CDC 3C051 Pre-end Of Course (EOC) Preparation Exam

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Pre-EOC test for CDC 3C051


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the first job the basic output system (BIOS) does at start-up?

    • A.

      Run memory byte count

    • B.

      Test for parity errors

    • C.

      Load instructions to random access memory (RAM)

    • D.

      Run the power-on self-test (POST)

    Correct Answer
    D. Run the power-on self-test (POST)
    Explanation
    At start-up, the first job of the basic output system (BIOS) is to run the power-on self-test (POST). The POST is a series of diagnostic tests that the BIOS performs to check if the hardware components of the computer are functioning properly. It checks the processor, memory, storage devices, and other hardware components for any errors or issues. Once the POST is completed successfully, the BIOS proceeds to load instructions to random access memory (RAM) and start the booting process.

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  • 2. 

    Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • A.

      Read-only memory (ROM)

    • B.

      Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • C.

      Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • D.

      Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
    Explanation
    The CMOS is a type of semiconductor that is used to store the BIOS settings in a computer. It is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge because it is a delicate component that can easily be affected by high voltage static electricity. If the CMOS is damaged by electrostatic discharge, it can lead to malfunctioning or failure of the computer's BIOS, which is responsible for controlling the basic functions of the computer.

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  • 3. 

    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

    • A.

      Polling

    • B.

      Signaling

    • C.

      Processing

    • D.

      Multitasking

    Correct Answer
    A. Polling
    Explanation
    Polling refers to the process of actively sampling or checking the status of an external device by a client program. This involves regularly querying the device to determine if it has any new information or requires any action. It is commonly used in computer systems to monitor hardware devices, such as keyboards or printers, and to gather data from them. By polling, the client program can stay updated with the device's status and respond accordingly.

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  • 4. 

    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

    • A.

      Polling

    • B.

      Signaling

    • C.

      Processing

    • D.

      Multitasking

    Correct Answer
    A. Polling
    Explanation
    Polling refers to the act of actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program. It involves regularly checking the device to see if any new data or events have occurred. This method allows the client program to efficiently gather information from the device without having to constantly wait for it to send updates. By polling, the client program can determine when the device is ready to send data or when a specific event has occurred, enabling it to respond accordingly.

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  • 5. 

    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating th need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event in a software application program indicating a need for a change in execution?

    • A.

      Cache

    • B.

      Buffer

    • C.

      Interface

    • D.

      Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    D. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device or a synchronous event in a software program that indicates the need for attention from the CPU or a change in execution. It is a mechanism used by the hardware or software to interrupt the normal flow of execution and divert the CPU's attention to handle the interrupt request. Interrupts are commonly used in computer systems to handle various events such as input/output operations, hardware errors, and timekeeping. They allow for efficient multitasking and responsiveness in computer systems.

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  • 6. 

    What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy controller?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      13

    • E.

      14

    Correct Answer
    B. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. The floppy controller typically uses IRQ line number 6 for interrupt requests. This line is used to signal the CPU that the controller requires attention or data transfer.

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  • 7. 

    The first 640 KB of memory is what division of memory?

    • A.

      Upper

    • B.

      Conventional

    • C.

      High

    • D.

      Extended

    Correct Answer
    B. Conventional
    Explanation
    The first 640 KB of memory is referred to as conventional memory. This division of memory is the portion that is accessible to DOS-based applications in the x86 architecture. It includes the base memory and is used to run the operating system and most applications. The remaining memory beyond the 640 KB limit is divided into other memory divisions such as upper memory, high memory, and extended memory.

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  • 8. 

    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating th need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event in a software application program indicating a need for a change in execution?

    • A.

      Cache

    • B.

      Buffer

    • C.

      Interface

    • D.

      Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    D. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is a signal from a computer hardware device or a synchronous event in a software application program that indicates the need for attention from the CPU or a change in execution. It is a mechanism that allows hardware devices or software programs to communicate with the CPU and request immediate attention or a change in the current execution flow. Interrupts are used to handle time-sensitive tasks, prioritize tasks, and ensure efficient utilization of system resources.

