CDC 3C051 Pre-end Of Course (EOC) Preparation Exam

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    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

    • Polling
    • Signaling
    • Processing
    • Multitasking
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CDC 3C051 Pre-end Of Course (EOC) Preparation Exam - Quiz
About This Quiz

This CDC 3C051 Pre-End of Course Preparation Exam assesses knowledge on BIOS functions, hardware components like CMOS, and system interrupts. It's designed for professionals aiming to enhance their technical skills in managing and understanding computer hardware operations.

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  • 2. 

    Operating system (OS) nstructions and OS programs are processed into which memory space?

    • Conventional

    • Upper

    • High

    • Extended

    Correct Answer
    A. Conventional
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Conventional". In a computer system, the conventional memory space refers to the main memory or RAM (Random Access Memory) where the operating system instructions and programs are processed. It is called "conventional" because it is the standard or default memory space used by the operating system. Other memory spaces like upper, high, and extended are used to extend the available memory beyond the limitations of the conventional memory. However, in this case, the operating system instructions and programs are processed in the conventional memory space.

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  • 3. 

    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • Less than 1000 volts

    • Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • More than 15,000 volts

    • Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to voltage levels between 4,000 and 15,000 volts. This means that if the voltage exceeds 4,000 volts, it can potentially damage or disrupt the functioning of the ESD item. However, if the voltage goes beyond 15,000 volts, it may cause even more severe damage. Therefore, the correct answer is that a Class III ESD item is sensitive to voltage levels between 4,000 and 15,000 volts.

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  • 4. 

    Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • Absored

    • Dissolved

    • Discharged

    • Neutralized

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharged
    Explanation
    Static electricity is a buildup of electric charge on the surface of an object. It remains intact until it is discharged, meaning that the excess charge is released or transferred to another object. Discharging can occur through various means, such as through contact with a conductive material or through a spark. Once the static electricity is discharged, the object becomes neutral and no longer carries an electric charge.

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  • 5. 

    What is the first job the basic output system (BIOS) does at start-up?

    • Run memory byte count

    • Test for parity errors

    • Load instructions to random access memory (RAM)

    • Run the power-on self-test (POST)

    Correct Answer
    A. Run the power-on self-test (POST)
    Explanation
    At start-up, the first job of the basic output system (BIOS) is to run the power-on self-test (POST). The POST is a series of diagnostic tests that the BIOS performs to check if the hardware components of the computer are functioning properly. It checks the processor, memory, storage devices, and other hardware components for any errors or issues. Once the POST is completed successfully, the BIOS proceeds to load instructions to random access memory (RAM) and start the booting process.

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  • 6. 

    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • Less than 1000 volts

    • Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • More than 15,000 volts

    • Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 1000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level that is less than 1000 volts. This means that any voltage above 1000 volts has the potential to damage or disrupt the functionality of the ESD item. Therefore, it is important to handle and protect Class I ESD items with caution to prevent any voltage discharge that could harm the item.

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  • 7. 

    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • Less than 1000 volts

    • Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • More than 15,000 volts

    • Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts
    Explanation
    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level between 1,000 and 3,999 volts.

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  • 8. 

    As a minimum, conduct a back-up routine ____________ each day the User computerized-management of communications security material (UCM2) is used, whether or not transactions are recorded that day.

    • Once

    • Twice

    • Three times

    • Four times

    Correct Answer
    A. Once
    Explanation
    A back-up routine should be conducted at least once every day that the User computerized-management of communications security material (UCM2) is used, regardless of whether any transactions are recorded that day. This ensures that any changes or updates made to the security material are properly backed up and can be restored if needed. Conducting the back-up routine only once a day is sufficient to maintain the integrity of the security material and minimize the risk of data loss.

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  • 9. 

    At a minimum, how often do you change the combination to a cipher lock?

    • Monthly

    • Quaterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The combination to a cipher lock should be changed frequently to ensure security. Changing it on a monthly basis reduces the risk of unauthorized access and helps maintain the integrity of the lock. By changing the combination regularly, the chances of someone guessing or figuring out the code are minimized. This practice also aligns with security protocols followed in many organizations to protect sensitive information and assets.

