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1. Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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About This Quiz
Want To Go Into Air Force? Take This Quiz - Quiz

An air force – in the broadest sense – is the national military branch that primarily conducts aerial warfare. More specifically, it is the branch of a nation's... see morearmed services that is responsible for aerial warfare as distinct from an army or navy.
The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB) is a multiple choice test, administered by the United States Military Entrance Processing Command, used to determine qualification for enlistment in the United States Armed Forces
Take this quiz to prepare for such a test.
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2. What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

Explanation

The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This means that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant responsibility and leadership roles.

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3. Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

Explanation

Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD) is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module. This means that the module does not have the capability to handle or dispose of explosive ordnance. The other options, force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability, are all initial capabilities of the module, indicating that it is designed to provide these functions.

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4. The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location of the Contingency Response Wing headquarters.

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5. Who initiates the requirements of deployment sourcing process?

Explanation

The AFPC Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements of the deployment sourcing process. This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources. They determine the needs and requirements for deployments and work with other units and agencies to ensure that the necessary personnel and resources are available for deployment.

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6. Which of these is not and area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Facility condition. SORTS measures and reports on various areas such as training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.

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7. Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

Explanation

The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories to assess the preparedness of the force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the home station mission is not a readiness category measured by ART. This means that ART does not evaluate the readiness of the force based on the mission capabilities at their home station.

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8. Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

Explanation

The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS). This can be inferred from the fact that the other options, MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are all larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems. The RQ-11B Raven is known for its small size, lightweight design, and ability to be easily deployed and operated by a small team.

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9. Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

Explanation

The 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS) is the correct answer because it is the only Engineering Installation (EI) unit that has a flight assigned to support a 72 hour rapid response force during a crisis. This flight provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis. The other options, 38 Engineering Squadron (ES), 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS), and 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS), do not have the specific capabilities mentioned in the question.

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10. All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

Explanation

In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger brought together the various broadcasting networks of the armed forces, allowing for a more unified and efficient broadcasting system. By consolidating these affiliates, the AFN was able to provide a consistent and reliable source of news, entertainment, and information to members of the armed forces stationed around the world. This merger also helped to streamline operations and reduce duplication of resources, ultimately improving the quality and reach of the broadcasting services provided to military personnel.

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11. Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

Explanation

Deliberate planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is comprehensive and systematic, allowing for careful consideration and preparation in order to effectively respond to potential crises and achieve desired objectives.

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12. The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

Explanation

A deliverable is the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It represents the tangible or intangible result that is expected to be produced at the end of the project. It could be a document, a software application, a physical product, or any other item that is considered valuable and meets the requirements of the project. Deliverables are typically defined and agreed upon at the beginning of the project and serve as a measure of success or completion. They are essential for tracking progress, managing expectations, and ensuring that the project objectives are met.

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13. Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to fulfill the core mission of another service. It is a collaborative effort where different services work together to support each other's missions and ensure the overall success of the operation. This allows for greater flexibility and efficiency in utilizing resources and expertise across different branches of the military.

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14. The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

Explanation

The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications ensure that information is transmitted safely and confidentially, allowing for effective coordination and decision-making. Intelligence provides crucial information about the operational environment, enemy forces, and potential threats, enabling commanders to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions. Together, secure communications and intelligence form the foundation for establishing control and ensuring successful command and control operations.

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15. Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services?

Explanation

When there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services, a sole source contract is permissible. A sole source contract is awarded to a specific supplier or contractor without competition, as there is no other feasible option available. This type of contract is often used when there is a unique product or service that only one provider can offer, or when there is an urgent need that cannot be met through a competitive bidding process.

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16. Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

Explanation

The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase". This implies that the support forces required for the airbase to operate at full capacity and handle any potential challenges or contingencies would be deployed after the initial establishment of the airbase.

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17. In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

Explanation

The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km. This means that the NCC-D can effectively control and manage operations at an extended site that is up to 16 km away from the base.

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18. Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

Explanation

Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC). This means that the responsibility lies with the pilot units to plan and organize the necessary logistics support for their operations, ensuring that they have the resources and supplies needed to sustain their activities for a period of 30 days.

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19. Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

Explanation

The airbase force module is estimated to arrive within 2 days after the airbase is opened. The delivery of the module is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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20. What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

Explanation

Source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are referred to as "requirements." These documents outline the specific functionalities, features, and capabilities that the cyberspace infrastructure should possess in order to meet the desired objectives. By defining the requirements, organizations can effectively plan and develop the necessary technical solutions, prioritize tasks, and allocate resources accordingly.

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21. Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards. They are in charge of maintaining and managing the infrastructure, facilities, and utilities on the base. This includes conducting regular inspections to ensure that all buildings, structures, and systems are in compliance with safety codes, regulations, and quality standards. Base Civil Engineering plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall functionality and safety of the installation.

