3C051 Vol 1 UREs

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1. Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

Explanation

Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as polling. This involves regularly checking the device for any updates or changes in its status. It is a common method used to gather information from external devices in a client-server architecture. Signaling refers to the process of sending and receiving signals between different components or processes. Processing refers to the manipulation or transformation of data. Multitasking refers to the ability of a system to execute multiple tasks simultaneously.

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About This Quiz
3C051 Vol 1 UREs - Quiz

This quiz, titled '3C051 VOL 1 URES', assesses foundational knowledge in computer systems, focusing on BIOS, CMOS, ROM, and other critical components. It is designed to test understanding... see moreof system start-up processes, memory types, and configuration preservation, essential for IT professionals. see less

2. In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, it is important to confirm the resolution by reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed. This step helps to verify that the issue has been fully resolved and that all necessary actions have been taken. By confirming the resolution, it helps to prevent any potential recurrence of the problem and provides assurance that the troubleshooting process has been thorough and effective.

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3. Normally the last step in the boot up process is

Explanation

The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage of the startup sequence where the OS takes control of the computer's resources and prepares it for user interaction. The keyboard lights flashing, memory test on the monitor, and the hard disk drive access light coming on are all earlier steps in the boot up process.

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4. What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s start up instructions?

Explanation

The correct answer is BIOS. BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's start-up instructions. It is responsible for initializing and configuring hardware components during the boot process. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory, but only BIOS specifically refers to the start-up instructions.

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5. What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist?

Explanation

The Power-on-self-test (POST) is a diagnostic procedure that runs automatically when a computer is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the central processing unit (CPU) to ensure they are functioning properly. Therefore, the POST is specifically designed to detect if there is a hardware problem with the CPU. Event evaluation, process investigation, and analytical consideration may be methods to troubleshoot various computer issues, but they do not specifically target CPU hardware problems like the POST does.

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6. What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified based on the highest level of classification of the materials stored inside the container. Regardless of the specific classification of the container itself, the combination ensures that the contents are protected at the highest level of classification.

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7. What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?

Explanation

The phase concerned with exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment is called predeployment. This phase involves conducting training exercises and drills to prepare individuals for the actual deployment, ensuring that they understand the procedures and are proficient in using the necessary equipment. It is crucial to have this phase to minimize any potential issues or challenges during the actual deployment.

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8. What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold?

Explanation

Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This rank is typically assigned to non-commissioned officers in the military. As a CRO, the individual is responsible for managing and implementing communication security measures to protect sensitive information and ensure secure communication channels. The rank of SSgt indicates that the individual has the necessary experience, knowledge, and skills to fulfill this role effectively.

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9. What component initializes communication with all the hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

Explanation

The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all the hardware devices in a computer system, including the keyboard and mouse. If a keyboard or mouse is not found during the initialization process, the BIOS will send a message indicating the absence of these devices. ROM, CMOS, and EEPROM are all types of memory storage and do not have the specific function of initializing hardware devices or detecting the absence of a keyboard or mouse.

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10. Static electricity remains intact until it is

Explanation

Static electricity is the accumulation of electric charges on an object. These charges remain intact until they are discharged, meaning that they are released or transferred to another object or the ground. Discharging static electricity is important to prevent potential hazards, such as electric shocks or damage to electronic devices. Therefore, the correct answer is "Discharged."

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11. When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

Explanation

One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This allows for easy visual identification and organization of the cables, making it easier to track and troubleshoot any issues that may arise. The other options, such as reviewing the schematic diagram, making a complete drawing of all the components, or calling the manufacturer's customer service, may be helpful in certain situations but are not as straightforward and practical as using masking tape.

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12. What is the first job the basic input output system (BIOS) does at start-up?

Explanation

At start-up, the BIOS performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check the hardware components of the computer and ensure they are functioning properly. This includes testing the CPU, memory, and other essential components. Running the power-on self-test is the first job of the BIOS as it is crucial to verify the system's integrity before proceeding with the boot process.

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13. What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

Explanation

Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. It is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to retrieve them quickly. Cache improves overall system performance by reducing the time it takes to access data from main memory. It acts as a buffer between the CPU and main memory, providing faster access to frequently used data and instructions. Therefore, cache is the correct answer for this question.

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14. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category

Explanation

Items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III. This means that they are moderately sensitive to electrostatic discharge (ESD). This category indicates that precautions need to be taken to prevent ESD damage, but the sensitivity level is not as high as category IV.

