Medical group

    Correct Answer
    A. Force Support Squadron (FSS)
    Explanation
    The Force Support Squadron (FSS) serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for emergency support functions (ESF) dealing with mass care, housing, and human services. This means that FSS is responsible for coordinating and providing support in these areas during emergencies or disasters. They would be in charge of ensuring that individuals affected by the emergency receive the necessary care, shelter, and other human services they may need.

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  • 8. 

    When deployed, which ration type does not require cooks?

    • A-ration

    • B-ration

    • Meal, ready to eat (MRE)

    • Unitized group ration (UGR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Meal, ready to eat (MRE)
    Explanation
    The Meal, Ready to Eat (MRE) does not require cooks when deployed. MREs are pre-packaged meals that are designed to be eaten without any additional preparation. They contain a variety of food items that are fully cooked and can be consumed straight from the package. This makes them convenient for military personnel in the field who may not have access to cooking facilities or the time to prepare a hot meal. MREs are a self-contained ration type that provides all the necessary nutrients and calories for a meal, making them an ideal option for deployment situations.

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  • 9. 

    What rations are not used for contingency or deployment?

    • Humanitarian daily rations (HDR)

    • Unitized group rations (UGR)

    • Meals, ready to eat (MRE)

    • B-rations

    Correct Answer
    A. B-rations
    Explanation
    B-rations are not used for contingency or deployment. B-rations are bulk food items that require additional preparation and cooking, making them less suitable for immediate consumption during emergency situations or when troops are on the move. On the other hand, humanitarian daily rations (HDR), unitized group rations (UGR), and meals, ready to eat (MRE) are specifically designed to provide quick and easy sustenance in such scenarios.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following enables timely operational capability assessments to facilitate joint force projection planning?

    • Unit line number (ULN)

    • Cargo increment number (CIN)

    • Force requirement number (FRN)

    • Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)
    Explanation
    Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) enables timely operational capability assessments to facilitate joint force projection planning. TPFDD provides detailed information about the movement and deployment of forces over time, including the required resources, personnel, and equipment. It helps in determining the readiness and availability of forces at different stages of deployment, allowing planners to assess the operational capabilities and make informed decisions for joint force projection. TPFDD also assists in coordinating logistics, transportation, and support requirements for effective force deployment and sustainment.

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  • 11. 

    Which time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operation plan (OPLAN)?

    • Requirements driven

    • Balance and certified

    • Capabilities driven

    • Ratified

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements driven
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Requirements driven." The time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) associated with a written operation plan (OPLAN) is requirements driven, meaning that it is based on the specific needs and requirements outlined in the plan. This ensures that the necessary resources and forces are allocated and deployed in a timely and efficient manner to support the objectives of the operation plan.

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  • 12. 

    Each entry in the Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES) time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is controlled by the 

    • Personnel increment number (PIN)

    • Force requirement number (FRN)

    • Unit line number (ULN)

    • PIN and FRN

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit line number (ULN)
    Explanation
    In the Joint Operational Planning and Execution System (JOPES) time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD), each entry is controlled by the Unit Line Number (ULN). The ULN is a unique identifier assigned to each unit or element within a force. It helps to track and manage the deployment of forces by providing a specific identification for each unit involved in the operation. The ULN allows for accurate and efficient coordination of resources and personnel during planning and execution of military operations.

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  • 13. 

    Which is not one of the nine key and essential pieces of personnel deployment tasking information?

    • Plan identification designator (PID)

    • Air Force speciality code (AFSC)

    • Personnel increment number (PIN)

    • Position number suffix

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel increment number (PIN)
    Explanation
    The Personnel increment number (PIN) is not one of the nine key and essential pieces of personnel deployment tasking information. The other options, such as Plan identification designator (PID), Air Force speciality code (AFSC), and Position number suffix, are all important pieces of information that are used in personnel deployment tasking. However, the PIN is not typically used or required for this purpose.

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  • 14. 

    Under the lead/follow support concept, when planning support in 3F1 functional areas, food services must maintain a cook-to-customer ratio under

    • 2:75

    • 2:50

    • 1:75

    • 1:50

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:50
    Explanation
    In the lead/follow support concept, food services are required to maintain a cook-to-customer ratio of 1:50 when planning support in 3F1 functional areas. This means that for every 50 customers, there should be one cook available to provide the necessary food services. This ratio ensures that there is sufficient staff to meet the demands of the customers and provide them with timely and efficient service.