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  • 10. 

    What is the preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16?

    • By shelf arrangement

    • By drawer arrangement

    • Alphabetically by edition

    • Alphabetically by short title

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically by short title
    Explanation
    The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the items are organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles. This method allows for easy and efficient retrieval of the materials when needed.

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  • 11. 

    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 6

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous 6 months of inventory. This means that the form is used to keep track of the current month's inventory as well as the inventory from the past 6 months. It is important to retain these inventories for a certain period of time for record-keeping and auditing purposes.

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  • 12. 

    If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager

    • Requests special TDY orders from combat support group (CSGP)

    • Requests special TDY orders from MAJCOM

    • Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone

    • Asks the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message

    Correct Answer
    A. Asks the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message
    Explanation
    In situations where it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance, the COMSEC manager would ask the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message. This method allows the COMSEC manager to obtain the necessary information regarding the user's inventory without the need for physical presence or direct communication. By requesting the user to verify their holdings through written correspondence, the COMSEC manager can ensure that accurate inventory records are maintained despite the distance constraint.

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  • 13. 

    What is the term used when referring to specific (COMSEC) material other than equipment?

    • Aids

    • Entities

    • Supplies

    • Materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Aids
    Explanation
    The term used when referring to specific (COMSEC) material other than equipment is "aids". This term is used to describe any additional resources or tools that assist in the use and protection of COMSEC material. It can include things like manuals, guides, or software programs that aid in the encryption and decryption process.

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  • 14. 

    What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?

    • Carrier

    • Transfer

    • Transport

    • Shipment

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport
    Explanation
    Transport is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of material from one place to another. It implies that someone with an active interest, such as a carrier or a transporter, is involved in the process of moving the material. Transfer suggests movement but does not necessarily imply an active interest, while shipment refers specifically to the act of sending goods.

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  • 15. 

    In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder are destructions certficates filed?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The destruction certificates are filed in the 6-part folder of the COMSEC account.

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  • 16. 

    Who is the final authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions?

    • A doctor at the base medical facility

    • The commander of the unit holding TPC material

    • The COMSEC manager of a unit holding TPC material

    • The wing commander of a unit holding TPC material

    Correct Answer
    A. The commander of the unit holding TPC material
    Explanation
    The final authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions is the commander of the unit holding TPC material. This individual has the ultimate responsibility for ensuring the proper handling and control of sensitive materials, and therefore has the authority to grant access to TPC positions. They have the knowledge and understanding of the specific requirements and protocols associated with TPC, and can make informed decisions regarding who is qualified and trustworthy enough to hold such positions.

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  • 17. 

    What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy controller?

    • 1

    • 6

    • 7

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6 because IRQ 6 is typically used for the floppy controller. Interrupt Request (IRQ) lines are used by hardware devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line number, and IRQ 6 is commonly used for the floppy disk controller. This allows the controller to send interrupt signals to the CPU when necessary, such as when a disk operation is completed or when an error occurs.

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  • 18. 

    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • Less than 1000 volts

    • Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • More than 15,000 volts

    • Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts
    Explanation
    A Class II Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to voltage levels between 1,000 and 3,999 volts. This means that any voltage below 1,000 volts or above 3,999 volts will not cause damage or interference to the item.

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  • 19. 

    Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • Absored

    • Dissolved

    • Discharged

    • Neutralized

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharged
    Explanation
    Static electricity is the accumulation of electric charge on an object. It remains intact until it is discharged, which means the excess charge is released and the object returns to a neutral state. Discharging can occur through various methods such as contact with another object, grounding, or the flow of electric current. Once the static electricity is discharged, the object no longer holds the excess charge and is no longer static.

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  • 20. 

