Basic Input Output System(BIOS) Quizzes

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Saywhom
S
Saywhom
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 2,282
| Attempts: 2,282 | Questions: 70
Please wait...
Question 1 / 70
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1.
Static electricity remains intact until it is

Explanation

Static electricity is a buildup of electric charge on the surface of an object. This charge remains intact until it is discharged, meaning that the excess electrons are transferred to another object or the ground. Discharging the static electricity helps to balance the charges and eliminate the buildup of electrical potential.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Basic Input Output System(BIOS) Quizzes - Quiz

Explore the foundational elements of BIOS, including its roles, components like CMOS, and memory types such as ROM and SRAM.

2.
In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

Explanation

After resolving the problem, it is important to review the case history and assure that no steps were missed. This step is crucial to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved and that all necessary actions have been taken. By confirming the resolution, it helps to prevent any recurring issues and provides a comprehensive understanding of the problem-solving process.

Submit
3.
Normally the last step in the boot up process is

Explanation

The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage where the computer is fully initialized and ready for the user to interact with. The other options mentioned are steps that may occur earlier in the boot up process, but the loading of the OS and the appearance of the user interface signify that the boot up process is complete.

Submit
4.
What is the first job the Basic Input Output System(BIOS) does at start-up?

Explanation

At start-up, the BIOS first runs the power-on-self-test (POST). This test checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning properly. It checks the processor, memory, and other essential components. If any issues are detected during the POST, the BIOS will typically display an error message or beep code to indicate the problem. The POST is crucial for ensuring that the computer is in a stable and functional state before proceeding with the boot process.

Submit
5.
Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

Explanation

The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor and it is a type of memory chip that stores the computer's BIOS settings. It uses a lithium battery to maintain these settings even when the power is removed from the computer. ROM (Read-Only Memory) is a type of memory that stores permanent instructions and data, but it does not use a lithium battery. BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is firmware that initializes the hardware and software during the boot process, but it does not use a lithium battery. EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) is a type of memory that can be erased and reprogrammed, but it does not use a lithium battery.

Submit
6.
What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

Explanation

ROM (Read-Only Memory) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It contains firmware or software instructions that are permanently stored during the manufacturing process and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is commonly used to store the computer's initial boot-up instructions and other essential system software.

Submit
7.
What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

Explanation

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices in a computer system. It is the firmware that is stored in ROM (Read-Only Memory) and is responsible for performing the power-on self-test (POST) during the boot process. If a keyboard or mouse is not found during the POST, the BIOS will send an error message indicating the issue.

Submit
8.
In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, the step of defining the problem involves gathering information and identifying the symptoms or conditions that are present. This step helps in understanding the nature of the problem and determining the specific conditions that need to be addressed. By defining the problem, you can then move on to the next steps of troubleshooting, such as isolating and resolving the problem, and confirming the resolution.

Submit
9.
Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

Explanation

The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS is a type of semiconductor technology used in computer chips and other electronic devices. It is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge, which is the sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical potentials. This discharge can occur when a person touches a component or device without properly grounding themselves, causing a surge of electricity that can damage the CMOS chip. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS components with caution and take proper electrostatic discharge precautions to prevent damage.

Submit
10.
What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

Explanation

The correct answer is BIOS. BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System and is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing the hardware components of the computer during the boot process. It also provides the interface between the operating system and the computer's hardware, allowing the operating system to communicate with the hardware devices.

Submit
11.
What static RAM(SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

Explanation

Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of computer memory that stores data using a flip-flop circuitry, allowing for faster access compared to dynamic RAM (DRAM). SRAM is commonly used in various applications in a CPU, but it is particularly used for cache memory. Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve them without accessing the slower main memory. This helps to improve the overall performance of the CPU by reducing the time it takes to access data. Therefore, the correct answer is Cache.

Submit
12.
Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that the data is complete, whole, and uncorrupted. Data integrity measures include validation rules, checksums, and error detection and correction techniques, which help to maintain the integrity of the data and prevent any loss or corruption. Therefore, data integrity is the term that describes that data is whole or complete.

Submit
13.
Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?