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  • 15. 

    At which deployment period will three unitized group rations (UGR) be served each day? 

    • Day 15 through 29

    • Day 5 through 14

    • Day 0 through 4

    • Day 30+

    Correct Answer
    A. Day 15 through 29
    Explanation
    Three unitized group rations (UGR) will be served each day during the deployment period from day 15 through day 29.

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  • 16. 

    The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on

    • 80 percent of convalescent

    • 90 percent of base population

    • 100 percent of base population

    • 70 percent of patients in medical facility

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 percent of base population
    Explanation
    The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on 100 percent of the base population. This means that when planning for feeding during wartime flights, the factor takes into account the entire population of the base. This ensures that enough food is provided to meet the needs of everyone on the base, including both military personnel and civilians. By considering the entire base population, the planners can ensure that no one is left without access to food during wartime flights.

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  • 17. 

    A reference for beddown planning is covered in

    • AFI 10-201, Force Readiness Reporting

    • AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution

    • AFI 32-1001, Operations Management

    • AFI 38-205, Expeditionary Manpower Management 

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution. This is because beddown planning is a part of the overall deployment planning and execution process. AFI 10-403 provides guidance and procedures for planning and executing deployments, including the establishment of temporary facilities and accommodations for personnel. It covers topics such as site selection, facility requirements, and logistical considerations for beddown planning during deployments. Therefore, AFI 10-403 is the most relevant reference for beddown planning.

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  • 18. 

    Handling of biohazard waste is coordinated with

    • Civil engineering (CE)

    • The combatant commander (CCDR)

    • Expeditionary combat support (ECS)

    • United States Army Public Health Command (USAPHC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil engineering (CE)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is civil engineering (CE). Civil engineering is responsible for coordinating the handling of biohazard waste. They are involved in designing and constructing the necessary infrastructure and facilities for the proper disposal and treatment of biohazard waste. This includes ensuring compliance with environmental regulations and implementing safe and efficient waste management practices. Civil engineering plays a crucial role in ensuring that biohazard waste is handled and managed effectively to protect public health and the environment.

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  • 19. 

    The two priorities in a force beddown plan are command, control, and communications (C3) and 

    • Security

    • Equipment

    • Accountability

    • Mission readiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Accountability
    Explanation
    In a force beddown plan, the two priorities are command, control, and communications (C3) and accountability. C3 ensures effective communication and coordination among different units and levels of command. Accountability refers to the responsibility of keeping track of personnel, equipment, and resources to ensure their availability and readiness for mission execution. By prioritizing accountability, the force can maintain a high level of readiness and ensure that all necessary resources are accounted for and properly utilized.

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  • 20. 

    Within the force support squadron (FSS), who ensures qualified individuals fill each deployable unit type code (UTC) position assigned to the unit?

    • Flight Chief

    • Activity manager

    • Resource manager (RM)

    • Unit deployment manager (UDM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit deployment manager (UDM)
    Explanation
    The Unit Deployment Manager (UDM) is responsible for ensuring that qualified individuals are assigned to each deployable unit type code (UTC) position within the force support squadron (FSS). They are in charge of coordinating and managing the deployment process, including personnel selection and assignment. The UDM works closely with the FSS leadership and other stakeholders to ensure that the unit is properly staffed and prepared for deployment operations.

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  • 21. 

    When a physically limiting condition is detected that might limit your capability to perform deployment duties, you are required to obtain an

    • AF Form (AF) Form 431

    • AF Form 469

    • AF Form 512

    • AF Form 522

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 469
    Explanation
    AF Form 469 is the correct answer because it is used to document a member's medical condition that may affect their ability to perform their duties. This form is used to determine if the member is medically fit for deployment and if any restrictions or limitations need to be placed on their duties. It is important to obtain this form when a physically limiting condition is detected in order to ensure the member's safety and the effectiveness of their deployment duties.

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  • 22. 

    What is a fundamental premise of Air Force-input tool (AF0IT) reporting?