    How often is the COMSEC security manager required to inspect COMSEC Responsible Officers (CROs) and COMSEC users?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The COMSEC security manager is required to inspect COMSEC Responsible Officers (CROs) and COMSEC users semi-annually. This means that the inspections should be conducted twice a year. This frequency ensures that the security measures and protocols are being followed by the CROs and users to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the communication security systems. Regular inspections help to identify any potential vulnerabilities or non-compliance issues and take corrective actions in a timely manner.

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  • 21. 

    The individual who is requiredto use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the

    • User

    • Manager

    • Account manager

    • Responsible officer

    Correct Answer
    A. User
    Explanation
    The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the user. This means that they are responsible for properly utilizing and protecting communication security equipment and materials in their role. They are expected to follow protocols and guidelines to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information.

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  • 22. 

    Disposition records and/or destrction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

    • NATO forces

    • Transient aircrews

    • Base COMSEC account itself

    • Joint military operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Transient aircrews
    Explanation
    Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. Transient aircrews refer to personnel who are temporarily stationed at a particular base or location for a short period of time. Since they are not permanent members of the base or organization, there is no need to maintain records or reports for the material issued to them.

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  • 23. 

    What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single SF 153?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 24. 

    Which AF form do COMSEC managers use when conducting an inspection of a sub COMSEC account?

    • 3215

    • 3718

    • 4160

    • 4500

    Correct Answer
    A. 4160
    Explanation
    COMSEC managers use AF form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sub COMSEC account.

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  • 25. 

    What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure?

    • Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS)

    • Combat integrated systems

    • Theater deployable communications (TDC)

    • Integrated communications access package (ICAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Theater deployable communications (TDC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). TDC refers to a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure that can be easily deployed in a theater of operations. It provides reliable and secure communications capabilities for military forces, allowing them to communicate effectively and coordinate their operations. TDC systems are designed to be flexible, scalable, and interoperable, enabling seamless communication between different units and platforms. This infrastructure plays a crucial role in modern military operations, ensuring that commanders have the necessary communication tools to make informed decisions and execute missions successfully.

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  • 26. 

    Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • Read-only memory (ROM)

    • Basic input output system (BIOS)

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS)
    Explanation
    The CMOS is a type of semiconductor that is used to store the BIOS settings in a computer. It is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge because it is a delicate component that can easily be affected by high voltage static electricity. If the CMOS is damaged by electrostatic discharge, it can lead to malfunctioning or failure of the computer's BIOS, which is responsible for controlling the basic functions of the computer.

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  • 27. 

    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating th need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event in a software application program indicating a need for a change in execution?

    • Cache

    • Buffer

    • Interface

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is a signal from a computer hardware device or a synchronous event in a software application program that indicates the need for attention from the CPU or a change in execution. It is a mechanism that allows hardware devices or software programs to communicate with the CPU and request immediate attention or a change in the current execution flow. Interrupts are used to handle time-sensitive tasks, prioritize tasks, and ensure efficient utilization of system resources.

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  • 28. 

    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating th need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event in a software application program indicating a need for a change in execution?

    • Cache

    • Buffer

    • Interface

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device or a synchronous event in a software program that indicates the need for attention from the CPU or a change in execution. It is a mechanism used by the hardware or software to interrupt the normal flow of execution and divert the CPU's attention to handle the interrupt request. Interrupts are commonly used in computer systems to handle various events such as input/output operations, hardware errors, and timekeeping. They allow for efficient multitasking and responsiveness in computer systems.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of RAM holds data without needing to be refreshed as long as power is supplied to them?

    • Dynamic random access memory (DRAM)

    • Synchronous dynamic random access memory (SDRAM)

    • Double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDR SDRAM)

    • Static random access memory (SRAM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Static random access memory (SRAM)
    Explanation
    SRAM is the correct answer because it is a type of RAM that can hold data without the need for constant refreshing as long as power is supplied to it. Unlike DRAM, SDRAM, and DDR SDRAM, which require periodic refreshing to maintain the stored data, SRAM uses flip-flop circuits to store each bit of data, allowing it to retain information as long as power is provided. This makes SRAM faster and more reliable than other types of RAM, but it is also more expensive and has a lower storage capacity.

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  • 30. 