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  • 9. 

    The high memory area is how much of the extended memory area?

    • A.

      The first 64 KB

    • B.

      The first 256 KB

    • C.

      The first 1 MB

    • D.

      The first 2 MB

    Correct Answer
    A. The first 64 KB
    Explanation
    The high memory area refers to the portion of the extended memory area that is located at the top end of the address space. It starts at the address 1 MB and goes up to a certain limit. In this case, the correct answer is the first 64 KB, which means that the high memory area extends from the address 1 MB to 1 MB + 64 KB.

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  • 10. 

    What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy controller?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      13

    • E.

      14

    Correct Answer
    B. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6 because IRQ 6 is typically used for the floppy controller. Interrupt Request (IRQ) lines are used by hardware devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line number, and IRQ 6 is commonly used for the floppy disk controller. This allows the controller to send interrupt signals to the CPU when necessary, such as when a disk operation is completed or when an error occurs.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of RAM holds data without needing to be refreshed as long as power is supplied to them?

    • A.

      Dynamic random access memory (DRAM)

    • B.

      Synchronous dynamic random access memory (SDRAM)

    • C.

      Double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDR SDRAM)

    • D.

      Static random access memory (SRAM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Static random access memory (SRAM)
    Explanation
    SRAM is the correct answer because it is a type of RAM that can hold data without needing to be refreshed as long as power is supplied to it. Unlike DRAM, SDRAM, and DDR SDRAM which require constant refreshing, SRAM uses a flip-flop circuitry to store data, which makes it faster and more reliable. SRAM is commonly used in cache memories and other applications where speed and stability are crucial.

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  • 12. 

    The first 640 KB of memory is what division of memory?

    • A.

      Upper

    • B.

      Conventional

    • C.

      High

    • D.

      Extended

    Correct Answer
    B. Conventional
    Explanation
    The first 640 KB of memory is referred to as "conventional" memory. This division of memory is the lower portion of the memory space and is accessible by most software applications. It is limited to 640 KB due to historical reasons and the design of early PC architectures. The conventional memory is used to store the operating system, device drivers, and other essential software components.

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  • 13. 

    Operating system (OS) nstructions and OS programs are processed into which memory space?

    • A.

      Conventional

    • B.

      Upper

    • C.

      High

    • D.

      Extended

    Correct Answer
    A. Conventional
    Explanation
    Operating system instructions and OS programs are processed into the conventional memory space. Conventional memory refers to the lower memory addresses that are accessible by the processor without the need for any special memory management techniques. It is the first segment of memory that the processor accesses when executing instructions. Therefore, the correct answer is "Conventional".

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  • 14. 

    The high memory area is how much of the extended memory area?

    • A.

      The first 64 KB

    • B.

      The first 256 KB

    • C.

      The first 1 MB

    • D.

      The first 2 MB

    Correct Answer
    A. The first 64 KB
    Explanation
    The high memory area refers to the portion of the extended memory area that is located above the conventional memory area. In this case, the correct answer states that the high memory area is the first 64 KB of the extended memory area. This means that the high memory area starts immediately after the conventional memory area and extends up to 64 KB.

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  • 15. 

    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • A.

      Less than 1000 volts

    • B.

      Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • C.

      More than 15,000 volts

    • D.

      Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 1000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level that is less than 1000 volts.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of RAM holds data without needing to be refreshed as long as power is supplied to them?

    • A.

      Dynamic random access memory (DRAM)

    • B.

      Synchronous dynamic random access memory (SDRAM)

    • C.

      Double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDR SDRAM)

    • D.

      Static random access memory (SRAM)

    Correct Answer
    D. Static random access memory (SRAM)
    Explanation
    SRAM is the correct answer because it is a type of RAM that can hold data without the need for constant refreshing as long as power is supplied to it. Unlike DRAM, SDRAM, and DDR SDRAM, which require periodic refreshing to maintain the stored data, SRAM uses flip-flop circuits to store each bit of data, allowing it to retain information as long as power is provided. This makes SRAM faster and more reliable than other types of RAM, but it is also more expensive and has a lower storage capacity.

