Basic Input Output System(BIOS) Quizzes

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  • 1/70 Questions

    What is the first job the Basic Input Output System(BIOS) does at start-up?

    • Run memory byte count
    • Test for parity errors
    • Load instructions to RAM
    • Run the power-on-self-test
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About This Quiz

Explore the foundational elements of BIOS, including its roles, components like CMOS, and memory types such as ROM and SRAM.

Basic Input Output System(BIOS) Quizzes - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

    • Read only memory(ROM)

    • Basic Input Output System

    • Complimentary metal-oxide semiconductor(CMOS)

    • EEPROM

    Correct Answer
    A. Complimentary metal-oxide semiconductor(CMOS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS is a type of semiconductor technology used in computer chips and other electronic devices. It is very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge, which is the sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different electrical potentials. This discharge can occur when a person touches a component or device without properly grounding themselves, causing a surge of electricity that can damage the CMOS chip. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS components with caution and take proper electrostatic discharge precautions to prevent damage.

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  • 3. 

    Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?

    • ROM

    • BIOS

    • CMOS

    • EEPROM

    Correct Answer
    A. CMOS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor and it is a type of memory chip that stores the computer's BIOS settings. It uses a lithium battery to maintain these settings even when the power is removed from the computer. ROM (Read-Only Memory) is a type of memory that stores permanent instructions and data, but it does not use a lithium battery. BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is firmware that initializes the hardware and software during the boot process, but it does not use a lithium battery. EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) is a type of memory that can be erased and reprogrammed, but it does not use a lithium battery.

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  • 4. 

    What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

    • ROM

    • BIOS

    • CMOS

    • EEPROM

    Correct Answer
    A. ROM
    Explanation
    ROM (Read-Only Memory) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It contains firmware or software instructions that are permanently stored during the manufacturing process and cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is commonly used to store the computer's initial boot-up instructions and other essential system software.

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  • 5. 

    What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

    • BIOS

    • CMOS

    • Cache

    • EEPROM

    Correct Answer
    A. BIOS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BIOS. BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System and is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing the hardware components of the computer during the boot process. It also provides the interface between the operating system and the computer's hardware, allowing the operating system to communicate with the hardware devices.

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  • 6. 

    What static RAM(SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?

    • BIOS

    • CMOS

    • Cache

    • EEPROM

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache
    Explanation
    Static RAM (SRAM) is a type of computer memory that stores data using a flip-flop circuitry, allowing for faster access compared to dynamic RAM (DRAM). SRAM is commonly used in various applications in a CPU, but it is particularly used for cache memory. Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve them without accessing the slower main memory. This helps to improve the overall performance of the CPU by reducing the time it takes to access data. Therefore, the correct answer is Cache.

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  • 7. 

    On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?

    • CMOS

    • Cache

    • DDRAM

    • EEPROM

    Correct Answer
    A. Cache
    Explanation
    Cache is the correct answer because most modern computers have two or three levels of memory, with cache being one of them. Cache memory is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the computer to access them quickly. It acts as a buffer between the processor and the main memory, improving overall system performance. CMOS, DDRAM, and EEPROM are types of memory, but they are not specifically associated with the levels of memory in modern computers.

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  • 8. 

    Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as

    • Polling

    • Signaling

    • Processing

    • Multitasking

    Correct Answer
    A. Polling
    Explanation
    Polling is the process of actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program. It involves regularly checking the device to see if it has any new data or information available. This method allows the client program to stay updated and respond accordingly based on the current state of the external device.

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  • 9. 

    What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit(CPU) or a synchronous event?

    • Cache

    • Buffer

    • Interface

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Interrupt
    Explanation
    An interrupt is a signal from a computer hardware device that indicates the need for attention from the CPU. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous. Asynchronous means that the interrupt can occur at any time and is not synchronized with the CPU's clock. This allows the hardware device to request attention from the CPU whenever it needs it. Synchronous events, on the other hand, are synchronized with the CPU's clock and occur at specific times. Therefore, an interrupt is the correct answer as it encompasses both asynchronous and synchronous signals.

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  • 10. 

    What interrupt request(IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The floppy disk controller typically uses IRQ line number 6 for interrupt requests. This is the specific line that is used to signal the CPU when the controller needs attention or when data transfer is complete. By using this IRQ line, the controller can effectively communicate with the CPU and ensure smooth operation of the floppy disk drive.

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  • 11. 

    Which term describes that data is whole or complete?

    • Driver

    • Parity bit

    • Data Integrity

    • Error Correction

    Correct Answer
    A. Data Integrity
    Explanation
    Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that the data is complete, whole, and uncorrupted. Data integrity measures include validation rules, checksums, and error detection and correction techniques, which help to maintain the integrity of the data and prevent any loss or corruption. Therefore, data integrity is the term that describes that data is whole or complete.