    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • Less than 1000 volts

    • Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • More than 15,000 volts

    • Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class III Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level between 4,000 and 15,000 volts. This means that if the voltage exceeds 15,000 volts, the item may be damaged or affected by the electrostatic discharge. However, if the voltage is below 4,000 volts, the item is not as sensitive and may not be affected by the discharge. Therefore, the correct answer is "Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts."

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  • 31. 

    Who oversees and manages the operational use and control of COMSEC material?

    • COMSEC manager

    • COMSEC responsible officer (CRO)

    • COMSEC user

    • Wing commander

    • Controlling authority

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlling authority
    Explanation
    The controlling authority is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational use and control of COMSEC material. They have the authority to ensure that proper procedures are followed and that the material is used and controlled in a secure manner. This includes monitoring and enforcing compliance with COMSEC policies and regulations, as well as implementing necessary safeguards to protect sensitive information. The controlling authority plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of COMSEC material.

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  • 32. 

    What is the preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16?

    • By shelf arrangement

    • By drawer arrangement

    • Alphabetically by edition

    • Alphabetically by short title

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically by short title
    Explanation
    The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized and listed in alphabetical order based on their short titles. This method allows for easy and efficient retrieval of the materials as they can be quickly located by their short titles.

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  • 33. 

    Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

    • AFCOMSEC Form 14

    • AFCOMSEC Form 23

    • SF 153

    • SF 701

    Correct Answer
    A. AFCOMSEC Form 14
    Explanation
    The next unused voucher number that is used on transfer reports comes from AFCOMSEC Form 14.

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  • 34. 

    Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAPs) on base?

    • COMSEC manager

    • CRO

    • Unit commander

    • MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    A. COMSEC manager
    Explanation
    The COMSEC manager is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAPs) on base. This is because the COMSEC manager is in charge of managing and safeguarding communication security measures, including emergency protocols. They are responsible for ensuring that the EAPs are properly developed, implemented, and maintained to protect sensitive information and respond effectively to emergencies. The other options, such as CRO (Combat Rescue Officer), Unit commander, and MAJCOM (Major Command), may have certain responsibilities in emergency situations, but the COMSEC manager holds the overall responsibility for EAPs.

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  • 35. 

    What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?

    • Deployment

    • Re-deployment

    • Predeployment

    • Reconstitution

    Correct Answer
    A. Predeployment
    Explanation
    The phase concerned with exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment is called predeployment. This phase occurs before the actual deployment and involves practicing and training to ensure that all personnel are prepared and knowledgeable about the deployment process and the equipment they will be using. This phase helps to minimize any potential issues or challenges that may arise during the deployment and ensures that everyone is fully prepared for the mission.

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  • 36. 

    What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communications networks?

    • Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS)

    • Combat integrated systems

    • Theater deployable communications (TDC)

    • Integrated communications access package (ICAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated communications access package (ICAP)
    Explanation
    The term "Integrated communications access package (ICAP)" refers to a suite of modules and accessory kits that form the foundation of deployed communications networks. This package includes various components and tools that are essential for establishing and maintaining effective communication within a network. ICAP serves as a comprehensive solution for ensuring seamless connectivity and efficient communication in various operational environments.

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  • 37. 

    The high memory area is how much of the extended memory area?

    • The first 64 KB

    • The first 256 KB

    • The first 1 MB

    • The first 2 MB

    Correct Answer
    A. The first 64 KB
    Explanation
    The high memory area refers to the portion of the extended memory area that is located above the conventional memory area. In this case, the correct answer states that the high memory area is the first 64 KB of the extended memory area. This means that the high memory area starts immediately after the conventional memory area and extends up to 64 KB.

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  • 38. 

    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is senstive to what level of voltage?

    • Less than 1000 volts

    • Between 1,000 but less than 3,999 volts

    • More than 15,000 volts

    • Between 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 1000 volts
    Explanation
    A Class I Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) item is sensitive to a voltage level that is less than 1000 volts.