Explanation

A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a translator between the operating system and the hardware, allowing the operating system to communicate with and control the hardware. The driver provides the necessary instructions and protocols for the operating system to correctly utilize the hardware device.

Submit
14.
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit(CPU) or a synchronous event?

Explanation

An interrupt is a signal from a computer hardware device that indicates the need for attention from the CPU. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous. Asynchronous means that the interrupt can occur at any time and is not synchronized with the CPU's clock. This allows the hardware device to request attention from the CPU whenever it needs it. Synchronous events, on the other hand, are synchronized with the CPU's clock and occur at specific times. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it encompasses both asynchronous and synchronous signals.

Submit
15.
What can detect if central processing unit hardware problems exist?

Explanation

POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, which is a diagnostic test that the computer performs on itself every time it is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the central processing unit (CPU) to ensure that they are functioning properly. Therefore, POST is the correct answer as it can detect if CPU hardware problems exist.

Submit
16.
In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting step of "Resolve the problem," you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the previous steps to determine the root cause of the problem. By identifying and eliminating potential causes, you can narrow down the possibilities and focus on finding the most effective solution.

Submit
17.
What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

Explanation

A parity bit is a technique used to check data integrity. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the data can be detected, such as if a bit has been flipped during transmission. This helps to ensure that the data received is accurate and has not been corrupted.

Submit
18.
Electrostatic discharge(ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category

Explanation

Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items that are sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III.

Submit
19.
What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity?

Explanation

To prevent the build up of static electricity, grounding the ESDS (Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive) device is necessary. Grounding helps to dissipate any static charges that may accumulate on the device, preventing potential damage or disruption caused by electrostatic discharge. Checking the relative humidity level may be important for certain environments, but it may not directly address the issue of static electricity build up. Disconnecting the circuit from the device and turning the power switch off may help in some cases, but grounding the ESDS device is the most effective measure to prevent static electricity build up.

Submit
20.
What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified according to the highest level of classification of the materials stored inside the container. This ensures that the container remains secure and that access to the materials is restricted to only those with the appropriate clearance level.

Submit
21.
In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine if there is indeed a dilemma or issue. This step involves gathering information, conducting tests, and analyzing the symptoms to identify the root cause of the problem. Once the problem has been isolated, further steps can be taken to resolve it.

Submit
22.
What rank must primary communications security responsible officers(CRO) hold?

Explanation

The correct answer is SSgt because primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) typically hold the rank of Staff Sergeant. This rank is appropriate for individuals who are responsible for managing and implementing communications security protocols and procedures.

Submit
23.
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

Explanation

Polling is the process of actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program. It involves regularly checking the device to see if it has any new data or information available. This method allows the client program to stay updated and respond accordingly based on the current state of the external device.

Submit
24.
The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called?

Explanation

Fault isolation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring. This process involves identifying the specific component or system that is responsible for the failure and implementing measures to isolate and address the issue. Fault isolation is an important step in troubleshooting and improving the reliability and performance of systems.

Submit
25.
When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

Explanation

One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This can help to visually distinguish between different cables and ensure that they are correctly connected. It is a practical and effective way to keep track of the cables and their connections during the troubleshooting process.

Submit
26.
What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at CRO accounts?

Explanation

The maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at CRO accounts is 6 months. This means that CRO accounts are required to conduct EAP exercises at least once every 6 months. This ensures that the emergency response procedures and protocols are regularly practiced and updated, allowing for effective emergency preparedness and response in case of any unforeseen events or emergencies.

Submit
27.
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the BIOS message appears on the monitor?

Explanation

After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot up process is usually a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the integrity and functionality of the computer's memory modules. It ensures that the memory is functioning properly before the operating system is loaded into memory and the user interface appears.

Submit
28.
On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

Explanation

Cache is the correct answer because most modern computers have two or three levels of memory, with cache being one of them. Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the computer to access them quickly. It acts as a buffer between the processor and the main memory, improving overall system performance. CMOS, DDRAM, and EEPROM are types of memory, but they are not specifically associated with the levels of memory in modern computers.

Submit
29.
Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

Explanation

The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The NSA is the primary agency responsible for signals intelligence and information assurance for the United States. As such, the Director of the NSA has the authority and oversight to manage cryptographic material and ensure its security and effectiveness in protecting classified information.