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22. Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less then 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

Explanation

The functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are typically used to request and track maintenance tasks or improvements to the cyberspace infrastructure. They provide a structured process for initiating, tracking, and completing these tasks in a timely manner.

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23. What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

Explanation

In the Initiate Phase of a project, the project manager is responsible for providing answers, guidance, and education to the team. This includes addressing any questions or concerns, providing direction and support, and ensuring that team members have the necessary knowledge and resources to begin the project. The project manager plays a crucial role in setting the project up for success by providing the necessary information and support during the initiation phase.

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24. Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Command and control." This force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment. It focuses on coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making within the deployed forces. This module helps maintain control over the operations and facilitates efficient command and control of the deployed forces.

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25. Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply?

Explanation

A Blanket Purchase Agreement is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply. This allows the buyer to make multiple purchases under a single agreement, eliminating the need for individual contracts for each purchase. It provides flexibility and convenience in procurement, as it streamlines the process and reduces administrative burden.

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26. Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

Explanation

The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of utilizing internal capabilities and resources to address and solve problems without relying on external assistance. In this case, the squadron is using its own resources and support from the base to fund their operations and projects.

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27. What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

Explanation

Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. By regularly following up with team members, stakeholders, and other relevant parties, project managers can stay informed about the project's status, address any issues or roadblocks promptly, and make necessary adjustments to keep the project on track. Follow-up also helps in monitoring the progress, tracking milestones, and ensuring that tasks are completed as planned. It promotes effective communication, accountability, and proactive management, which are essential for successful project execution.

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28. Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Cost management plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary information and details about a project. It includes various plans such as the cost management plan, which outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. The cost management plan is crucial for ensuring that the project stays within budget and that cost-related risks are effectively managed. The other options, Allied support plan, Technical plan, and Material plan, may also be included in the Project Plan, but the Cost management plan is specifically mentioned in the question.

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29. What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

Explanation

AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document used in the United States Air Force to validate the successful installation of a communications system and mark the end of a project. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of documenting and certifying the completion of maintenance, repairs, or installations of equipment. It serves as a record of the work performed and provides verification that the communications system has been successfully installed and is ready for use.

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30. When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

Explanation

A supporting plan is prepared in support of contingency plans when tasked by the supported combatant commander. This plan is designed to provide assistance and resources to the main contingency plan, ensuring that it can be effectively executed. The supporting plan outlines the specific actions, resources, and support needed to carry out the contingency plan successfully. It helps to coordinate and synchronize efforts, ensuring that all necessary elements are in place to achieve the desired objectives.

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31. Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

Explanation

Major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's ability to meet the specified operational requirements. These exceptions are severe and can cause a major disruption or failure in the system's functionality. Therefore, major exceptions are the most significant and can have a major negative impact on the system's performance and ability to meet the desired requirements.

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32. Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?

Explanation

The Facilities Utilization Board is the correct answer because it is the type of planning meeting that identifies civil engineering projects such as new construction, renovations, demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations. This board is responsible for making decisions and recommendations regarding the utilization and allocation of facilities within an organization.

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33. Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

Explanation

Volume 1 provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.

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34. Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

Explanation

All military construction projects require authorization and appropriation from the Secretary of Defense and the House and Senate Armed Services Committees. This means that any construction project related to the military, regardless of its size or scope, must go through these channels for approval and funding.

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35. If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the 

Explanation

The correct answer is Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because when instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, information on base functional area support is included in the major paragraph of the Operations Plan (OPLAN). The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational objectives, tasks, and resources required for a specific mission or operation. Therefore, it is the most appropriate place to include information on base functional area support in the absence of a separate annex.

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36. What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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37. The five phases of Project Management are initiate,

Explanation

The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This sequence represents the typical phases of project management. The first phase involves planning the project, setting objectives, and creating a detailed plan. Then, the project moves into the execution phase where the plan is put into action. After the project is completed, the close phase involves wrapping up loose ends, evaluating the project's success, and documenting lessons learned. Finally, the control phase ensures that the project stays on track, monitors progress, and makes adjustments as necessary.

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38. Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates?

Explanation

Time and Material contracts are used when acquiring supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates. This type of contract is commonly used when the scope of work is uncertain or when it is not possible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work required. In a Time and Material contract, the contractor is paid for the actual hours worked, as well as the cost of materials used, with a predetermined fixed hourly rate. This type of contract provides flexibility in accommodating changes to the scope of work and allows for a more accurate reflection of the actual effort and costs involved.

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39. Which is no a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

Explanation

Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are typically part of the Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support, on the other hand, refers to the various support functions and services provided to the combat forces, such as logistics, transportation, and medical support.

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40. Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the competition in Contracting Act?