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  • 17. 

    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • A.

      Less than 1000 volts

    • B.

      Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • C.

      More than 15,000 volts

    • D.

      Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    B. Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts
    Explanation
    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to voltage levels between 1,000 and 3,999 volts. This means that any voltage below 1,000 volts or above 3,999 volts will not cause damage or interference to the item.

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  • 18. 

    Operating system (OS) nstructions and OS programs are processed into which memory space?

    • A.

      Conventional

    • B.

      Upper

    • C.

      High

    • D.

      Extended

    Correct Answer
    A. Conventional
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Conventional". In a computer system, the conventional memory space refers to the main memory or RAM (Random Access Memory) where the operating system instructions and programs are processed. It is called "conventional" because it is the standard or default memory space used by the operating system. Other memory spaces like upper, high, and extended are used to extend the available memory beyond the limitations of the conventional memory. However, in this case, the operating system instructions and programs are processed in the conventional memory space.

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  • 19. 

    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • A.

      Less than 1000 volts

    • B.

      Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • C.

      More than 15,000 volts

    • D.

      Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    D. Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level between 4,000 and 15,000 volts. This means that if the voltage exceeds 15,000 volts, the item may be damaged or affected by the electrostatic discharge. However, if the voltage is below 4,000 volts, the item is not as sensitive and may not be affected by the discharge. Therefore, the correct answer is "Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts."

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  • 20. 

    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • A.

      Less than 1000 volts

    • B.

      Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • C.

      More than 15,000 volts

    • D.

      Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 1000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level that is less than 1000 volts. This means that any voltage above 1000 volts has the potential to damage or disrupt the functionality of the ESD item. Therefore, it is important to handle and protect Class I ESD items with caution to prevent any voltage discharge that could harm the item.

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  • 21. 

    Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • A.

      Absored

    • B.

      Dissolved

    • C.

      Discharged

    • D.

      Neutralized

    Correct Answer
    C. Discharged
    Explanation
    Static electricity is the accumulation of electric charge on an object. It remains intact until it is discharged, which means the excess charge is released and the object returns to a neutral state. Discharging can occur through various methods such as contact with another object, grounding, or the flow of electric current. Once the static electricity is discharged, the object no longer holds the excess charge and is no longer static.

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  • 22. 

    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • A.

      Less than 1000 volts

    • B.

      Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • C.

      More than 15,000 volts

    • D.

      Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    B. Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts
    Explanation
    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level between 1,000 and 3,999 volts.

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  • 23. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

    • A.

      Define the problem

    • B.

      Isolate the problem

    • C.

      Resolve the problem

    • D.

      Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Define the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step of defining the problem involves identifying and understanding the specific issue or concern that needs to be addressed. This step is crucial because it helps to establish a clear understanding of what needs to be resolved. By defining the problem, one can then proceed to gather more information and determine which conditions or factors are contributing to the issue. This step sets the foundation for effectively troubleshooting and finding a solution.

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  • 24. 

    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • A.

      Less than 1000 volts

    • B.

      Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • C.

      More than 15,000 volts

    • D.

      Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    D. Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to voltage levels between 4,000 and 15,000 volts. This means that if the voltage exceeds 4,000 volts, it can potentially damage or disrupt the functioning of the ESD item. However, if the voltage goes beyond 15,000 volts, it may cause even more severe damage. Therefore, the correct answer is that a Class III ESD item is sensitive to voltage levels between 4,000 and 15,000 volts.

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  • 25. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

    • A.

      Define the problem

    • B.

      Isolate the problem

    • C.

      Resolve the problem

    • D.

      Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    B. Isolate the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step of isolating the problem involves identifying and narrowing down the specific issue or dilemma that needs to be addressed. This step helps to confirm that there is indeed a problem that needs to be resolved. By isolating the problem, one can focus on understanding its root cause and finding the appropriate solution. Once the problem is isolated, the next steps involve resolving the problem and confirming the resolution.

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  • 26. 

    Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • A.

      Absored

    • B.

      Dissolved

    • C.

      Discharged

    • D.

