3C051 Vol 1 UREs

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  • 1/75 Questions

    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

    • Polling.
    • Signaling.
    • Processing.
    • Multitasking.
Please wait...
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3C051 VOL 1 URES', assesses foundational knowledge in computer systems, focusing on BIOS, CMOS, ROM, and other critical components. It is designed to test understanding of system start-up processes, memory types, and configuration preservation, essential for IT professionals.

3C051 Vol 1 UREs - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirm the resolution.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, it is important to confirm the resolution by reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed. This step helps to verify that the issue has been fully resolved and that all necessary actions have been taken. By confirming the resolution, it helps to prevent any potential recurrence of the problem and provides assurance that the troubleshooting process has been thorough and effective.

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  • 3. 

    Normally the last step in the boot up process is

    • The keyboard lights should flash.

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor.

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
    Explanation
    The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage of the startup sequence where the OS takes control of the computer's resources and prepares it for user interaction. The keyboard lights flashing, memory test on the monitor, and the hard disk drive access light coming on are all earlier steps in the boot up process.

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  • 4. 

    What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s start up instructions?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input output system (BIOS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BIOS. BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's start-up instructions. It is responsible for initializing and configuring hardware components during the boot process. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory, but only BIOS specifically refers to the start-up instructions.

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  • 5. 

    What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?

    • Event evaluation.

    • Power-on-self-test (POST)

    • Process investigation

    • Analytical consideration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power-on-self-test (POST)
    Explanation
    The Power-on-self-test (POST) is a diagnostic procedure that runs automatically when a computer is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the central processing unit (CPU) to ensure they are functioning properly. Therefore, the POST is specifically designed to detect if there is a hardware problem with the CPU. Event evaluation, process investigation, and analytical consideration may be methods to troubleshoot various computer issues, but they do not specifically target CPU hardware problems like the POST does.

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  • 6. 

    What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

    • Not classified.

    • Always classified for official use only (FOUO).

    • Always classified confidential.

    • Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.

    Correct Answer
    A. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified based on the highest level of classification of the materials stored inside the container. Regardless of the specific classification of the container itself, the combination ensures that the contents are protected at the highest level of classification.

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  • 7. 

    What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold?

    • SSgt

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • Capt

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt
    Explanation
    Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This rank is typically assigned to non-commissioned officers in the military. As a CRO, the individual is responsible for managing and implementing communication security measures to protect sensitive information and ensure secure communication channels. The rank of SSgt indicates that the individual has the necessary experience, knowledge, and skills to fulfill this role effectively.

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  • 8. 

    What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?

    • Deployment

    • Re-deployment

    • Predeployment

    • Reconstitution

    Correct Answer
    A. Predeployment
    Explanation
    The phase concerned with exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment is called predeployment. This phase involves conducting training exercises and drills to prepare individuals for the actual deployment, ensuring that they understand the procedures and are proficient in using the necessary equipment. It is crucial to have this phase to minimize any potential issues or challenges during the actual deployment.

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  • 9. 

    What component initializes communication with all the hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

    • Read- only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic input output system (BIOS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all the hardware devices in a computer system, including the keyboard and mouse. If a keyboard or mouse is not found during the initialization process, the BIOS will send a message indicating the absence of these devices. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory storage and do not have the specific function of initializing hardware devices or detecting the absence of a keyboard or mouse.

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  • 10. 

    Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • Absorbed

    • Dissolved.

    • Discharged.

    • Neutralized.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharged.
    Explanation
    Static electricity is the accumulation of electric charges on an object. These charges remain intact until they are discharged, meaning that they are released or transferred to another object or the ground. Discharging static electricity is important to prevent potential hazards, such as electric shocks or damage to electronic devices. Therefore, the correct answer is "Discharged."

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  • 11. 

    When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

    • Review the schematic diagram for errors.

    • Make a complete drawing of all the components.

    • Call the manufacture and speak to customer service.

    • Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.

    Correct Answer
    A. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.
    Explanation
    One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This allows for easy visual identification and organization of the cables, making it easier to track and troubleshoot any issues that may arise. The other options, such as reviewing the schematic diagram, making a complete drawing of all the components, or calling the manufacturer's customer service, may be helpful in certain situations but are not as straightforward and practical as using masking tape.

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  • 12. 

    What is the first job the basic input output system (BIOS) does at start-up?

    • Run memory byte count.

    • Test for parity errors.

    • Load instructions to random access memory (RAM).

    • Run the power-on self-test.

    Correct Answer
    A. Run the power-on self-test.
    Explanation
    At start-up, the BIOS performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check the hardware components of the computer and ensure they are functioning properly. This includes testing the CPU, memory, and other essential components. Running the power-on self-test is the first job of the BIOS as it is crucial to verify the system's integrity before proceeding with the boot process.