Explanation

The "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act requires that government contracts be awarded through a competitive process. This means that all interested vendors have the opportunity to submit proposals and compete for the contract. However, the unit commander's interest is not an exception to this stipulation. The unit commander's interest refers to the preference given to a particular vendor based on the unit commander's personal preference or relationship with that vendor. This goes against the principle of fair competition and is not allowed under the Competition in Contracting Act.

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41. Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cot reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?

Explanation

A fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 must be submitted to the Base Contracting Office within 35 calendar days of the delivery date.

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42. Who implements a technical solution for a base?

Explanation

The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means they are in charge of actually carrying out the necessary actions to put the solution into practice. The project monitor may oversee the progress and ensure that the solution is being implemented correctly, but they do not actually perform the implementation themselves. The project manager is responsible for overall coordination and management of the project, but may not directly implement the technical solution. The communication squadron is unlikely to be directly involved in implementing a technical solution for a base.

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43. What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

Explanation

A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This role involves supporting the program manager in various tasks such as coordinating program activities, monitoring progress, and ensuring that actions are taken to achieve program goals. The program action officer works closely with the program manager to ensure the smooth execution of the program and the successful achievement of its objectives.

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44. The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,

Explanation

The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement". This is because these are the four key stages of the ITIL service life cycle. Service design involves designing new or changed services, service transition involves transitioning services into the live environment, service operation involves managing and delivering the services, and continual service improvement involves continuously improving the services based on feedback and performance metrics. The other options either include incorrect stages or miss out on important stages of the ITIL service life cycle.

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45. As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

Explanation

The support agreement must be reviewed after 3 years of its effective date. This ensures that any changes or updates can be made to the agreement to align with the current needs and requirements of the parties involved. Reviewing the agreement after this time period allows for any necessary adjustments to be made and ensures that the agreement remains relevant and effective.

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46. Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

Explanation

Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier 2. This means that the support is provided at the second level of the tiered system. Tier 2 engineering support typically involves more complex and specialized tasks compared to Tier 1 support. It may include troubleshooting, system design, implementation, and maintenance. This level of support is necessary to ensure that the MAJCOMs receive the necessary expertise and technical assistance to effectively manage and operate their cyberspace systems.

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47. Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

Explanation

Requiring additional funding is not considered a cause for requirements to be considered special because it is a common and expected aspect of many projects or initiatives. Special requirements typically refer to unique or specific needs that deviate from the norm, such as requiring services from outside agencies, specific mobility equipment, or additional manpower. However, needing extra funding is a common requirement that can be addressed through budgeting and financial planning, and therefore does not necessarily make the requirements special.

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48. Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?

Explanation

Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet the requirement specifications. When a defect is identified during the project, a change request is submitted to address and fix the issue. This type of change request focuses on rectifying the specific problem and ensuring that the project meets the desired requirements. Preventive action, on the other hand, aims to prevent issues from occurring in the first place, while corrective action addresses broader project issues and deviations from the plan. A status request is simply a request for information about the project's progress.

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49. What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?

Explanation

The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics. This section likely includes information on how to ensure the continued operation and maintenance of communication systems during wartime, including procedures for procurement, transportation, and distribution of necessary equipment and supplies.

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50. Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders. This role ensures that QA personnel are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to carry out their duties effectively. They also coordinate and oversee the implementation of quality assurance programs within an organization, ensuring compliance with standards and regulations. Therefore, the Quality Assurance Program Coordinator is the most suitable choice for providing training to QA personnel and functional directors/commanders.

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51. Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

Explanation

AFI 10-201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.

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52. As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

Explanation

The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because their role primarily focuses on the planning, design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure projects. They are responsible for ensuring that the base's physical facilities are in compliance with regulations and meet the needs of the organization. While they may provide input or support in the review process, the final validation of technical solutions typically falls under the purview of other roles such as project managers or affected work centers.

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53. The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is

Explanation

The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is $1.5 million (M). This means that any construction project with a cost below $1.5 million can be considered a minor project and does not require the use of O&M funds.

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54. In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

Explanation

A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that while the plan provides a detailed understanding of the mission and how it will be executed, it does not go into extensive detail about the specific logistics and mobility aspects that will be required to carry out the plan.

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55. The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for

Explanation

The AF Form 1067 is a document that is used to define, validate, and approve requirements for modifications. It is specifically used for safety modifications, T-1 temporary modifications, and T-2 temporary modifications. However, it is not limited to these types of modifications only. The form is also used for all other temporary and permanent modifications that may be required. Therefore, the correct answer is that the AF Form 1067 is used for all temporary and permanent modifications.

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56. Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

Explanation

The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase". This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the necessary infrastructure, resources, and personnel at the airbase to ensure smooth operations and effective coordination of air support activities. It involves tasks such as constructing facilities, establishing communication networks, and coordinating with command and control units to ensure the airbase is fully operational and ready to generate air support as required.

