Want To Go Into Air Force? Take This Quiz

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  • 1/70 Questions

    Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

    • Deliberate planning
    • Crisis action planning
    • Mobilization planning
    • Force rotational planning
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About This Quiz

An air force – in the broadest sense – is the national military branch that primarily conducts aerial warfare. More specifically, it is the branch of a nation's armed services that is responsible for aerial warfare as distinct from an army or navy.
The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery (ASVAB) is a multiple choice test, administered by the United States See moreMilitary Entrance Processing Command, used to determine qualification for enlistment in the United States Armed Forces
Take this quiz to prepare for such a test.

Want To Go Into Air Force? Take This Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

    • Volume 1

    • Volume 2

    • Volume 3

    • Volume 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume 1
    Explanation
    Volume 1 provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war.

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  • 3. 

    Who initiates the requirements of deployment sourcing process?

    • Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center

    • Installation Deployment Officer (IDO)

    • Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM)

    • Joint Staff

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
    Explanation
    The AFPC Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements of the deployment sourcing process. This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources. They determine the needs and requirements for deployments and work with other units and agencies to ensure that the necessary personnel and resources are available for deployment.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?

    • Standard unit type code (UTC)

    • Joint force/capability

    • In-Lieu-of (ILO)

    • Ad hoc

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint force/capability
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint force/capability. This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to fulfill the core mission of another service. It is a collaborative effort where different services work together to support each other's missions and ensure the overall success of the operation. This allows for greater flexibility and efficiency in utilizing resources and expertise across different branches of the military.

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  • 5. 

    Which of these is not and area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)?

    • Training

    • Personnel

    • Facility condition

    • Equipment condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Facility condition
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Facility condition. SORTS measures and reports on various areas such as training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not one of the areas measured and reported by SORTS.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

    • Training

    • Personnel

    • Home station mission

    • Equipment condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Home station mission
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures readiness categories to assess the preparedness of the force. These categories include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, the home station mission is not a readiness category measured by ART. This means that ART does not evaluate the readiness of the force based on the mission capabilities at their home station.

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  • 7. 

    The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI?

    • 10-201

    • 10-244

    • 10-401

    • 10-403

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-244
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10-244. This is because AFI 10-244 is the governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. AFI stands for Air Force Instruction, which is a directive issued by the United States Air Force to provide guidance and instructions on specific topics. In this case, AFI 10-244 specifically addresses the reporting requirements for the ART system.

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  • 8. 

    Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

    • AFI 10-201

    • AFI 10-244

    • AFI 10-401

    • AFI 10-403

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 10-201
    Explanation
    AFI 10-201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.

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  • 9. 

    Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

    • Pilot Units

    • Joint Planners

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron

    • Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot Units
    Explanation
    Pilot Units develop logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC). This means that the responsibility lies with the pilot units to plan and organize the necessary logistics support for their operations, ensuring that they have the resources and supplies needed to sustain their activities for a period of 30 days.

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  • 10. 

    Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

    • Force protection

    • Airfield operations

    • Force accountability

    • Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
    Explanation
    Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD) is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module. This means that the module does not have the capability to handle or dispose of explosive ordnance. The other options, force protection, airfield operations, and force accountability, are all initial capabilities of the module, indicating that it is designed to provide these functions.

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  • 11. 

    The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

    • Force protection and logistics

    • Intelligence and force protection

    • Secure communications and intelligence

    • Secure communications and force accountability

    Correct Answer
    A. Secure communications and intelligence
    Explanation
    The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications ensure that information is transmitted safely and confidentially, allowing for effective coordination and decision-making. Intelligence provides crucial information about the operational environment, enemy forces, and potential threats, enabling commanders to make informed decisions and take appropriate actions. Together, secure communications and intelligence form the foundation for establishing control and ensuring successful command and control operations.

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  • 12. 

    Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

    • Robust the airbase

    • Operate the airbase

    • Establish the airbase

    • Generate the mission

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish the airbase
    Explanation
    The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission is "Establish the airbase". This force module is responsible for setting up and organizing the necessary infrastructure, resources, and personnel at the airbase to ensure smooth operations and effective coordination of air support activities. It involves tasks such as constructing facilities, establishing communication networks, and coordinating with command and control units to ensure the airbase is fully operational and ready to generate air support as required.

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  • 13. 

    Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

    • 2 days, 7 days

    • 2 days, 14 days

    • 7 days, 14 days

    • 14 days, 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 days, 14 days
    Explanation
    The airbase force module is estimated to arrive within 2 days after the airbase is opened. The delivery of the module is estimated to be complete within 14 days.

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  • 14. 

    Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

    • Generate the mission

    • Establish the airbase

    • Operate the airbase

    • Robust the airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Robust the airbase
    Explanation
    The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the airbase". This implies that the support forces required for the airbase to operate at full capacity and handle any potential challenges or contingencies would be deployed after the initial establishment of the airbase.