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15. Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?

Explanation

In order to address any predeployment shortfalls, it is important to notify the unit deployment manager and commander immediately. These individuals are responsible for overseeing the deployment process and ensuring that all necessary resources, including manpower and equipment, are available and ready for deployment. By informing them of any shortfalls, they can take appropriate action to rectify the situation and ensure a successful deployment.

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16. What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

Explanation

An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU, indicating that it needs attention. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous. Asynchronous means that the interrupt can occur at any time, independent of the CPU's current operation. This allows devices to request immediate attention from the CPU. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it fits the description given in the question.

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17. What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

Explanation

A parity bit is a technique used to check data integrity. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the transmitted data can be detected, as any discrepancy in the number of 1s will indicate a data corruption. Therefore, the use of a parity bit is a method of checking data integrity.

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18. What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?

Explanation

When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device, the first step to take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that there is no power running through the circuit, reducing the risk of electrical shock or damage to the device. By turning off the power switch, you create a safe environment to proceed with the installation or removal process without any electrical interference.

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19. What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?

Explanation

Survivability is the characteristic that requires equipment to be capable of operation and maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear. This means that the equipment is designed to withstand and continue functioning in hazardous environments, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the personnel using it.

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20. What measure would you take to prevent the buildup of static electricity?

Explanation

To prevent the buildup of static electricity, using a ground electrostatic discharge sensitivity (ESDS) device is the most effective measure. This device helps to safely dissipate any static charges that may accumulate, reducing the risk of damage to electronic components. Checking the relative humidity level can also be helpful as higher humidity levels can help to minimize static electricity. Disconnecting the circuit from the device and turning the power switch to the off position may be necessary in certain situations, but they do not directly address the prevention of static electricity buildup.

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21. The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

Explanation

Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and resolving the cause of an operational failure. It involves collecting and analyzing data to determine the root cause of the failure and develop strategies to prevent its recurrence. This process aims to isolate the fault or problem and find a solution to fix it. Therefore, fault isolation is the correct answer as it accurately describes the process described in the question.

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22. What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

Explanation

The characteristic of theater deployable communications (TDC) that requires equipment setup times to be kept to a minimum is mobility. In a deployed environment, it is crucial for TDC equipment to be easily transportable and quickly set up to support communication needs. This allows for efficient transportation, deployment, and operations in dynamic and often time-sensitive situations.

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23. What is considered a nonvolatile permanent memory?

Explanation

ROM is considered a nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its stored data even when the power is turned off. Unlike other types of memory, ROM cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations, making it a permanent storage solution. This makes it ideal for storing important system instructions, such as the BIOS or firmware, which need to be accessed every time the computer is turned on. CMOS and EEPROM are also nonvolatile memories, but they are not necessarily permanent as they can be modified or erased.

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24. What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?

Explanation

Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs when two objects at different electrical potentials come into contact. This discharge can happen due to a build-up of static electricity and can result in a spark or a small electric shock. Voltage is a measure of the electrical potential difference between two points, not the actual flow of current. Amperage refers to the strength of an electric current. Conductivity is the ability of a material to conduct electric current. Therefore, the correct answer is electrostatic discharge.

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25. Under what class of electrostatic discharged (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?

Explanation

Class I ESD sensitivity refers to items that are sensitive to voltages between 0 and 999 volts. Since the item in question is sensitive to 900 volts, it falls within this class.

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26. Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

Explanation

The CMOS (Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) component is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS is a type of integrated circuit technology that is commonly used in computer systems. It is sensitive to static electricity, which can cause permanent damage to the component if not handled properly. Therefore, precautions should be taken to prevent electrostatic discharge when working with CMOS components.

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27. Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

Explanation

The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. CMOS is a small chip on the motherboard that stores the BIOS settings and system configuration information. The lithium battery ensures that this information is retained even when the computer is powered off or unplugged.

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28. What is normally the next step in the boot process after initial power is applied?

Explanation

After initial power is applied, the next step in the boot process is typically for the keyboard lights to flash. This is a common indication that the computer is performing a power-on self-test (POST) to check the functionality of the keyboard. It is an early step in the boot process before the operating system is loaded into memory and the user interface appears.

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29. What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?

Explanation

The preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials are organized in alphabetical order based on their short titles, making it easier to locate specific items quickly and efficiently.

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30. What is the term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment?