      Neutralized

    Correct Answer
    C. Discharged
    Explanation
    Static electricity is a buildup of electric charge on the surface of an object. It remains intact until it is discharged, meaning that the excess charge is released or transferred to another object. Discharging can occur through various means, such as through contact with a conductive material or through a spark. Once the static electricity is discharged, the object becomes neutral and no longer carries an electric charge.

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  • 27. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

    • A.

      Define the problem

    • B.

      Isolate the problem

    • C.

      Resolve the problem

    • D.

      Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    C. Resolve the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step of resolving the problem involves identifying likely causes and eliminating unlikely causes. This step is crucial as it helps in narrowing down the possible reasons for the problem and focusing on the most probable ones. By eliminating unlikely causes, it saves time and effort by avoiding unnecessary troubleshooting steps. Once the likely causes are identified, further investigation and actions can be taken to resolve the problem effectively.

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  • 28. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

    • A.

      Define the problem

    • B.

      Isolate the problem

    • C.

      Resolve the problem

    • D.

      Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Define the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the first step is to define the problem. This involves gathering information and identifying the symptoms or issues that are occurring. By defining the problem, you can better understand what conditions are present and what factors may be contributing to the problem. This step sets the foundation for the rest of the troubleshooting process, as it helps to narrow down the possible causes and determine the appropriate course of action.

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  • 29. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is supplied?

    • A.

      The keyboard lights should flash

    • B.

      A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • C.

      The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • D.

      The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash
    Explanation
    After initial power is supplied, the next step in the boot up process is usually for the keyboard lights to flash. This is a common indication that the computer is receiving power and initializing its hardware components. It is a preliminary step before the operating system loads into memory and the user interface appears.

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  • 30. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

    • A.

      Define the problem

    • B.

      Isolate the problem

    • C.

      Resolve the problem

    • D.

      Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    B. Isolate the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine if a dilemma actually exists. This step involves identifying and narrowing down the specific issue or cause of the problem. By isolating the problem, you can gather more information, conduct tests, and eliminate any potential false assumptions or unrelated factors. It helps in confirming that there is indeed an issue that needs to be resolved.

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  • 31. 

    Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

    • A.

      HQ USAF/SCX

    • B.

      Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • C.

      Director National Security agency (DIRNSA)

    • D.

      Cryptologic Systems Group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    C. Director National Security agency (DIRNSA)
    Explanation
    The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The National Security Agency (NSA) is a government agency that specializes in signals intelligence and information security. As the director of this agency, it is their duty to oversee the production and management of cryptographic material, which plays a crucial role in protecting sensitive information and ensuring secure communication within the US government.

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  • 32. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

    • A.

      Define the problem

    • B.

      Isolate the problem

    • C.

      Resolve the problem

    • D.

      Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    C. Resolve the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step where you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes is the "Resolve the problem" step. This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the previous steps, such as defining and isolating the problem, to determine the most probable causes of the issue. By systematically eliminating unlikely causes, you can narrow down the possibilities and focus on finding the solution to the problem.

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  • 33. 

    How often is the COMSEC security manager required to inspect COMSEC Responsible Officers (CROs) and COMSEC users?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semi-annually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    C. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The COMSEC security manager is required to inspect COMSEC Responsible Officers (CROs) and COMSEC users semi-annually. This means that the inspections should be conducted twice a year. This frequency allows for regular assessments of the CROs and users to ensure that they are following proper security protocols and procedures. It also allows for timely identification and resolution of any potential security breaches or vulnerabilities. By conducting inspections semi-annually, the COMSEC security manager can maintain an ongoing assessment of the security posture and compliance within the organization.

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  • 34. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is supplied?

    • A.

      The keyboard lights should flash

    • B.

      A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • C.

      The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • D.

      The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash
    Explanation
    After initial power is supplied, the keyboard lights should flash. This is a common indicator that the computer is receiving power and is starting to boot up. It is a basic hardware check that occurs before the operating system loads into memory and the user interface appears. The flashing keyboard lights serve as a visual cue that the computer is in the process of starting up.