    • Integrity

    • Accuracy

    • Timeliness

    • Statistical data

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrity
    Explanation
    Integrity is a fundamental premise of Air Force-input tool (AF0IT) reporting. This means that the reporting process should be conducted with honesty, transparency, and adherence to ethical principles. It involves ensuring that the information reported is reliable, truthful, and free from any form of manipulation or bias. Maintaining integrity in AF0IT reporting is crucial for upholding the credibility and trustworthiness of the data provided, which in turn supports informed decision-making within the Air Force.

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  • 23. 

    Who designs measurement criteria for readiness reporting?

    • Force support squadron commander (FSS/CC)

    • Installation deployment officer (IDO)

    • Global force management (GFM)

    • Functional area manager (FAM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional area manager (FAM)
    Explanation
    The Functional Area Manager (FAM) is responsible for designing measurement criteria for readiness reporting. They are in charge of overseeing and managing specific functional areas within an organization, including determining the criteria by which readiness will be assessed. This includes establishing standards, guidelines, and metrics to ensure that the organization is prepared and capable of carrying out its mission effectively. The FAM collaborates with various stakeholders to develop these criteria, taking into account the specific needs and requirements of the organization.

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  • 24. 

    Which force support squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) is a 5-person team that supports a population of 550 for less than 5 days?

    • RFLX2

    • RFXL3

    • RFSJR

    • RFSRR

    Correct Answer
    A. RFLX2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RFLX2. This unit type code (UTC) refers to a 5-person team that is responsible for supporting a population of 550 for less than 5 days.

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  • 25. 

    Which force support squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) supports Air Force Mortuary Affairs Operation?

    • RFLX2

    • RFLX3

    • RFSRJ

    • RFSRR

    Correct Answer
    A. RFSRJ
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RFSRJ. This force support squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) supports Air Force Mortuary Affairs Operation.

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  • 26. 

    Which basic expeditionary airfield resources (BEAR) set transitions from initial to established messing?

    • BEAR Single Pallet Expeditionary Kitchen (SPEK)

    • BEAR Portable Electric Kitchen (PEK)

    • BEAR 9-2 550 Kitchen

    • Swift BEAR

    Correct Answer
    A. BEAR 9-2 550 Kitchen
    Explanation
    The BEAR 9-2 550 Kitchen transitions from initial to established messing.

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  • 27. 

    The force module (FM) concept has how many FMs?

    • 3

    • 6

    • 9

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The force module (FM) concept has 6 FMs. This means that there are 6 different modules or components within the FM concept. Each of these modules serves a specific purpose or function, and together they form the complete FM concept.

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  • 28. 

    Which force module (FM) contains specific weapons systems such as fighters, tankers, and cargo aircraft crews, and maintenance teams?

    • Robust the base

    • Operate the base

    • Generate the mission

    • Command and control

    Correct Answer
    A. Generate the mission
    Explanation
    The force module that contains specific weapons systems such as fighters, tankers, and cargo aircraft crews, and maintenance teams is the one that generates the mission. This means that it is responsible for planning and organizing the mission, including determining the specific tasks and objectives that need to be accomplished. This force module would coordinate with other modules to ensure that the necessary resources and personnel are available to successfully carry out the mission.

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  • 29. 

    After the start of the "open the base" force module (FM), the "generate the mission" FM will be expected to be in place no later than (NLT) day

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The "generate the mission" force module is expected to be in place no later than day 4 after the start of the "open the base" force module. This means that within the first 4 days of starting the "open the base" module, the necessary preparations and planning for the mission should be completed.

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  • 30. 

    How many days after an operational location is established will the "robust the base" force module (FM) expect support forces to be in place?

    • 15

    • 20

    • 25

    • 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The "robust the base" force module (FM) expects support forces to be in place 30 days after an operational location is established.

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  • 31. 

    Which mortuary program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

    • Current death

    • Concurrent return

    • Temporary interment

    • Wartime mortuary affairs (MA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Concurrent return
    Explanation
    Concurrent return is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict because it involves the timely and simultaneous repatriation of deceased military personnel. This ensures that the remains are returned to their home countries as quickly as possible, allowing for proper funeral and burial arrangements to be made. It also helps to provide closure and support to the families of the deceased.

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  • 32. 