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  • 12. 

    What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

    • Asynchronous

    • Parity bit

    • Interrupt

    • Fault

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity bit
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a technique used to check data integrity. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the data can be detected, such as if a bit has been flipped during transmission. This helps to ensure that the data received is accurate and has not been corrupted.

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  • 13. 

    Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

    • Interrupt

    • Parity bit

    • Asynchronous

    • Data Integrity

    Correct Answer
    A. Parity bit
    Explanation
    A parity bit is a very simple example of an error detecting code. It is a single bit added to a binary code to detect errors during transmission. The parity bit is set to either 0 or 1, depending on the number of 1s in the code. If the number of 1s is even, the parity bit is set to 0, making the total number of 1s even. If the number of 1s is odd, the parity bit is set to 1, making the total number of 1s odd. During transmission, the receiver checks the parity bit and if it doesn't match the expected parity, an error is detected.

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  • 14. 

    What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?

    • ROM

    • BIOS

    • CMOS

    • EEPROM

    Correct Answer
    A. BIOS
    Explanation
    The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices in a computer system. It is the firmware that is stored in ROM (Read-Only Memory) and is responsible for performing the power-on self-test (POST) during the boot process. If a keyboard or mouse is not found during the POST, the BIOS will send an error message indicating the issue.

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  • 15. 

    Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?

    • BIOS

    • Driver

    • Parity

    • Interrupt

    Correct Answer
    A. Driver
    Explanation
    A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a translator between the operating system and the hardware, allowing the operating system to communicate with and control the hardware. The driver provides the necessary instructions and protocols for the operating system to correctly utilize the hardware device.

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  • 16. 

    Static electricity remains intact until it is

    • Absorbed

    • Dissolved

    • Discharged

    • Neutralized

    Correct Answer
    A. Discharged
    Explanation
    Static electricity is a buildup of electric charge on the surface of an object. This charge remains intact until it is discharged, meaning that the excess electrons are transferred to another object or the ground. Discharging the static electricity helps to balance the charges and eliminate the buildup of electrical potential.

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  • 17. 

    Under what class of electrostatic discharge(ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
    Explanation
    An item that is sensitive to 900 volts would fall under Class I of electrostatic discharge (ESD). Class I represents the most sensitive devices that can be damaged by even very low levels of electrostatic discharge.

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  • 18. 

    Electrostatic discharge(ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items that are sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category III.

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  • 19. 

    What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity?

    • Ground the ESDS device

    • Check the relative humidity level

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • Turn the power switch to the off position

    Correct Answer
    A. Ground the ESDS device
    Explanation
    To prevent the build up of static electricity, grounding the ESDS (Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive) device is necessary. Grounding helps to dissipate any static charges that may accumulate on the device, preventing potential damage or disruption caused by electrostatic discharge. Checking the relative humidity level may be important for certain environments, but it may not directly address the issue of static electricity build up. Disconnecting the circuit from the device and turning the power switch off may help in some cases, but grounding the ESDS device is the most effective measure to prevent static electricity build up.

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  • 20. 

    What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive(ESDS) device?

    • Ground the ESDS device

    • Check the relative humidity level

    • Disconnect the circuit from the device

    • Turn the power switch to the off position

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn the power switch to the off position
    Explanation
    When either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device, the first step you must take is to turn the power switch to the off position. This is important to ensure that the device is not powered on during the installation or removal process, reducing the risk of electrostatic discharge and potential damage to the device. Grounding the ESDS device, checking the relative humidity level, and disconnecting the circuit from the device may be necessary steps during the process, but they should be done after turning off the power switch.

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  • 21. 

    The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called?

    • Fault isolation

    • Event evaluation

    • Process investigation

    • Analytical consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation
    Explanation
    Fault isolation is the correct answer because it refers to the process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring. This process involves identifying the specific component or system that is responsible for the failure and implementing measures to isolate and address the issue. Fault isolation is an important step in troubleshooting and improving the reliability and performance of systems.

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  • 22. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Define the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, the step of defining the problem involves gathering information and identifying the symptoms or conditions that are present. This step helps in understanding the nature of the problem and determining the specific conditions that need to be addressed. By defining the problem, you can then move on to the next steps of troubleshooting, such as isolating and resolving the problem, and confirming the resolution.

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  • 23. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Isolate the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you determine if there is indeed a dilemma or issue. This step involves gathering information, conducting tests, and analyzing the symptoms to identify the root cause of the problem. Once the problem has been isolated, further steps can be taken to resolve it.