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  • 39. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is supplied?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash
    Explanation
    After initial power is supplied, the keyboard lights should flash. This is a common indicator that the computer is receiving power and is starting to boot up. It is a basic hardware check that occurs before the operating system loads into memory and the user interface appears. The flashing keyboard lights serve as a visual cue that the computer is in the process of starting up.

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  • 40. 

    Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)

    • Director National Security agency (DIRNSA)

    • Cryptologic Systems Group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Director National Security agency (DIRNSA)
    Explanation
    The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The National Security Agency (NSA) is a government agency that is responsible for signals intelligence and information assurance. As the director of this agency, they oversee the development and implementation of cryptographic systems and protocols to ensure the security of sensitive information and communications.

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  • 41. 

    COMSEC material that is inventoried by short title, edition, accunting control number, and quantity falls under which category?

    • ALC-1

    • ALC-2

    • ALC-4

    • ALC-6

    • ALC-7

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC-1
    Explanation
    COMSEC material that is inventoried by short title, edition, accounting control number, and quantity falls under the category ALC-1.

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  • 42. 

    What is the term used when referring to specific (COMSEC) material other than equipment?

    • Aids

    • Entities

    • Supplies

    • Materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Aids
    Explanation
    The term used when referring to specific (COMSEC) material other than equipment is "Aids." This term encompasses any additional tools or resources that support the use and protection of COMSEC material, such as key lists, codebooks, or cryptographic algorithms. It is important to differentiate between equipment and aids, as aids are not physical devices but rather informational or instructional materials that assist in the proper handling and safeguarding of COMSEC material.

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  • 43. 

    Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?

    • DIRNSA

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • AFCA

    • CPSG

    Correct Answer
    A. CPSG
    Explanation
    CPSG, which stands for Communications Security Policy Group, establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number.

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  • 44. 

    What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy controller?

    • 1

    • 6

    • 7

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. The floppy controller typically uses IRQ line number 6 for interrupt requests. This line is used to signal the CPU that the controller requires attention or data transfer.

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  • 45. 

    Which form is considered a daily physical security inventory of your environment?

    • SF 700

    • SF 701

    • SF 702

    • SF 703

    • AF Form 1109

    Correct Answer
    A. SF 701
    Explanation
    SF 701 is considered a daily physical security inventory of your environment. This form is used to record the results of a daily inspection of security containers and vaults to ensure that they are properly secured and all security measures are in place. It helps to maintain the physical security of the environment by ensuring that all necessary precautions are taken to protect sensitive information and assets.

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  • 46. 

    In which phase does the CRO check material issued against the list on the SF 153?

    • Protection

    • Preparation

    • Distribution

    • Administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Distribution
    Explanation
    In the distribution phase, the CRO checks the material issued against the list on the SF 153. This phase involves the actual delivery of the material to the intended recipients. The CRO ensures that the correct items are being distributed and matches them against the list provided on the SF 153 to ensure accuracy and accountability.

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  • 47. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is supplied?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash
    Explanation
    After initial power is supplied, the next step in the boot up process is usually for the keyboard lights to flash. This is a common indication that the computer is receiving power and initializing its hardware components. It is a preliminary step before the operating system loads into memory and the user interface appears.

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  • 48. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolve the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step where you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes is the "Resolve the problem" step. This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the previous steps, such as defining and isolating the problem, to determine the most probable causes of the issue. By systematically eliminating unlikely causes, you can narrow down the possibilities and focus on finding the solution to the problem.

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  • 49. 

    If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager

    • Requests special TDY orders from combat support group (CSGP)

    • Requests special TDY orders from MAJCOM

    • Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone

    • Asks the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message

    Correct Answer
    A. Asks the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message
    Explanation
    If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the COMSEC manager asks the user to verify his or her holdings by letter or message. This is the most practical solution in a situation where a physical inventory is not feasible due to distance constraints. By requesting the user to verify their holdings through a letter or message, the COMSEC manager can still ensure that the inventory is conducted accurately and securely, even if they cannot physically be present.

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  • Mar 19, 2023
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  • Jan 29, 2010
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