    The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) must be responsive to the information needs of the 

    • Unit

    • Media

    • Public

    • Family

    Correct Answer
    A. Family
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "family". The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) is designed to provide support and assistance to the families of deceased Air Force members. This program aims to meet the information needs of the families, ensuring they are kept informed and supported during difficult times. The AFSAP recognizes the importance of addressing the concerns and questions of the families, and strives to be responsive to their needs.

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  • 33. 

    Once you are identified as a family affairs representative (FAR), training should be completed within how many hours?

    • 12

    • 24

    • 36

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Once you are identified as a family affairs representative (FAR), training should be completed within 24 hours. This implies that there is a time constraint for completing the training once you have been designated as a FAR. It is important to complete the training promptly to ensure that you have the necessary knowledge and skills to fulfill your responsibilities as a family affairs representative.

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  • 34. 

    Who makes the recommendation for an individual to be the family affairs representative (FAR) of a deceased member?

    • Next-of-kin (NOK)

    • Mortuary officer (MO)

    • Unit commander

    • Installation commander 

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit commander
    Explanation
    The unit commander is responsible for making the recommendation for an individual to be the family affairs representative (FAR) of a deceased member. This is because the unit commander is in a position of authority and has knowledge of the deceased member's family dynamics and who would be best suited to fulfill the responsibilities of the FAR role. The unit commander is also responsible for ensuring that the FAR is capable of effectively communicating and coordinating with the family during this difficult time.

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  • 35. 

    Who creates the deceased's mortuary case file?

    • Mortuary officer (MO)

    • Mortuary affairs technician

    • Family affairs representative (FAR)

    • Casualty affairs representative (CAR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Mortuary affairs technician
    Explanation
    A mortuary affairs technician is responsible for creating the deceased's mortuary case file. They are trained professionals who handle the administrative tasks related to the deceased, including documentation and record-keeping. They work closely with the mortuary officer and other personnel involved in the mortuary affairs to ensure that all necessary information is properly recorded and organized. The mortuary case file is an important document that contains details about the deceased, such as their personal information, cause of death, and any relevant legal or medical documents.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for explaining the roles of a family affairs representative (FAR) to the family?

    • Mortuary affairs (MA) technician

    • Installation commander

    • Mortuary officer (MO)

    • Unit commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Mortuary officer (MO)
    Explanation
    The mortuary officer (MO) is responsible for explaining the roles of a family affairs representative (FAR) to the family. As the officer in charge of the mortuary affairs, they have the knowledge and expertise to provide the necessary information and guidance to the family regarding the responsibilities and duties of the FAR. They can ensure that the family understands the role and can answer any questions or concerns they may have. The MO's role is crucial in ensuring effective communication and support for the family during this difficult time.

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  • 37. 

    Summary courts officers' (SCO) personal property actions should be completed within how many days?

    • 180

    • 120

    • 100

    • 90

    Correct Answer
    A. 90
    Explanation
    Summary courts officers' (SCO) personal property actions should be completed within 90 days. This means that any legal proceedings related to personal property, such as confiscation or seizure, should be resolved within this time frame. This ensures a timely and efficient process for resolving disputes and returning or disposing of personal property.

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  • 38. 

    What determines which mortuary officer (MO) will open the case file?

    • Guidance from Headquarters, Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO)

    • The mortuary collection point (MCP)

    • MO location in proximity to death

    • Base the casualty was deployed from

    Correct Answer
    A. MO location in proximity to death
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MO location in proximity to death. This means that the mortuary officer who is closest to the location where the death occurred will be the one to open the case file. This is likely done for logistical reasons, as it would be more efficient for the officer who is closest to the scene to handle the initial paperwork and coordination of the case. It also allows for a quicker response time in terms of transporting the deceased to the mortuary facility.

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  • 39. 

    Funeral home itemized charges are filed in which tab of the mortuary case file?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    In a mortuary case file, funeral home itemized charges are typically filed in tab number 5. This tab is specifically dedicated to documenting and organizing all the detailed charges and expenses related to the funeral services provided by the funeral home. It helps in keeping track of all the costs incurred by the family and ensures transparency in the billing process.

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  • 40. 

    The family affairs representative (FAR) log of events is located in which tab of the mortuary case file?

    • 6

    • 5

    • 3

    • 2

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. This suggests that the family affairs representative (FAR) log of events can be found in the 6th tab of the mortuary case file.