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  • 13. 

    What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Cache.

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache.
    Explanation
    Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. It is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to retrieve them quickly. Cache improves overall system performance by reducing the time it takes to access data from main memory. It acts as a buffer between the CPU and main memory, providing faster access to frequently used data and instructions. Therefore, cache is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 14. 

    Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III. This means that they are moderately sensitive to electrostatic discharge (ESD). This category indicates that precautions need to be taken to prevent ESD damage, but the sensitivity level is not as high as category IV.

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  • 15. 

    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

    • Cache.

    • Buffer.

    • Interface.

    • Interrupt.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interrupt.
    Explanation
    An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU, indicating that it needs attention. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous. Asynchronous means that the interrupt can occur at any time, independent of the CPU's current operation. This allows devices to request immediate attention from the CPU. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it fits the description given in the question.

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  • 16. 

    What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

    • Asynchronous.

    • Parity bit.

    • Interrupt.

    • Fault.

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity bit.
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a technique used to check data integrity. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the transmitted data can be detected, as any discrepancy in the number of 1s will indicate a data corruption. Therefore, the use of a parity bit is a method of checking data integrity.

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  • 17. 

    What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?

    • Ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device.

    • Check the relative humidity level

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device.

    • Turn the power switch to the off position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn the power switch to the off position.
    Explanation
    When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device, the first step to take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no power running through the circuit, reducing the risk of electrical shock or damage to the device. By turning off the power switch, you create a safe environment to proceed with the installation or removal process without any electrical interference.

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  • 18. 

    Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?

    • Manpower and equipment monitor.

    • Manager of deployable communications.

    • Unit deployment manager and commander.

    • Initial communications support monitor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit deployment manager and commander.
    Explanation
    In order to address any predeployment shortfalls, it is important to notify the unit deployment manager and commander immediately. These individuals are responsible for overseeing the deployment process and ensuring that all necessary resources, including manpower and equipment, are available and ready for deployment. By informing them of any shortfalls, they can take appropriate action to rectify the situation and ensure a successful deployment.

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  • 19. 

    What measure would you take to prevent the buildup of static electricity?

    • Ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device.

    • Check the relative humidity level.

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device.

    • Turn the power switch to the off position.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device.
    Explanation
    To prevent the buildup of static electricity, using a ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device is the most effective measure. This device helps to safely dissipate any static charges that may accumulate, reducing the risk of damage to electronic components. Checking the relative humidity level can also be helpful as higher humidity levels can help to minimize static electricity. Disconnecting the circuit from the device and turning the power switch to the off position may be necessary in certain situations, but they do not directly address the prevention of static electricity buildup.

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  • 20. 

    The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

    • Fault isolation.

    • Event evaluation.

    • Process investigation.

    • Analytical consideration.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation.
    Explanation
    Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and resolving the cause of an operational failure. It involves collecting and analyzing data to determine the root cause of the failure and develop strategies to prevent its recurrence. This process aims to isolate the fault or problem and find a solution to fix it. Therefore, fault isolation is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process described in the question.

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  • 21. 

    What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?

    • Mobility

    • Survivability

    • Interoperability

    • Open system standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Survivability
    Explanation
    Survivability is the characteristic that requires equipment to be capable of operation and maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear. This means that the equipment is designed to withstand and continue functioning in hazardous environments, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the personnel using it.

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  • 22. 

    What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

    • Mobility

    • Survivability

    • Interoperability

    • Open system standards

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobility
    Explanation
    The characteristic of theater deployable communications (TDC) that requires equipment setup times to be kept to a minimum is mobility. In a deployed environment, it is crucial for TDC equipment to be easily transportable and quickly set up to support communication needs. This allows for efficient transportation, deployment, and operations in dynamic and often time-sensitive situations.

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  • 23. 

    What is considered a nonvolatile permanent memory?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Read-only memory (ROM).
    Explanation
    ROM is considered a nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its stored data even when the power is turned off. Unlike other types of memory, ROM cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations, making it a permanent storage solution. This makes it ideal for storing important system instructions, such as the BIOS or firmware, which need to be accessed every time the computer is turned on. CMOS and EEPROM are also nonvolatile memories, but they are not necessarily permanent as they can be modified or erased.

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  • 24. 

    What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

    • Voltage.

    • Amperage

    • Conductivity

    • Electrostatic discharge.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrostatic discharge.
    Explanation
    Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs when two objects at different electrical potentials come into contact. This discharge can happen due to a build-up of static electricity and can result in a spark or a small electric shock. Voltage is a measure of the electrical potential difference between two points, not the actual flow of current. Amperage refers to the strength of an electric current. Conductivity is the ability of a material to conduct electric current. Therefore, the correct answer is electrostatic discharge.