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  • 35. 

    What is the logistics system for distributing, controlling, and protecting COMSEC material?

    • A.

      Account database

    • B.

      Communications security material control system (CMCS)

    • C.

      Electronic key management system

    • D.

      User computerized-management of communications security material

    Correct Answer
    B. Communications security material control system (CMCS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Communications security material control system (CMCS). This system is responsible for distributing, controlling, and protecting COMSEC (communications security) material. It ensures that only authorized individuals have access to the material and tracks its movement and usage. CMCS plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information in communication systems.

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  • 36. 

    Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

    • A.

      HQ USAF/SCX

    • B.

      Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • C.

      Director National Security agency (DIRNSA)

    • D.

      Cryptologic Systems Group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    C. Director National Security agency (DIRNSA)
    Explanation
    The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The National Security Agency (NSA) is a government agency that is responsible for signals intelligence and information assurance. As the director of this agency, they oversee the development and implementation of cryptographic systems and protocols to ensure the security of sensitive information and communications.

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  • 37. 

    What is an interdependent group of systems used to automate planning, ordering, generating, distributing, filling, using, and destroying electronic key and manging other types of COMSEC materials?

    • A.

      Account database

    • B.

      Communications security material control system (CMCS)

    • C.

      Electronic key management system

    • D.

      User computerized-management of communications security material

    Correct Answer
    C. Electronic key management system
    Explanation
    An electronic key management system is a group of interdependent systems that automate various processes related to the management of electronic keys and other types of COMSEC (communications security) materials. This includes planning, ordering, generating, distributing, filling, using, and destroying these materials. It is a comprehensive solution that ensures the secure and efficient management of cryptographic keys and other sensitive materials used in communication systems.

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  • 38. 

    How often is the COMSEC security manager required to inspect COMSEC Responsible Officers (CROs) and COMSEC users?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Semi-annually

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    C. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The COMSEC security manager is required to inspect COMSEC Responsible Officers (CROs) and COMSEC users semi-annually. This means that the inspections should be conducted twice a year. This frequency ensures that the security measures and protocols are being followed by the CROs and users to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the communication security systems. Regular inspections help to identify any potential vulnerabilities or non-compliance issues and take corrective actions in a timely manner.

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  • 39. 

    Who oversees and manages the operational use and control of COMSEC material?

    • A.

      COMSEC manager

    • B.

      COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)

    • C.

      COMSEC user

    • D.

      Wing commander

    • E.

      Controlling authority

    Correct Answer
    E. Controlling authority
    Explanation
    The controlling authority is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational use and control of COMSEC material. They have the authority to set policies and procedures, allocate resources, and ensure compliance with COMSEC regulations. They have the ultimate responsibility for the security and protection of COMSEC material and are accountable for its proper use and control.

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  • 40. 

    What is the logistics system for distributing, controlling, and protecting COMSEC material?

    • A.

      Account database

    • B.

      Communications security material control system (CMCS)

    • C.

      Electronic key management system

    • D.

      User computerized-management of communications security material

    Correct Answer
    B. Communications security material control system (CMCS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Communications security material control system (CMCS). This system is responsible for distributing, controlling, and protecting COMSEC material. It ensures that the material is securely managed and only accessible to authorized personnel. The CMCS tracks the movement of the material, maintains inventory records, and enforces security protocols to prevent unauthorized access or loss of sensitive information.

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  • 41. 

    COMSEC material that is inventoried by short title, edition, accunting control number, and quantity falls under which category?

    • A.

      ALC-1

    • B.

      ALC-2

    • C.

      ALC-4

    • D.

      ALC-6

    • E.

      ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC-1
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is inventoried by short title, edition, accounting control number, and quantity falls under the category of ALC-1.

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  • 42. 

    What is an interdependent group of systems used to automate planning, ordering, generating, distributing, filling, using, and destroying electronic key and manging other types of COMSEC materials?

    • A.

      Account database

    • B.

      Communications security material control system (CMCS)

    • C.

      Electronic key management system

    • D.