Submit
30.
What interrupt request(IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Explanation

The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6 for interrupt requests. This is the specific line that is used to signal the CPU when the controller needs attention or when data transfer is complete. By using this IRQ line, the controller can effectively communicate with the CPU and ensure smooth operation of the floppy disk drive.

Submit
31.
AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

Explanation

AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous 6 months of inventory. This means that the form includes a record of the current month's inventory as well as the inventory from the past 6 months. This allows for a more comprehensive and accurate record of the inventory over time.

Submit
32.
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code. It is a single bit added to a binary code to detect errors during transmission. The parity bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the code. If the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 0, making the total number of 1s even. If the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1, making the total number of 1s odd. During transmission, the receiver checks the parity bit and if it doesn't match the expected parity, an error is detected.

Submit
33.
Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?

Explanation

The correct answer is COMSEC Manager. The COMSEC Manager is the person who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the communication security (COMSEC) program within an organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess whether a waiver is necessary and in line with the mission objectives. The COMSEC Manager ensures that proper security protocols are followed while also considering the operational needs of the organization.

Submit
34.
Under what class of electrostatic discharge(ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?

Explanation

An item that is sensitive to 900 volts would fall under Class I of electrostatic discharge (ESD). Class I represents the most sensitive devices that can be damaged by even very low levels of electrostatic discharge.

Submit
35.
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?

Explanation

After initial power is applied, the next step in the boot up process is usually the keyboard lights flashing. This is a common indication that the computer is initializing and performing its self-checks before proceeding with the rest of the boot up process. It is an early sign that the hardware components are functioning properly and the computer is ready to proceed with loading the operating system and displaying the user interface.

Submit
36.
This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that ALC -2 is the correct accounting legend code for continuously accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material by quantity. The other ALC codes (ALC -1, ALC -3, ALC -4) are not applicable for this purpose.

Submit
37.
At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

Explanation

A cipher lock combination should be changed frequently to enhance security. Changing the combination monthly ensures that unauthorized individuals do not have enough time to figure out the current combination. This frequent change also reduces the risk of someone gaining unauthorized access to the lock. Therefore, changing the cipher lock combination monthly is the best practice for maintaining security.

Submit
38.
What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?

Explanation

Before signing the COMSEC hand receipt, each CRO should ensure that the required COMSEC material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue. This means that the CRO should verify that all the necessary COMSEC material is present and accounted for, and that it is in a condition to be issued to the user. This step is important to ensure that the user has access to the appropriate COMSEC material and that it is ready to be used for secure communications.

Submit
39.
What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive(ESDS) device?

Explanation

When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device, the first step you must take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that the device is not powered on during the installation or removal process, reducing the risk of electrostatic discharge and potential damage to the device. Grounding the ESDS device, checking the relative humidity level, and disconnecting the circuit from the device may be necessary steps during the process, but they should be done after turning off the power switch.

Submit
40.
What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?

Explanation

The correct answer is Standard Form (SF) 700. This form is filled out and affixed to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination.

Submit
41.
In which phase doe the COMSEC manager determine which materials the CRO needs?

Explanation

In the preparation phase, the COMSEC manager assesses the specific materials and resources that the Communications Security Responsible Officer (CRO) will require. This includes identifying the necessary encryption devices, keying material, and other tools needed to secure communications. By determining these materials in advance, the COMSEC manager ensures that the CRO has everything necessary to effectively protect sensitive information during the subsequent phases of the COMSEC process.

Submit
42.
Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?

Explanation

The unit deployment manager and commander should be notified immediately of any predeployment shortfalls. They are responsible for overseeing the deployment process and ensuring that all necessary resources, including manpower and equipment, are available. By notifying them promptly, they can take appropriate action to address the shortfalls and mitigate any potential impact on the deployment.

Submit
43.
The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by

Explanation

The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This means that there is a designated entity or organization responsible for ensuring the proper handling, storage, and distribution of COMSEC material. This controlling authority is responsible for maintaining the security and integrity of the material to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure. They also ensure that proper procedures and protocols are followed in the use of COMSEC material to protect sensitive information and communication systems.