Explanation

The term "aids" is used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment. This can include things like manuals, guides, or reference materials that assist in the proper use and maintenance of COMSEC equipment. These aids provide additional support and information to ensure the secure communication of sensitive information.

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31. Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains whole and complete, without any unauthorized modifications or corruption. This term is used to describe the state of data where it is reliable and can be trusted for its intended purpose. Therefore, data integrity is the correct answer for the question.

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32. This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.

Explanation

The correct answer is Accounting legend code (ALC)-1 because it states that this code requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. This implies that ALC-1 is the highest level of security and requires the strictest measures for accounting and control of the communications security material.

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33. This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity.

Explanation

The given correct answer, ALC-2, suggests that the communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity. This means that the material is being tracked and monitored consistently to ensure that the quantity of the material remains accurate and accounted for. ALC-2 indicates a specific method or process of accounting for the COMSEC material, which involves continuous monitoring and tracking.

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34. The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the

Explanation

The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the User. This person is responsible for properly utilizing and protecting COMSEC equipment and materials in order to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of communications. They must follow established protocols and procedures to ensure the security of sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

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35. What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Explanation

The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6. IRQ lines are used to prioritize and handle various hardware interrupts in a computer system. Each device or component is assigned a specific IRQ line to ensure efficient communication and coordination. In the case of the floppy disk controller, IRQ line 6 is commonly used to handle its interrupt requests.

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36. What is normally the next step in the boot process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?

Explanation

After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot process is usually a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the computer's RAM (random access memory) for any errors or issues. It is an important step in ensuring the stability and functionality of the computer system before the operating system loads into memory and the user interface appears. The flashing of keyboard lights and the brief coming on of the hard disk drive access light are not typically the immediate next steps in the boot process.

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37. What should each communications security responsible officer (CRO) do before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt?

Explanation

Before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt, the communications security responsible officer (CRO) should ensure that the required COMSEC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue. This means verifying that all the necessary materials are accounted for and available for use. This step is crucial to ensure that the proper security measures are in place and that the authorized individuals have access to the necessary COMSEC material. Checking the COMSEC manager's clearance status, the effective dates of material, and the user's clearance are also important steps, but the most important action is to ensure that the required material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue.

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38. Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

Explanation

Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. This is because transient aircrews are not permanently stationed at a base or location, and they are only temporarily assigned to carry out specific missions or tasks. Therefore, there is no need to keep records or reports of the material issued to them, as they will return it or pass it on to the next crew after completing their assignment.

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39. What is the maximum number of different actions that be accomplished on a single Standard Form (SF) 153?

Explanation

The maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Standard Form (SF) 153 is 1. This means that there is only one action that can be performed on this form, and no other actions are possible.

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40. On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

Explanation

Cache is a type of memory that is commonly found in most modern computers. It is used to store frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing for faster access compared to other levels of memory. While computers may also have other types of memory such as CMOS, DDRAM, and EEPROM, these are not specifically mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be determined as the correct answer.

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41. Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in data transmission. It is a single bit added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit at the receiving end, errors in the transmitted data can be detected. This is a straightforward and basic method of error detection, making it a very simple example of an error detecting code. Interrupt, asynchronous, and data integrity are not specifically error detecting codes, hence they are not the correct answer.

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42. In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, the first step is to define the problem. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issue or symptom that needs to be addressed. By defining the problem, you can gather information, analyze the situation, and determine the conditions that are present. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the subsequent steps of troubleshooting, such as isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.

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43. At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

Explanation

Changing a cipher lock combination on a monthly basis ensures a higher level of security. By changing the combination frequently, the risk of unauthorized access or someone guessing the code is reduced. This practice also allows for better control and tracking of who has access to the lock, as the combination can be updated regularly to reflect any changes in personnel or access permissions.

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44. Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory.

Explanation

AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous six months of inventory. This means that the inventory records are kept for a total of six months, including the current month. This allows for tracking and monitoring of communication security equipment and materials over a reasonable period of time, ensuring that any discrepancies or issues can be identified and addressed promptly.

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45. In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, the step of resolving the problem involves identifying likely causes and eliminating unlikely causes. This step is crucial as it helps to narrow down the possible reasons for the problem and focus on finding the most probable solution. By eliminating unlikely causes, it saves time and effort by directing attention towards the more likely sources of the problem. Once the problem is resolved, further steps such as confirming the resolution can be taken to ensure that the issue has been fully addressed.

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46. Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?