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57. Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support?

Explanation

The unit plans, planning, and agreements section acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support. This section is responsible for coordinating and managing the unit's plans and agreements, including any design support needed from the CE department. They serve as the central point of contact for any design-related issues or requests within the unit.

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58. Which modifications type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

Explanation

T-2 temporary modifications evaluate, demonstrate, or exercise the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel capabilities. These modifications are specifically designed to assess the functionality and performance of hardware, firmware, and software in a controlled testing environment. Unlike safety modifications or T-1 temporary modifications, which serve different purposes, T-2 modifications focus on the technical and operational aspects of the developmental and test materiel.

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59. Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?

Explanation

The Functional Director/Commander is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR). The COR is responsible for monitoring and overseeing the contractor's performance and ensuring that the terms and conditions of the contract are met. The Functional Director/Commander, being in a leadership position, has the authority to select individuals who possess the necessary expertise and qualifications to effectively fulfill the role of a COR. This ensures that the CORs are equipped to carry out their responsibilities and effectively manage the contract.

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60. Changes are requested during a project using an

Explanation

The AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. This form is specifically designed for requesting changes and is commonly used in the Air Force. It is likely that the other forms listed (AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47) do not have the same purpose or are not commonly used for requesting changes in a project.

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61. Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

Explanation

The work center manager certification and approval is not a step required in the modification proposal process. This step involves the certification and approval from the manager of the work center where the modification is being proposed. However, this step is not necessary in the modification proposal process.

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62. The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-244. This is because AFI 10-244 is the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. AFI stands for Air Force Instruction, which is a directive issued by the United States Air Force to provide guidance and instructions on specific topics. In this case, AFI 10-244 specifically addresses the reporting requirements for the ART system.

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63. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?

Explanation

In the Service Transition stage of ITIL, the framework is created to ensure the smooth and successful implementation of the designed service in the live environment. This stage focuses on planning, building, and testing the service before it is deployed. It involves activities such as change management, release management, and knowledge transfer to ensure that the service is effectively and efficiently transitioned into the operational environment.

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64. Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

Explanation

A time and material contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy. This type of contract allows for flexibility in terms of the scope of work and the duration, as it is based on the actual time spent and materials used. It is typically used when the project requirements are not well-defined or when there is a high level of uncertainty or risk involved. This type of contract ensures that the contractor is compensated for the actual resources expended, but it also puts the burden of managing costs and schedule on the contractor.

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65. In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

Explanation

In the Service Strategy stage of ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's business objectives and customer needs, and then creating a strategic plan to meet those needs through IT services. It involves defining the service portfolio, identifying market opportunities, and developing strategies for delivering and managing services effectively.

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66. Support agreements are documented on

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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67. Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?

Explanation

AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it provides guidance for the use of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). AFI 33-115 does not mention CIPS, and TO 00-33D-3001 and TO 00-33D-3004 are technical orders that do not specifically address the use of CIPS. Therefore, AFI 33-150 is the most relevant guidance for the use of CIPS.

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68. Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?   

Explanation

The correct answer, TO 00-33D-3003, is a technical order that provides information on lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. This document likely contains a comprehensive list of these commands or SPOs, making it a valuable resource for finding this information.

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69. What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?

Explanation

Base Civil Engineering (CE) must prepare and forward DD Form 1391 to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required. This form provides detailed information about the proposed construction project, including the purpose, scope, cost estimates, and funding sources. It is an essential document that helps the MAJCOM assess the feasibility and importance of the project before giving the green light.

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70. Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program?

Explanation

The contracting office is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program. This includes ensuring that the program is in compliance with all relevant regulations and requirements, overseeing the selection and evaluation of contractors, and monitoring the quality of work performed under the contract. The contracting office plays a crucial role in ensuring that the installation's contracts meet the necessary quality standards and that the contractors are held accountable for their performance.

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Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering...
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response...
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force...
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
Who initiates the requirements of deployment sourcing process?
Which of these is not and area measured and reported by Status of...
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and...
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial...
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned...
All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American...
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to...
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to...
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service...
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and...
Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable...
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not...
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an...
Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of...
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the...
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace...
Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an...
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area...
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications...
Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated...
Which of the following funding options does the local communications...
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project...
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful...
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is...
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified...
Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects...
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated...
Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees...
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex,...
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project...
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct...
Which is no a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open...
Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched,...
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager...
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure...
As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its...
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems...
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be...
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a...
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for...
Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA)...
Which document provides detailed information and instructions on...
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and...
The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using...
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation,...
The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving...
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and...
Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or...
Which modifications type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the...
Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional...
Changes are requested during a project using an
Which of the following is not a step required in the modification...
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting...
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to...
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do...
Support agreements are documented on
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning...
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices...
What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM...
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the...
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