Submit
44.
What is the term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment?

Explanation

The term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment is "Aids".

Submit
45.
In which phase does the CRO check the material issued against the list on the Standard Form (SF) 153?

Explanation

In the distribution phase, the CRO checks the material issued against the list on the Standard Form (SF) 153. This phase involves the actual delivery of the material to the intended recipients, and the CRO is responsible for ensuring that the correct items are distributed according to the list provided on the SF 153.

Submit
46.
What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?

Explanation

The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized and listed in alphabetical order based on their short titles.

Submit
47.
What TDC characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

Explanation

The TDC characteristic that requires equipment setup times to be kept to a minimum is mobility. This means that the equipment should be easily transportable, deployable, and operable in a deployed environment. By minimizing setup times, the equipment can be quickly moved and used in different locations, enhancing its mobility and effectiveness in various operational scenarios.

Submit
48.
The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the

Explanation

The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is referred to as the "user". This person is responsible for properly handling and protecting communication security equipment and materials in order to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information. They are expected to follow established security protocols and procedures to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of classified information.

Submit
49.
What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communications networks?

Explanation

The integrated communications access package (ICAP) is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits that serve as the backbone of deployed communications networks. It provides a comprehensive solution for accessing and managing communication resources in a network. This includes modules for routing, switching, and connecting various communication devices and systems. The ICAP ensures seamless and reliable communication within a network, making it an essential component for deployed communications networks.

Submit
50.
If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security(COMSEC) manager

Explanation

The correct answer is "asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message" because if it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager would need to find an alternative method to verify the user's holding. Asking the user to verify their holding by letter or message would be the most practical solution in this situation.

Submit
51.
This form is considered a daily physical inventory for your environment.

Explanation

The correct answer is SF701 because it is the form that is considered a daily physical inventory for the environment.

Submit
52.
What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Standard Form(SF) 153?

Explanation

The maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Standard Form (SF) 153 is 1. This means that there is only one possible action that can be performed on this form.

Submit
53.
Whenever COMSEC material needs to be  replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message?

Explanation

The Cryptologic systems group (CPSG) is responsible for developing the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message when COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately.

Submit
54.
What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?

Explanation

The phase concerned with exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment is called predeployment. This phase is essential to ensure that individuals are adequately prepared for the deployment, understand the processes involved, and are familiar with the equipment they will be using. It helps to minimize any potential issues or challenges that may arise during the actual deployment phase.

Submit
55.
What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?

Explanation

Transport is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of material from one place to another. It implies that someone with an active interest in the material is responsible for the movement. Carrier refers to a person or company that transports goods, but it does not necessarily imply an active interest in the material. Transfer refers to the act of moving something from one place to another, but it does not necessarily involve an active interest. Shipment refers to a load of goods that is being transported, but it does not necessarily imply an active interest in the material.

Submit
56.
In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
57.
Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?

Explanation

Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident violation. This means that if someone fails to respond to an urgent message, it could potentially compromise the security and integrity of the cryptographic systems being used. It is crucial to promptly and appropriately respond to urgent messages to prevent any potential breaches or incidents related to cryptography.

Submit
58.
Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions?

Explanation

The final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions is the commander of the unit holding TPC material. This individual has the authority and responsibility to ensure that only qualified and trustworthy individuals are granted access to TPC material. They have the overall oversight and accountability for the proper handling and safeguarding of TPC material within their unit.

Submit
59.
Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units and in-garrison units during a contingency. They are specifically trained and equipped to ensure that communication systems are operational and reliable for the duration of a contingency, allowing for effective communication and coordination between units.

Submit
60.
What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC material?

Explanation

The SF 153 form is commonly used as a destruction certificate for COMSEC (Communications Security) material. This form is used to document the proper destruction and disposal of sensitive information and equipment to ensure that it cannot be accessed or used by unauthorized individuals. It serves as a record of the destruction process and provides accountability for the proper handling of COMSEC material.