Explanation

Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident. This means that if someone fails to adhere to an urgent message that requires the use of cryptographic measures, it could result in a violation. Cryptographic incidents involve breaches or failures related to the security and encryption of information, which is crucial in protecting sensitive data.

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47. In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine whether a dilemma actually exists. This step involves systematically narrowing down the possible causes of the issue by eliminating potential factors one by one. By isolating the problem, you can identify the specific component or factor that is causing the dilemma, which then allows you to move forward with finding a resolution. This step is crucial in troubleshooting as it helps to ensure that the identified problem is indeed the root cause and not a symptom of a larger issue.

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48. To ensure communications sercurity officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and account for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

Explanation

The COMSEC manager is responsible for inspecting the accounts of communications security officers (CRO) to ensure compliance with directives and proper handling of communications security (COMSEC) material. The frequency of these inspections is specified as "semi-annually," meaning they should be conducted twice a year. This regular inspection schedule helps to maintain the security and accountability of COMSEC material within the organization.

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49. In which phase does the communications security (COMSEC) manager determine which materials the communications security responsible (CRO) officer needs?

Explanation

In the preparation phase, the communications security (COMSEC) manager assesses the specific materials required by the communications security responsible (CRO) officer. This involves identifying the necessary tools, equipment, and resources needed to ensure secure communications. The COMSEC manager's role is to gather and provide the CRO officer with the appropriate materials to effectively carry out their responsibilities in safeguarding communication channels.

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50. What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure?

Explanation

Theater deployable communications (TDC) is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure. TDC refers to a system that is specifically designed to be quickly deployed and provide reliable communication capabilities in a theater of operations. It is a comprehensive package that includes various components such as satellite terminals, radios, network equipment, and software applications. TDC enables effective and secure communication between different units and command centers, enhancing situational awareness and coordination in military operations.

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51. What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC) material?

Explanation

Standard Form (SF) 153 is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC) material.

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52. Which Air Force form do communications security managers (CM) use when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4160. Communications security managers (CM) in the Air Force use the Air Force form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account. This form is specifically designed to document the details of the inspection and ensure that all necessary information is recorded accurately. It helps the CM to assess the security measures in place for the COMSEC account and identify any potential vulnerabilities or areas for improvement.

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53. In which folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?

Explanation

In the 6-part folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account, destruction certificates are filed in folder 6.

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54. Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

Explanation

The Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The NSA is an intelligence agency that specializes in signals intelligence and information assurance, and it plays a crucial role in safeguarding national security by developing and implementing cryptographic systems. As the head of the NSA, the DIRNSA has the authority and responsibility to oversee the production and management of cryptographic material, ensuring its effectiveness and security.

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55. In which phase does the communications responsible officer (CRO) check the material issued agIn which phase does the communications responsible officer (CRO) check the material issued against the list on the Standard Form (SF) 153.

Explanation

In the distribution phase, the communications responsible officer (CRO) checks the material issued against the list on the Standard Form (SF) 153. This phase involves the actual dissemination of the material to the intended recipients. The CRO ensures that the correct materials are being distributed according to the list provided on the SF 153, thereby ensuring proper communication and information flow within the organization or project.

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56. What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in the material?

Explanation

Transport is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of material from one place to another. It implies that someone with an active interest, such as a person or a company, is involved in the process of moving the material. Transport can involve various modes such as road, rail, air, or sea, and it is an essential component of logistics and supply chain management.

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57. What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of locking drawer when you change a safe combination?

Explanation

When changing a safe combination, the form that needs to be filled out and affixed to the inside of the locking drawer is the Standard Form (SF) 700.

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58. Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Communications security (COMSEC) manager. The COMSEC manager is responsible for overseeing and managing the security of communication systems and information. They have the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified, ensuring that any exceptions to standard security protocols are necessary and in line with the mission objectives. The unit commander and wing commander may have authority in other areas but not specifically for approving COMSEC waivers.

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59. This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment.

Explanation

The correct answer is SF701. The SF701 form is a daily physical security inventory form that is used to keep track of the inventory and condition of security equipment in a specific environment. It is a standard form that helps ensure that all necessary security measures are in place and functioning properly on a daily basis. This form is important for maintaining the security and safety of the environment.

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60. Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

Explanation

The next unused voucher number used on transfer reports comes from the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.

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61.  Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number?