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  • 24. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolve the problem
    Explanation
    In the troubleshooting step of "Resolve the problem," you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This step involves analyzing the information gathered during the previous steps to determine the root cause of the problem. By identifying and eliminating potential causes, you can narrow down the possibilities and focus on finding the most effective solution.

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  • 25. 

    In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?

    • Define the problem

    • Isolate the problem

    • Resolve the problem

    • Confirm the resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirm the resolution
    Explanation
    After resolving the problem, it is important to review the case history and assure that no steps were missed. This step is crucial to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved and that all necessary actions have been taken. By confirming the resolution, it helps to prevent any recurring issues and provides a comprehensive understanding of the problem-solving process.

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  • 26. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system(OS) loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The keyboard lights should flash
    Explanation
    After initial power is applied, the next step in the boot up process is usually the keyboard lights flashing. This is a common indication that the computer is initializing and performing its self-checks before proceeding with the rest of the boot up process. It is an early sign that the hardware components are functioning properly and the computer is ready to proceed with loading the operating system and displaying the user interface.

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  • 27. 

    What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the BIOS message appears on the monitor?

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system(OS) loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. A memory test should be visible on the monitor
    Explanation
    After the BIOS message appears on the monitor, the next step in the boot up process is usually a memory test being visible on the monitor. This test checks the integrity and functionality of the computer's memory modules. It ensures that the memory is functioning properly before the operating system is loaded into memory and the user interface appears.

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  • 28. 

    Normally the last step in the boot up process is

    • The keyboard lights should flash

    • A memory test should be visible on the monitor

    • The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly

    • The operating system(OS) loads into memory and user interface appears

    Correct Answer
    A. The operating system(OS) loads into memory and user interface appears
    Explanation
    The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage where the computer is fully initialized and ready for the user to interact with. The other options mentioned are steps that may occur earlier in the boot up process, but the loading of the OS and the appearance of the user interface signify that the boot up process is complete.

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  • 29. 

    What can detect if central processing unit hardware problems exist?

    • Event evaluation

    • POST

    • Process investigation

    • Analytical consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. POST
    Explanation
    POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, which is a diagnostic test that the computer performs on itself every time it is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the central processing unit (CPU) to ensure that they are functioning properly. Therefore, POST is the correct answer as it can detect if CPU hardware problems exist.

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  • 30. 

    When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to

    • Review the schematic diagram for errors

    • Make a complete drawing of all the components

    • Call the manufacturer and speak to customer service

    • Place masking tape to the cables and connection points

    Correct Answer
    A. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points
    Explanation
    One simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware is to place masking tape on the cables and connection points. This can help to visually distinguish between different cables and ensure that they are correctly connected. It is a practical and effective way to keep track of the cables and their connections during the troubleshooting process.

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  • 31. 

    What rank must primary communications security responsible officers(CRO) hold?

    • SSgt

    • TSgt

    • MSgt

    • Capt

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SSgt because primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) typically hold the rank of Staff Sergeant. This rank is appropriate for individuals who are responsible for managing and implementing communications security protocols and procedures.

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  • 32. 

    Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?

    • COMSEC Manager

    • Unit Commander

    • Wing Commander

    • Wing Commanders with approval of COMSEC managers

    Correct Answer
    A. COMSEC Manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is COMSEC Manager. The COMSEC Manager is the person who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the communication security (COMSEC) program within an organization. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess whether a waiver is necessary and in line with the mission objectives. The COMSEC Manager ensures that proper security protocols are followed while also considering the operational needs of the organization.

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  • 33. 

    To ensure communications security responsible offers(CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security(COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semi-annually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "semi-annually" because the question asks how often the COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of responsible offers (CRO) to ensure compliance with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material. "Semi-annually" means twice a year, which ensures regular and frequent inspections to maintain communications security.

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  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?

    • Director National Security Agency(DIRNSA)

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • Air Force Communications Agency(AFCA)

    • Cryptologic support group(CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Director National Security Agency(DIRNSA)
    Explanation
    The Director of the National Security Agency (DIRNSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. The NSA is the primary agency responsible for signals intelligence and information assurance for the United States. As such, the Director of the NSA has the authority and oversight to manage cryptographic material and ensure its security and effectiveness in protecting classified information.

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  • 35. 

    What is the classification of the combination to any security container?

    • Not classified

    • Always classified for offical use only

    • Always classified confidential

    • Always classified to the highest classificiation of material within the container

    Correct Answer
    A. Always classified to the highest classificiation of material within the container
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified according to the highest level of classification of the materials stored inside the container. This ensures that the container remains secure and that access to the materials is restricted to only those with the appropriate clearance level.

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  • 36. 