Submit
61.
Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Communications security manager. The Communications security manager is responsible for ensuring that all emergency action plans (EAP) on base are properly developed, implemented, and maintained. They are responsible for coordinating with various units and departments to ensure that the EAPs are comprehensive and effective in addressing potential emergencies. This includes conducting regular drills and exercises to test the plans and making any necessary updates or revisions. The Communications security manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the base during emergency situations.

Submit
62.
Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

Explanation

The next unused voucher number that is used on transfer reports comes from AFCOMSEC Form 14.

Submit
63.
Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

Explanation

Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. This means that when material is issued to transient aircrews, there is no need to keep records of its disposition or report its destruction. This is likely because transient aircrews are not permanent members of the organization or base, and therefore their use of the material is temporary and does not require the same level of documentation as other entities such as NATO forces, the base COMSEC account itself, or joint military operations.

Submit
64.
To ensure communications security responsible offers(CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security(COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

Explanation

The correct answer is "semi-annually" because the question asks how often the COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of responsible offers (CRO) to ensure compliance with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material. "Semi-annually" means twice a year, which ensures regular and frequent inspections to maintain communications security.

Submit
65.
Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?

Explanation

The Cryptologic support group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number. This means that they are in charge of determining when the inventory of cryptographic materials and equipment should be conducted. The other options, such as the Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA), HQ USAF/SCX, and Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA), do not have the specific role of establishing the inventory date for COMSEC accounts.

Submit
66.
Which Air Force form do COMSEC managers(CM) use when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security(COMSEC) account?

Explanation

COMSEC managers use Air Force form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account.

Submit
67.
What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards?

Explanation

A certification authority workstation is used for the generation, management, and distribution of keying material, including programming FORTEZZA cards. It is a specialized computer system that is responsible for issuing and managing digital certificates, which are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of electronic transactions and communications. The certification authority workstation plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and trustworthiness of cryptographic systems and is an essential component in the overall management of keying material.

Submit
68.
This communications security(COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory.

Explanation

The given answer, ALC -4, is the correct answer because ALC -4 indicates that the communications security(COMSEC) material does not need to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory. This means that it is not necessary to keep a record of this material on a daily or shift basis.

Submit
69.
How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan exercises?

Explanation

The correct answer is 24 months because maintaining the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan exercises for two years allows for future reference and evaluation of the effectiveness of the exercises. This duration ensures that the documentation is accessible for a sufficient amount of time to meet regulatory requirements and to facilitate any necessary updates or improvements to the emergency action plan.

Submit
70.
What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure?

Explanation

TDC is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 27, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Saywhom
Cancel
  • All
    All (70)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Static electricity remains intact until it is
In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and...
Normally the last step in the boot up process is
What is the first job the Basic Input Output System(BIOS) does at...
Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings...
What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and...
In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are...
Which original component was very susceptible to damage from...
What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup...
What static RAM(SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?
Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating...
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware...
What can detect if central processing unit hardware problems exist?
In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and...
What is considered as a technique or method of checking data...
Electrostatic discharge(ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but...
What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static...
What is the classification of the combination to any security...
In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?
What rank must primary communications security responsible...
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program...
The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of...
When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables...
What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises...
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the BIOS...
On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?
Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic...
What interrupt request(IRQ) line number is normally used for the...
AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory...
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?
Under what class of electrostatic discharge(ESD) would an item fall if...
What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial...
This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for...
At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
What should each CRO do before signing the COMSEC hand receipt?
What is the first step you must take when either installing or...
What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking...
In which phase doe the COMSEC manager determine which materials the...
Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?
The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC)...
What is the term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other...
In which phase does the CRO check the material issued against the list...
What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force...
What TDC characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an...
The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while...
What is known as a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the...
If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user...
This form is considered a daily physical inventory for your...
What is the maximum number of different actions that can be...
Whenever COMSEC material needs to be  replaced or amended...
What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with...
What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by...
In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder are destruction...
Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could...
Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person...
Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to...
What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC...
Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on...
Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on...
Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for...
To ensure communications security responsible offers(CRO) are...
Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account...
Which Air Force form do COMSEC managers(CM) use when conducting an...
What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of...
This communications security(COMSEC) material is not required to be...
How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the...
What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications...
Alert!

Advertisement