Explanation

The Cryptologic support group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number. This means that they determine when the inventory of COMSEC items should be conducted, ensuring that all necessary security measures are in place and that the inventory is carried out regularly. The other options, Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA), HQ USAF/SCX, and Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA), do not have the specific responsibility of establishing the inventory date for COMSEC accounts.

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62. After receiving their initial educations in communications security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer’s (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?

Explanation

Communications security responsible officers (CRO) must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This means that they need to undergo training once every year to stay updated on the latest practices and procedures in communications security. This ensures that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively manage their account and maintain the security of communication systems. Quarterly, semi-annually, and bi-annually are incorrect as they suggest a more frequent or less frequent training schedule, which may not be sufficient to keep up with the evolving nature of communications security.

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63. Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base?

Explanation

The correct answer is Communications security manager (CM). The Communications Security Manager is responsible for developing and implementing emergency action plans (EAP) on base. They are in charge of ensuring that all communication systems and protocols are secure and that proper procedures are in place in case of emergencies. The CM works closely with other base personnel, such as the Unit Commander and Major Command, to coordinate and execute emergency response efforts.

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64. This communications security (COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory.

Explanation

The given answer, ALC-4, suggests that this communications security (COMSEC) material does not need to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory. This indicates that ALC-4 is a code or designation used to categorize certain types of COMSEC material that do not require regular inventory tracking. It is likely that ALC-4 materials have a lower level of importance or sensitivity compared to ALC-1, ALC-2, and ALC-3 materials, which may require more stringent tracking and control measures.

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65. How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises?

Explanation

The written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises should be maintained for 24 months. This is necessary to ensure that the documentation is readily available for reference and evaluation purposes. By keeping the documentation for this period, organizations can track their progress, identify areas for improvement, and maintain compliance with regulations and standards.

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66. What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communication standards?

Explanation

The correct answer is open system standards. This characteristic reflects the module architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) that comply with established international or commercial communication standards. Open system standards ensure that the TDC modules can seamlessly integrate and communicate with other systems and devices that also adhere to these standards. This allows for interoperability and compatibility between different communication systems, promoting efficient and effective communication in theater deployments.

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67. What is used for generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards?

Explanation

A Certification Authority (CA) workstation is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards. A CA workstation is responsible for issuing and managing digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the identities of users and devices in a network. It is also responsible for generating and distributing cryptographic keys, which are necessary for secure communication and data encryption. The CA workstation plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of a network by managing the keying material and certificates required for secure communication.

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68. Whenever communications security (COMSEC) material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message?

Explanation

The Cryptologic systems group (CSGP) develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message when communications security (COMSEC) material needs to be replaced or amended immediately.

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69. The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by

Explanation

A controlling authority is responsible for overseeing and managing the operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material. This authority ensures that proper protocols and procedures are followed to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access. They have the authority to enforce security measures, conduct audits, and ensure compliance with regulations and policies related to COMSEC. The controlling authority plays a crucial role in maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of communication systems and information.

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70. If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager

Explanation

The correct answer is "requests special temporary duty (TDY) orders from combat support Group (CSGP)." In situations where it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager would request special TDY orders from the combat support Group (CSGP) to address the issue. This would allow the manager to travel to the location of the user and conduct the inventory in person.

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71. Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions?

Explanation

The wing commander of a unit holding TPC material is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions. This means that the wing commander has the ultimate authority to approve or deny individuals from accessing TPC material. This ensures that only authorized personnel are granted access to sensitive information or equipment, and helps to maintain the security and integrity of TPC operations within the unit.

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72. What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO) accounts?

Explanation

The maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO) accounts is 2 months. This means that CRO accounts should conduct EAP exercises at least every 2 months to ensure preparedness and effectiveness in handling emergencies. Regular exercises help to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the plan and allow for necessary updates or improvements to be made. By conducting exercises every 2 months, CRO accounts can maintain a high level of readiness and ensure that their emergency response capabilities are well-practiced and up to date.

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73. Who provides flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

Explanation

Initial communications support teams provide the flow of mission critical information to field units and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. These teams are responsible for establishing and maintaining communication networks, ensuring that vital information can be transmitted and received effectively. They play a crucial role in ensuring that communication channels are operational and reliable, allowing for effective coordination and decision-making during contingency operations.

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74. What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communication networks?

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). This refers to a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone of deployed communication networks. These systems are designed to be easily transportable and quickly set up in various theater environments, enabling effective communication between military personnel in the field.

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75. Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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