CDC Z3dx7x Vol 2
Settings
.
- 1.Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate planning
- B.
Crisis action planning
- C.
Mobilization planning
- D.
Force rotational planning
- 2.Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1
- B.
Volume 2
- C.
Volume 3
- D.
Volume 4
- 3.Who initiates the requirements of deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO)
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM)
- D.
Joint Staff
- 4.Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?
- A.
Standard unit type code (UTC)
- B.
Joint force/capability
- C.
In-Lieu-of (ILO)
- D.
Ad hoc
- 5.Which of these is not and area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Facility condition
- D.
Equipment condition
- 6.Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Home station mission
- D.
Equipment condition
- 7.The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI?
- A.
10-201
- B.
10-244
- C.
10-401
- D.
10-403
- 8.Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10-201
- B.
AFI 10-244
- C.
AFI 10-401
- D.
AFI 10-403
- 9.Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units
- B.
Joint Planners
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET
- 10.Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force protection
- B.
Airfield operations
- C.
Force accountability
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
- 11.The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are
- A.
Force protection and logistics
- B.
Intelligence and force protection
- C.
Secure communications and intelligence
- D.
Secure communications and force accountability
- 12.Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the airbase
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Establish the airbase
- D.
Generate the mission
- 13.Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days
- B.
2 days, 14 days
- C.
7 days, 14 days
- D.
14 days, 30 days
- 14.Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the mission
- B.
Establish the airbase
- C.
Operate the airbase
- D.
Robust the airbase
- 15.The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at
- A.
Scott AFB, IL
- B.
Travis AFB, CA
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ
- 16.What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O-4
- B.
O-5
- C.
O-6
- D.
O-7
- 17.Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment?
- A.
Command and control
- B.
Operate the airbase
- C.
Robust the airbase
- D.
Open the airbase
- 18.In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (km)
- B.
4 km
- C.
8 km
- D.
16 km
- 19.Which is no a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy
- B.
Combat plans
- C.
Combat support
- D.
Combat operations
- 20.Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ-9 Reaper
- B.
RQ-11B Raven
- C.
MQ-1B Predator
- D.
RQ-4B Global Hawk
- 21.Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmissions Systems
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems
- 22.Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES)
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS)
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS)
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
- 23.All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in
- A.
1942
- B.
1958
- C.
1988
- D.
1998
- 24.What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00-33A-1001
- B.
MPTO 00-33A-1002
- C.
MPTO 00-33A-2001
- D.
MPTO 00-33A-2002
- 25.The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support
Back to top