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  • 15. 

    The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

    • Scott AFB, IL

    • Travis AFB, CA

    • Peterson AFB, CO

    • Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ. This is the location of the Contingency Response Wing headquarters.

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  • 16. 

    What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

    • O-4

    • O-5

    • O-6

    • O-7

    Correct Answer
    A. O-6
    Explanation
    The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This means that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant responsibility and leadership roles.

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  • 17. 

    Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment?

    • Command and control

    • Operate the airbase

    • Robust the airbase

    • Open the airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Command and control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Command and control." This force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment. It focuses on coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making within the deployed forces. This module helps maintain control over the operations and facilitates efficient command and control of the deployed forces.

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  • 18. 

    In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

    • 2 kilometers (km)

    • 4 km

    • 8 km

    • 16 km

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 km
    Explanation
    The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km. This means that the NCC-D can effectively control and manage operations at an extended site that is up to 16 km away from the base.

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  • 19. 

    Which is no a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

    • Strategy

    • Combat plans

    • Combat support

    • Combat operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Combat support
    Explanation
    Combat support is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center. The other options, strategy, combat plans, and combat operations, are all divisions that are typically part of the Air and Space Operations Center. Combat support, on the other hand, refers to the various support functions and services provided to the combat forces, such as logistics, transportation, and medical support.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

    • MQ-9 Reaper

    • RQ-11B Raven

    • MQ-1B Predator

    • RQ-4B Global Hawk

    Correct Answer
    A. RQ-11B Raven
    Explanation
    The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS). This can be inferred from the fact that the other options, MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are all larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems. The RQ-11B Raven is known for its small size, lightweight design, and ability to be easily deployed and operated by a small team.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

    • 3D0X3, Cyber Surety

    • 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems

    • 3D1X3, RF Transmissions Systems

    • 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems

    Correct Answer
    A. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety
  • 22. 

    Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?

    • 38 Engineering Squadron (ES)

    • 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS)

    • 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS)

    • 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)

    Correct Answer
    A. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
    Explanation
    The 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS) is the correct answer because it is the only Engineering Installation (EI) unit that has a flight assigned to support a 72 hour rapid response force during a crisis. This flight provides specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis. The other options, 38 Engineering Squadron (ES), 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS), and 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS), do not have the specific capabilities mentioned in the question.

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  • 23. 

    All armed forces Broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

    • 1942

    • 1958

    • 1988

    • 1998

    Correct Answer
    A. 1998
    Explanation
    In 1998, all armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN). This merger brought together the various broadcasting networks of the armed forces, allowing for a more unified and efficient broadcasting system. By consolidating these affiliates, the AFN was able to provide a consistent and reliable source of news, entertainment, and information to members of the armed forces stationed around the world. This merger also helped to streamline operations and reduce duplication of resources, ultimately improving the quality and reach of the broadcasting services provided to military personnel.

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  • 24. 

    What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

    • MPTO 00-33A-1001

    • MPTO 00-33A-1002

    • MPTO 00-33A-2001

    • MPTO 00-33A-2002

    Correct Answer
    A. MPTO 00-33A-1001
  • 25. 

    The five phases of Project Management are initiate,

    • Funding, execute, close, and control

    • Plan, execute, monitor, and control

    • Plan, execute, close, and control

    • Plan, control, close, and support

    Correct Answer
    A. Plan, execute, close, and control
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This sequence represents the typical phases of project management. The first phase involves planning the project, setting objectives, and creating a detailed plan. Then, the project moves into the execution phase where the plan is put into action. After the project is completed, the close phase involves wrapping up loose ends, evaluating the project's success, and documenting lessons learned. Finally, the control phase ensures that the project stays on track, monitors progress, and makes adjustments as necessary.

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  • 26. 

    What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

    • Funding

    • Technical solution

    • Requirements management plan

    • Answers, guidance, and education

    Correct Answer
    A. Answers, guidance, and education
    Explanation
    In the Initiate Phase of a project, the project manager is responsible for providing answers, guidance, and education to the team. This includes addressing any questions or concerns, providing direction and support, and ensuring that team members have the necessary knowledge and resources to begin the project. The project manager plays a crucial role in setting the project up for success by providing the necessary information and support during the initiation phase.

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  • 27. 

    What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

    • Processes

    • Priorities

    • Requirements

    • Technical solutions

    Correct Answer
    A. Requirements
    Explanation
    Source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are referred to as "requirements." These documents outline the specific functionalities, features, and capabilities that the cyberspace infrastructure should possess in order to meet the desired objectives. By defining the requirements, organizations can effectively plan and develop the necessary technical solutions, prioritize tasks, and allocate resources accordingly.

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  • 28. 

    Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

    • Cost management plan

    • Allied support plan

    • Technical plan

    • Material plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Cost management plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Cost management plan. The Project Plan is a comprehensive document that outlines all the necessary information and details about a project. It includes various plans such as the cost management plan, which outlines how the project's costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled. The cost management plan is crucial for ensuring that the project stays within budget and that cost-related risks are effectively managed. The other options, Allied support plan, Technical plan, and Material plan, may also be included in the Project Plan, but the Cost management plan is specifically mentioned in the question.

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  • 29. 

    The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

    • The status

    • A milestone

    • A deliverable

    • The final result

    Correct Answer
    A. A deliverable
    Explanation
    A deliverable is the desired outcome, product, or service of a project. It represents the tangible or intangible result that is expected to be produced at the end of the project. It could be a document, a software application, a physical product, or any other item that is considered valuable and meets the requirements of the project. Deliverables are typically defined and agreed upon at the beginning of the project and serve as a measure of success or completion. They are essential for tracking progress, managing expectations, and ensuring that the project objectives are met.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?

    • Status request

    • Defect repairs

    • Preventive action

    • Corrective action

    Correct Answer
    A. Defect repairs
    Explanation
    Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet the requirement specifications. When a defect is identified during the project, a change request is submitted to address and fix the issue. This type of change request focuses on rectifying the specific problem and ensuring that the project meets the desired requirements. Preventive action, on the other hand, aims to prevent issues from occurring in the first place, while corrective action addresses broader project issues and deviations from the plan. A status request is simply a request for information about the project's progress.

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  • 31. 

    What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

    • AFTO Form 745

    • AFTO Form 747

    • AFTO Form 749

    • AF Form 1747

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 747
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is a document used in the United States Air Force to validate the successful installation of a communications system and mark the end of a project. This form is specifically designed for the purpose of documenting and certifying the completion of maintenance, repairs, or installations of equipment. It serves as a record of the work performed and provides verification that the communications system has been successfully installed and is ready for use.

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  • 32. 

    Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

    • Major

    • Minor

    • Major and minor

    • Major and critical

    Correct Answer
    A. Major
    Explanation
    Major exceptions refer to issues or problems that have a significant impact on the system's ability to meet the specified operational requirements. These exceptions are severe and can cause a major disruption or failure in the system's functionality. Therefore, major exceptions are the most significant and can have a major negative impact on the system's performance and ability to meet the desired requirements.

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  • 33. 

    What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

    • Follow-up

    • Controlling

    • Organization

    • Documenting

    Correct Answer
    A. Follow-up
    Explanation
    Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. By regularly following up with team members, stakeholders, and other relevant parties, project managers can stay informed about the project's status, address any issues or roadblocks promptly, and make necessary adjustments to keep the project on track. Follow-up also helps in monitoring the progress, tracking milestones, and ensuring that tasks are completed as planned. It promotes effective communication, accountability, and proactive management, which are essential for successful project execution.

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  • 34. 

    Changes are requested during a project using an

    • AF Form 1146

    • AF Form 1747

    • AFTO Form 46

    • AFTO Form 47

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1146
    Explanation
    The AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. This form is specifically designed for requesting changes and is commonly used in the Air Force. It is likely that the other forms listed (AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47) do not have the same purpose or are not commonly used for requesting changes in a project.

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  • 35. 

    Who implements a technical solution for a base?

    • Project monitor

    • Project manager

    • Communication squadron

    • Implementing organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Implementing organization
    Explanation
    The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means they are in charge of actually carrying out the necessary actions to put the solution into practice. The project monitor may oversee the progress and ensure that the solution is being implemented correctly, but they do not actually perform the implementation themselves. The project manager is responsible for overall coordination and management of the project, but may not directly implement the technical solution. The communication squadron is unlikely to be directly involved in implementing a technical solution for a base.

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  • 36. 

    What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

    • Project monitor

    • Project manager

    • Program action officer

    • Program action monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Program action officer
    Explanation
    A program action officer is the title given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. This role involves supporting the program manager in various tasks such as coordinating program activities, monitoring progress, and ensuring that actions are taken to achieve program goals. The program action officer works closely with the program manager to ensure the smooth execution of the program and the successful achievement of its objectives.

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  • 37. 

    The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,

    • Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement

    • Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    • Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    • Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement

    Correct Answer
    A. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement". This is because these are the four key stages of the ITIL service life cycle. Service design involves designing new or changed services, service transition involves transitioning services into the live environment, service operation involves managing and delivering the services, and continual service improvement involves continuously improving the services based on feedback and performance metrics. The other options either include incorrect stages or miss out on important stages of the ITIL service life cycle.

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  • 38. 