    The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by

    • A controlling authority

    • A COMSEC manager

    • An installation commander

    • A cryptologic support group (CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. A controlling authority
    Explanation
    The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This means that there is a designated entity or organization responsible for ensuring the proper handling, storage, and distribution of COMSEC material. This controlling authority is responsible for maintaining the security and integrity of the material to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure. They also ensure that proper procedures and protocols are followed in the use of COMSEC material to protect sensitive information and communication systems.

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  • 37. 

    This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity.

    • Accounting legend code (ALC)- 1

    • ALC -2

    • ALC -3

    • ALC -4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC -2
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that ALC -2 is the correct accounting legend code for continuously accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material by quantity. The other ALC codes (ALC -1, ALC -3, ALC -4) are not applicable for this purpose.

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  • 38. 

    This communications security(COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory.

    • Accounting legend code (ALC)- 1

    • ALC -2

    • ALC -3

    • ALC -4

    Correct Answer
    A. ALC -4
    Explanation
    The given answer, ALC -4, is the correct answer because ALC -4 indicates that the communications security(COMSEC) material does not need to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory. This means that it is not necessary to keep a record of this material on a daily or shift basis.

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  • 39. 

    This form is considered a daily physical inventory for your environment.

    • Standard Form (SF) 700

    • SF701

    • SF702

    • SF703

    Correct Answer
    A. SF701
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SF701 because it is the form that is considered a daily physical inventory for the environment.

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  • 40. 

    What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?

    • Standard Form (SF) 700

    • SF701

    • SF702

    • SF703

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Form (SF) 700
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Standard Form (SF) 700. This form is filled out and affixed to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination.

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  • 41. 

    At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    • Bi-annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    A cipher lock combination should be changed frequently to enhance security. Changing the combination monthly ensures that unauthorized individuals do not have enough time to figure out the current combination. This frequent change also reduces the risk of someone gaining unauthorized access to the lock. Therefore, changing the cipher lock combination monthly is the best practice for maintaining security.

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  • 42. 

    What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?

    • By shelf arrangement

    • By drawer arrangement

    • Alphabetically by edition

    • Alphabetically by short title

    Correct Answer
    A. Alphabetically by short title
    Explanation
    The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized and listed in alphabetical order based on their short titles.

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  • 43. 

    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 6

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous 6 months of inventory. This means that the form includes a record of the current month's inventory as well as the inventory from the past 6 months. This allows for a more comprehensive and accurate record of the inventory over time.

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  • 44. 

    If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security(COMSEC) manager

    • Requests special TDY orders from combat support group (CPSG)

    • Requests special TDY orders from MAJCOM

    • Conducts the inventory with the suer by telephone

    • Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message

    Correct Answer
    A. Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message" because if it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user due to distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager would need to find an alternative method to verify the user's holding. Asking the user to verify their holding by letter or message would be the most practical solution in this situation.

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  • 45. 

    Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number?

    • Director National Security Agency(DIRNSA)

    • HQ USAF/SCX

    • Air Force Communications Agency(AFCA)

    • Cryptologic support group(CPSG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptologic support group(CPSG)
    Explanation
    The Cryptologic support group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each COMSEC account number. This means that they are in charge of determining when the inventory of cryptographic materials and equipment should be conducted. The other options, such as the Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA), HQ USAF/SCX, and Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA), do not have the specific role of establishing the inventory date for COMSEC accounts.

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  • 46. 

    The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is the

    • User

    • Manager

    • Account manager

    • Responsible officer

    Correct Answer
    A. User
    Explanation
    The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids while performing official duties is referred to as the "user". This person is responsible for properly handling and protecting communication security equipment and materials in order to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information. They are expected to follow established security protocols and procedures to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of classified information.

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  • 47. 

    What is the term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment?

    • Aids

    • Entities

    • Supplies

    • Materials

    Correct Answer
    A. Aids
    Explanation
    The term used when referring to specific COMSEC material other than equipment is "Aids".

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  • 48. 

    Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

    • AFCOMSEC Form 14

    • AFCOMSEC Form 23

    • Standard Form 153

    • Standard Form 701

    Correct Answer
    A. AFCOMSEC Form 14
    Explanation
    The next unused voucher number that is used on transfer reports comes from AFCOMSEC Form 14.

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  • 49. 

    In which phase doe the COMSEC manager determine which materials the CRO needs?

    • Protection

    • Preparation

    • Distribution

    • Administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Preparation
    Explanation
    In the preparation phase, the COMSEC manager assesses the specific materials and resources that the Communications Security Responsible Officer (CRO) will require. This includes identifying the necessary encryption devices, keying material, and other tools needed to secure communications. By determining these materials in advance, the COMSEC manager ensures that the CRO has everything necessary to effectively protect sensitive information during the subsequent phases of the COMSEC process.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 27, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Saywhom

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