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  • 25. 

    Under what class of electrostatic discharged (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    Class I ESD sensitivity refers to items that are sensitive to voltages between 0 and 999 volts. Since the item in question is sensitive to 900 volts, it falls within this class.

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  • 26. 

    Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
    Explanation
    The CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) component is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology that is commonly used in computer systems. It is sensitive to static electricity, which can cause permanent damage to the component if not handled properly. Therefore, precautions should be taken to prevent electrostatic discharge when working with CMOS components.

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  • 27. 

    Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

    • Read-only memory (ROM).

    • Basic input output system (BIOS).

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
    Explanation
    The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is a small chip on the motherboard that stores the BIOS settings and system configuration information. The lithium battery ensures that this information is retained even when the computer is powered off or unplugged.

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  • 28. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot process after initial power is applied?

    • The keyboard lights should flash.

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor.

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash.
    Explanation
    After initial power is applied, the next step in the boot process is typically for the keyboard lights to flash. This is a common indication that the computer is performing a power-on self-test (POST) to check the functionality of the keyboard. It is an early step in the boot process before the operating system is loaded into memory and the user interface appears.

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  • 29. 

    What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?

    • By shelf arrangement.

    • By drawer arrangement.

    • Alphabetically by edition.

    • Alphabetically by short title.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically by short title.
    Explanation
    The preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials are organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles, making it easier to locate specific items quickly and efficiently.

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  • 30. 

    Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

    • Driver.

    • Parity bit.

    • Data integrity.

    • Error correction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Data integrity.
    Explanation
    Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains whole and complete, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. This term is used to describe the state of data where it is reliable and can be trusted for its intended purpose. Therefore, data integrity is the correct answer for the question.

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  • 31. 

    This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.

    • Accounting legend code (ALC)-1.

    • ALC-2

    • ALC-3

    • ALC-4

    Correct Answer
    A. Accounting legend code (ALC)-1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Accounting legend code (ALC)-1 because it states that this code requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. This implies that ALC-1 is the highest level of security and requires the strictest measures for accounting and control of the communications security material.

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  • 32. 

    This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity.

    • Accounting legend code (ALC)-1.

    • ALC-2

    • ALC-3

    • ALC-4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC-2
    Explanation
    The given correct answer, ALC-2, suggests that the communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity. This means that the material is being tracked and monitored consistently to ensure that the quantity of the material remains accurate and accounted for. ALC-2 indicates a specific method or process of accounting for the COMSEC material, which involves continuous monitoring and tracking.

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  • 33. 

    What is the term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment?

    • Aids

    • Entities

    • Supplies

    • Materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Aids
    Explanation
    The term "aids" is used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment. This can include things like manuals, guides, or reference materials that assist in the proper use and maintenance of COMSEC equipment. These aids provide additional support and information to ensure the secure communication of sensitive information.

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  • 34. 

    What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ lines are used to prioritize and handle various hardware interrupts in a computer system. Each device or component is assigned a specific IRQ line to ensure efficient communication and coordination. In the case of the floppy disk controller, IRQ line 6 is commonly used to handle its interrupt requests.

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  • 35. 

    The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the

    • User

    • Manager

    • Account Manager

    • Responsible Officer

    Correct Answer
    A. User
    Explanation
    The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the User. This person is responsible for properly utilizing and protecting COMSEC equipment and materials in order to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of communications. They must follow established protocols and procedures to ensure the security of sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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  • 36. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor.

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.

    • The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.

    Correct Answer
    A. A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
    Explanation
    After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot process is usually a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the computer's RAM (random access memory) for any errors or issues. It is an important step in ensuring the stability and functionality of the computer system before the operating system loads into memory and the user interface appears. The flashing of keyboard lights and the brief coming on of the hard disk drive access light are not typically the immediate next steps in the boot process.

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  • 37. 

    On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

    • Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

    • Cache.

    • Double Data Random Access Memory (DDRAM).

    • Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache.
    Explanation
    Cache is a type of memory that is commonly found in most modern computers. It is used to store frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing for faster access compared to other levels of memory. While computers may also have other types of memory such as CMOS, DDRAM, and EEPROM, these are not specifically mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be determined as the correct answer.

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  • 38. 

    Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

    • Interrupt.

    • Parity bit.

    • Asynchronous.