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  • 41. 

    How many copies of a certified state death are given to a person authorized to direct disposition (PADD)?

    • 10

    • 12

    • 16

    • 18

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    When a person is authorized to direct the disposition (PADD) of a deceased individual, they are typically given 10 copies of a certified state death certificate. These copies are important for various legal and administrative purposes, such as settling the deceased person's estate, claiming life insurance benefits, and notifying financial institutions and government agencies. Having multiple copies ensures that the PADD can easily provide the necessary documentation to different parties involved in the process.

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  • 42. 

    What is the maximum allowable number of interment flags given to a deceased's family without approval of Headquarters, Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO)?

    • 4

    • 3

    • 2

    • 1

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The maximum allowable number of interment flags given to a deceased's family without approval of Headquarters, Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO) is 3. This means that the family can receive up to three interment flags without needing approval from HQ AFMAO.

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  • 43. 

    What  is the maximum allowance authorized disposition of the deceased (PADD) makes arrangement to have remains cremated?

    • $5,000

    • $7,000

    • $9,000

    • $10,000

    Correct Answer
    A. $9,000
    Explanation
    The maximum allowance authorized disposition of the deceased (PADD) that makes arrangements to have remains cremated is $9,000. This means that the PADD can spend up to $9,000 on the cremation process.

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  • 44. 

    Which transport method is not authorized for movement of a deceased member's remains?

    • Hearse or service car

    • Commercial aircraft

    • Government aircraft

    • Personal vehicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal vehicle
    Explanation
    Personal vehicle is not authorized for the movement of a deceased member's remains. This is because personal vehicles do not have the necessary facilities and equipment to properly handle and transport human remains. Hearse or service cars are specifically designed for this purpose, while commercial and government aircraft have the necessary protocols and facilities in place to transport deceased individuals.

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  • 45. 

    When personal remains are transported from a combat theater of operations, the primary next-of-kin (PNOK) may request a delay not to exceed

    • 12 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 36 hours

    • 48 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours
    Explanation
    When personal remains are transported from a combat theater of operations, the primary next-of-kin (PNOK) may request a delay not to exceed 12 hours. This means that if the PNOK needs some time to prepare or make arrangements before receiving the remains, they can request a delay of up to 12 hours. This allows them to have some control over the timing of the arrival and gives them a short window to gather themselves and their support network before facing the difficult task of receiving the remains.

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  • 46. 

    Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses?

    • Headquarters Air Force Services Activity/Services Directorate (HQ AFSVA/SV)

    • Headquarters Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO)

    • Installation commander

    • Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S)

    Correct Answer
    A. Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S). This is because the Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S) is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses. The Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S) oversees the financial aspects of the mortuary affairs and ensures that the expenses are properly managed and paid for.

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  • 47. 

    The government purchase card (GPC) is used for which type of expense?

    • Other

    • Primary

    • Secondary

    • Advertisement 

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    The government purchase card (GPC) is used for primary expenses. This means that it is primarily used for purchasing goods and services that are essential for the functioning of the government or its agencies. The GPC is typically used for day-to-day operational expenses such as office supplies, travel expenses, and small equipment purchases. It is not typically used for secondary expenses, which are non-essential or discretionary in nature.

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  • 48. 

    Which deceased member's relative is not authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel?

    • Spouse

    • Children

    • Parent/parents

    • Grandchildren

    Correct Answer
    A. Grandchildren
    Explanation
    Grandchildren are not authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel. This is because the entitlements are typically limited to immediate family members, such as spouses, children, and parents. Grandchildren are considered one generation removed from the deceased member, and therefore do not qualify for these entitlements.

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  • 49. 

    Who completes the inspection checklist portion of DD Form 2063, Record of Preperation and Disposition of Remains?

    • Summary courts officer (SCO)

    • Family affairs representative (FAR)

    • Contracting officer's representative (COR)

    • Person authorized direct disposition (PADD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer's representative (COR)
    Explanation
    The contracting officer's representative (COR) completes the inspection checklist portion of DD Form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains. This individual is responsible for overseeing the contract and ensuring that all requirements are met. They are authorized to inspect and verify the preparation and disposition of remains according to the established checklist.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jan 31, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Christina

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