      User computerized-management of communications security material

    Correct Answer
    C. Electronic key management system
    Explanation
    An electronic key management system is a group of interconnected systems that automate various processes related to the handling of electronic keys and other types of COMSEC materials. This includes planning, ordering, generating, distributing, filling, using, and destroying these materials. The system ensures efficient and secure management of cryptographic keys, which are essential for secure communication and data protection. By automating these processes, an electronic key management system helps organizations maintain the confidentiality and integrity of their communications.

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  • 43. 

    COMSEC material that is inventoried by quantity only falls under which category?

    • A.

      ALC-1

    • B.

      ALC-2

    • C.

      ALC-4

    • D.

      ALC-6

    • E.

      ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    B. ALC-2
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is inventoried by quantity only falls under the ALC-2 category. This means that the material is tracked and accounted for based on the number of items, rather than their specific characteristics or attributes. ALC-2 is specifically designated for inventory management purposes, ensuring that the quantity of COMSEC material is accurately recorded and maintained.

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  • 44. 

    Who oversees and manages the operational use and control of COMSEC material?

    • A.

      COMSEC manager

    • B.

      COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)

    • C.

      COMSEC user

    • D.

      Wing commander

    • E.

      Controlling authority

    Correct Answer
    E. Controlling authority
    Explanation
    The controlling authority is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational use and control of COMSEC material. They have the authority to ensure that proper procedures are followed and that the material is used and controlled in a secure manner. This includes monitoring and enforcing compliance with COMSEC policies and regulations, as well as implementing necessary safeguards to protect sensitive information. The controlling authority plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of COMSEC material.

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  • 45. 

    COMSEC material that is electronically generated keys that are continuously accountable to the COR by means of EKMS elements falls under which category?

    • A.

      ALC-1

    • B.

      ALC-2

    • C.

      ALC-4

    • D.

      ALC-6

    • E.

      ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    D. ALC-6
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is electronically generated keys that are continuously accountable to the COR by means of EKMS elements falls under the ALC-6 category.

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  • 46. 

    COMSEC material that is inventoried by short title, edition, accunting control number, and quantity falls under which category?

    • A.

      ALC-1

    • B.

      ALC-2

    • C.

      ALC-4

    • D.

      ALC-6

    • E.

      ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC-1
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is inventoried by short title, edition, accounting control number, and quantity falls under the category ALC-1.

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  • 47. 

    COMSEC material that is not required to be accounted for on the daily or shift inventory but is accounted for by accounting control number to the COR when transferred or when it is in excess falls under which category?

    • A.

      ALC-1

    • B.

      ALC-2

    • C.

      ALC-4

    • D.

      ALC-6

    • E.

      ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    C. ALC-4
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is not required to be accounted for on the daily or shift inventory but is accounted for by accounting control number to the COR when transferred or when it is in excess falls under the ALC-4 category.

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  • 48. 

    COMSEC material that is inventoried by quantity only falls under which category?

    • A.

      ALC-1

    • B.

      ALC-2

    • C.

      ALC-4

    • D.

      ALC-6

    • E.

      ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    B. ALC-2
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is inventoried by quantity only falls under ALC-2 category.

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  • 49. 

    As a minimum, conduct a back-up routine ____________ each day the User computerized-management of communications security material (UCM2) is used, whether or not transactions are recorded that day.

    • A.

      Once

    • B.

      Twice

    • C.

      Three times

    • D.

      Four times

    Correct Answer
    A. Once
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "once." This means that a back-up routine should be conducted at least once every day that the User computerized-management of communications security material (UCM2) is used, regardless of whether any transactions are recorded that day. This ensures that the security material is regularly backed up and protected in case of any system failures or data loss incidents.

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  • 50. 

    COMSEC material that is electronically generated keys that are continuously accountable to the COR by means of EKMS elements falls under which category?

    • A.

      ALC-1

    • B.

      ALC-2

    • C.

      ALC-4

    • D.

      ALC-6

    • E.

      ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    D. ALC-6
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is electronically generated keys that are continuously accountable to the COR by means of EKMS elements falls under the category ALC-6.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Afronova84
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