    • Data integrity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity bit.
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data transmission. It is a single bit added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit at the receiving end, errors in the transmitted data can be detected. This is a straightforward and basic method of error detection, making it a very simple example of an error detecting code. Interrupt, asynchronous, and data integrity are not specifically error detecting codes, hence they are not the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Define the problem.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the first step is to define the problem. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issue or symptom that needs to be addressed. By defining the problem, you can gather information, analyze the situation, and determine the conditions that are present. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the subsequent steps of troubleshooting, such as isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.

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  • 40. 

    At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    • Bi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    Changing a cipher lock combination on a monthly basis ensures a higher level of security. By changing the combination frequently, the risk of unauthorized access or someone guessing the code is reduced. This practice also allows for better control and tracking of who has access to the lock, as the combination can be updated regularly to reflect any changes in personnel or access permissions.

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  • 41. 

    Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory.

    • 1

    • 3

    • 6

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous six months of inventory. This means that the inventory records are kept for a total of six months, including the current month. This allows for tracking and monitoring of communication security equipment and materials over a reasonable period of time, ensuring that any discrepancies or issues can be identified and addressed promptly.

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  • 42. 

    What should each communications security responsible officer (CRO) do before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt?

    • Check the COMSEC manager’s clearance status.

    • Check to see if the effective dates of material are correct

    • Check the user’s clearance to ensure they are authorized to utilize the material.

    • Ensure the required COMESC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure the required COMESC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue.
    Explanation
    Before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt, the communications security responsible officer (CRO) should ensure that the required COMSEC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue. This means verifying that all the necessary materials are accounted for and available for use. This step is crucial to ensure that the proper security measures are in place and that the authorized individuals have access to the necessary COMSEC material. Checking the COMSEC manager's clearance status, the effective dates of material, and the user's clearance are also important steps, but the most important action is to ensure that the required material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue.

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  • 43. 

    Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

    • North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) forces.

    • Transient aircrews.

    • Base communications security (COMSEC) account itself.

    • Joint military operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transient aircrews.
    Explanation
    Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. This is because transient aircrews are not permanently stationed at a base or location, and they are only temporarily assigned to carry out specific missions or tasks. Therefore, there is no need to keep records or reports of the material issued to them, as they will return it or pass it on to the next crew after completing their assignment.

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  • 44. 

    What is the maximum number of different actions that be accomplished on a single Standard Form (SF) 153?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Standard Form (SF) 153 is 1. This means that there is only one action that can be performed on this form, and no other actions are possible.

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  • 45. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolve the problem.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step of resolving the problem involves identifying likely causes and eliminating unlikely causes. This step is crucial as it helps to narrow down the possible reasons for the problem and focus on finding the most probable solution. By eliminating unlikely causes, it saves time and effort by directing attention towards the more likely sources of the problem. Once the problem is resolved, further steps such as confirming the resolution can be taken to ensure that the issue has been fully addressed.

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  • 46. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

    • Define the problem.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Resolve the problem.

    • Confirm the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate the problem.
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine whether a dilemma actually exists. This step involves systematically narrowing down the possible causes of the issue by eliminating potential factors one by one. By isolating the problem, you can identify the specific component or factor that is causing the dilemma, which then allows you to move forward with finding a resolution. This step is crucial in troubleshooting as it helps to ensure that the identified problem is indeed the root cause and not a symptom of a larger issue.

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  • 47. 

    To ensure communications sercurity officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and account for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semi-annually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually.
    Explanation
    The COMSEC manager is responsible for inspecting the accounts of communications security officers (CRO) to ensure compliance with directives and proper handling of communications security (COMSEC) material. The frequency of these inspections is specified as "semi-annually," meaning they should be conducted twice a year. This regular inspection schedule helps to maintain the security and accountability of COMSEC material within the organization.

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  • 48. 

    Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?

    • Failure to respond.

    • Withdrawn form use.

    • Long delay in pickup.

    • Cryptographic incident.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptographic incident.
    Explanation
    Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident. This means that if someone fails to adhere to an urgent message that requires the use of cryptographic measures, it could result in a violation. Cryptographic incidents involve breaches or failures related to the security and encryption of information, which is crucial in protecting sensitive data.

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  • 49. 

    In which phase does the communications security (COMSEC) manager determine which materials the communications security responsible (CRO) officer needs?

    • Protection

    • Preparation

    • Distribution

    • Administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Preparation
    Explanation
    In the preparation phase, the communications security (COMSEC) manager assesses the specific materials required by the communications security responsible (CRO) officer. This involves identifying the necessary tools, equipment, and resources needed to ensure secure communications. The COMSEC manager's role is to gather and provide the CRO officer with the appropriate materials to effectively carry out their responsibilities in safeguarding communication channels.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Apr 3, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Apr 03, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 09, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Bkay08

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