    In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

    • Service improvement

    • Service transition

    • Service strategy

    • Service design

    Correct Answer
    A. Service strategy
    Explanation
    In the Service Strategy stage of ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's business objectives and customer needs, and then creating a strategic plan to meet those needs through IT services. It involves defining the service portfolio, identifying market opportunities, and developing strategies for delivering and managing services effectively.

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  • 39. 

    In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?

    • Service design

    • Service strategy

    • Service transition

    • Service operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Service transition
    Explanation
    In the Service Transition stage of ITIL, the framework is created to ensure the smooth and successful implementation of the designed service in the live environment. This stage focuses on planning, building, and testing the service before it is deployed. It involves activities such as change management, release management, and knowledge transfer to ensure that the service is effectively and efficiently transitioned into the operational environment.

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  • 40. 

    Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier 2. This means that the support is provided at the second level of the tiered system. Tier 2 engineering support typically involves more complex and specialized tasks compared to Tier 1 support. It may include troubleshooting, system design, implementation, and maintenance. This level of support is necessary to ensure that the MAJCOMs receive the necessary expertise and technical assistance to effectively manage and operate their cyberspace systems.

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  • 41. 

    Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?

    • AFI 33-115

    • AFI 33-150

    • TO 00-33D-3001

    • TO 00-33D-3004

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-150
    Explanation
    AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it provides guidance for the use of the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS). AFI 33-115 does not mention CIPS, and TO 00-33D-3001 and TO 00-33D-3004 are technical orders that do not specifically address the use of CIPS. Therefore, AFI 33-150 is the most relevant guidance for the use of CIPS.

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  • 42. 

    Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less then 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

    • Work orders

    • Trouble tickets

    • Infrastructure requirements

    • Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Work orders
    Explanation
    The functional area that supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order is work orders. Work orders are typically used to request and track maintenance tasks or improvements to the cyberspace infrastructure. They provide a structured process for initiating, tracking, and completing these tasks in a timely manner.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?

    • Organic

    • Contract

    • Inorganic

    • Self-Help

    Correct Answer
    A. Self-Help
    Explanation
    The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of utilizing internal capabilities and resources to address and solve problems without relying on external assistance. In this case, the squadron is using its own resources and support from the base to fund their operations and projects.

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  • 44. 

    Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?  

    • TO 00-33A-1001

    • TO 00-33D-3003

    • Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)

    • Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)

    Correct Answer
    A. TO 00-33D-3003
    Explanation
    The correct answer, TO 00-33D-3003, is a technical order that provides information on lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. This document likely contains a comprehensive list of these commands or SPOs, making it a valuable resource for finding this information.

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  • 45. 

    As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

    • Base Communications Systems Officer

    • Affected Work Center

    • Base Civil Engineer

    • Project Managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Civil Engineer
    Explanation
    The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because their role primarily focuses on the planning, design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure projects. They are responsible for ensuring that the base's physical facilities are in compliance with regulations and meet the needs of the organization. While they may provide input or support in the review process, the final validation of technical solutions typically falls under the purview of other roles such as project managers or affected work centers.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

    • Requires services from outside agencies

    • Mobility (deployment) equipment

    • Requires additional manpower

    • Requires additional funding

    Correct Answer
    A. Requires additional funding
    Explanation
    Requiring additional funding is not considered a cause for requirements to be considered special because it is a common and expected aspect of many projects or initiatives. Special requirements typically refer to unique or specific needs that deviate from the norm, such as requiring services from outside agencies, specific mobility equipment, or additional manpower. However, needing extra funding is a common requirement that can be addressed through budgeting and financial planning, and therefore does not necessarily make the requirements special.

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  • 47. 

    In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

    • Concept Plan

    • Functional Plan

    • Support Plan

    • Operational Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept Plan
    Explanation
    A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that while the plan provides a detailed understanding of the mission and how it will be executed, it does not go into extensive detail about the specific logistics and mobility aspects that will be required to carry out the plan.

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  • 48. 

    When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

    • Concept Plan

    • Functional Plan

    • Supporting Plan

    • Operational Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Supporting Plan
    Explanation
    A supporting plan is prepared in support of contingency plans when tasked by the supported combatant commander. This plan is designed to provide assistance and resources to the main contingency plan, ensuring that it can be effectively executed. The supporting plan outlines the specific actions, resources, and support needed to carry out the contingency plan successfully. It helps to coordinate and synchronize efforts, ensuring that all necessary elements are in place to achieve the desired objectives.

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  • 49. 

    If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the 

    • Programming Plan (PPLAN)

    • Program Action Directive (PAD)

    • Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph

    • Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. This is because when instructions are not detailed enough to require a separate annex, information on base functional area support is included in the major paragraph of the Operations Plan (OPLAN). The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational objectives, tasks, and resources required for a specific mission or operation. Therefore, it is the most appropriate place to include information on base functional area support in the absence of a separate annex.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 15, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 04, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Mailfordad

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