CDC 2s071 Volume 1 Multiple Choice Quiz
For private use only!
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Enlisted Air Force specialty qualifications are listed in which Air Force Manual?
- A.
AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual.
- B.
AFMAN 23-2308, Material Classification.
- C.
AFMAN 36-123, Supply Manual.
- D.
AFMAN 36-2108, Enlisted Classification.
Correct Answer
D. AFMAN 36-2108, Enlisted Classification.Explanation
Enlisted Air Force specialty qualifications are listed in AFMAN 36-2108, Enlisted Classification. This manual provides the guidelines and criteria for determining and assigning enlisted personnel to specific job specialties based on their skills, knowledge, and abilities. It outlines the qualifications, training requirements, and career progression for each enlisted specialty in the Air Force. AFMAN 36-2108 serves as a comprehensive reference for personnel managers and career counselors to effectively manage and assign enlisted personnel to the appropriate job roles within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(002) In order to qualify for assignment under the wholesale logistics program, program nominees must meet all of the following, except
- A.
Have a 2S071 control AFSC.
- B.
Have less than 15 years time in service.
- C.
Be recommended by their wing (sq) commander.
- D.
Possess the rank of technical or master sergeant.
Correct Answer
C. Be recommended by their wing (sq) commander.Explanation
To qualify for assignment under the wholesale logistics program, program nominees must meet all the given criteria except being recommended by their wing (sq) commander. This means that even if they do not have a 2S071 control AFSC, have less than 15 years time in service, or possess the rank of technical or master sergeant, they can still qualify for the program as long as they meet the other requirements. The recommendation from the wing (sq) commander is not necessary for eligibility.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
- A.
C.
- B.
D.
- C.
F.
- D.
R.
Correct Answer
D. R.Explanation
The releveling flag "R" is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the inquiry is requesting a report or summary of the requirements for that particular stock number.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(004) Which program takes control of Supply computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?
- A.
Reject.
- B.
Inquiry.
- C.
Management notice.
- D.
Management support.
Correct Answer
A. Reject.Explanation
When an error is detected during processing of a transaction, the program that takes control is "Reject". This program is responsible for handling and rejecting the transaction due to the error that occurred. It ensures that the error is properly recorded and appropriate actions are taken to resolve it.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(004) When you receive a reject because of processing a transaction, you should
- A.
Try and reinput the exact same way.
- B.
Immediately notify computer operations.
- C.
First ensure you have input the data correctly.
- D.
Notify your flight chief, after first notifying computer operations.
Correct Answer
C. First ensure you have input the data correctly.Explanation
When you receive a reject because of processing a transaction, the first step you should take is to ensure that you have input the data correctly. This means double-checking the information you entered to make sure there are no errors or mistakes. By doing this, you can eliminate any potential input errors that may have caused the reject. Once you have confirmed that the data is correct, you can then proceed with further actions such as reinputting the transaction or notifying the relevant parties if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(005) What is the name of the process that removes erroneous data from the Standard Base Supply System database?
- A.
Delinquent procedures.
- B.
Organizational refusal
- C.
Quality control.
- D.
Reverse-post.
Correct Answer
D. Reverse-post.Explanation
Reverse-post is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing erroneous data from the Standard Base Supply System database. This process involves identifying and correcting any mistakes or inaccuracies in the database by reversing the posting of incorrect data. It ensures that the database remains accurate and reliable for future use.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(006) What freeze codes will allow a reverse-post input to process?
- A.
"Q", "I", and "C".
- B.
"Q", "L", and "C".
- C.
"S", "L", and "C"
- D.
"Q" and "P" only.
Correct Answer
A. "Q", "I", and "C".Explanation
The freeze codes "Q", "I", and "C" will allow a reverse-post input to process. These freeze codes indicate specific actions that need to be taken during the processing of the input. "Q" indicates a query freeze, which means that the system will pause and wait for user input before continuing. "I" indicates an informational freeze, which means that the system will display a message or information to the user before continuing. "C" indicates a confirmation freeze, which means that the system will require the user to confirm their input before continuing. Using these freeze codes ensures that the reverse-post input is processed correctly.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(006) How many inputs can you process at one time using the automated reverse-post program?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
A. One.Explanation
The correct answer is one because the question is asking how many inputs can be processed at one time using the automated reverse-post program. This implies that the program can only handle one input at a time, indicating that it cannot process multiple inputs simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(006) What do you do with the pre-filled data on an automated reverse-post input?
- A.
Simply process the transaction.
- B.
Screen for accuracy and input it.
- C.
Screen for accuracy and reformat it.
- D.
Reformat it and process the transaction.
Correct Answer
B. Screen for accuracy and input it.Explanation
When dealing with pre-filled data on an automated reverse-post input, the correct approach is to screen the data for accuracy and then input it. This means carefully reviewing the pre-filled information to ensure that it is correct and matches the intended transaction. Once the accuracy has been verified, the data can be inputted into the system for further processing.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(007) Which type of Supply Interface System files gives users the capability to re-direct specified transaction identification codes or programs output to a file of their choice?
- A.
User.
- B.
Control.
- C.
Residue.
- D.
Data direction.
Correct Answer
A. User.Explanation
User files give users the capability to re-direct specified transaction identification codes or programs output to a file of their choice. This means that users can choose where they want the output of certain transactions or programs to be stored, allowing for greater flexibility and customization. Control files, residue files, and data direction files do not have this capability.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(007) Which type of Supply Interface System files is designed to ensure any inbound or outbound images that could not be identified or dispatched are cleared in a timely manner?
- A.
User.
- B.
Control.
- C.
Residue.
- D.
Data direction.
Correct Answer
C. Residue.Explanation
Residue files in the Supply Interface System are specifically created to handle any inbound or outbound images that were not able to be identified or dispatched. These files ensure that these images are cleared in a timely manner, preventing any delays or issues in the supply chain process.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(007) Supply interface system residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?
- A.
12.
- B.
24.
- C.
36.
- D.
48.
Correct Answer
B. 24.Explanation
Supply interface system residue images are considered delinquent after 24 hours. This means that if the residue images are not processed or resolved within 24 hours, they are considered overdue or late. It is important to handle and resolve these residue images promptly to ensure the smooth functioning of the supply interface system.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(008) Which system is an Air Force Materiel Command advanced automated computer system designed to help monitor, manage, and improve weapon system support?
- A.
TRACKER
- B.
RAMPS
- C.
WSMIS
- D.
MIIICS
Correct Answer
C. WSMISExplanation
WSMIS stands for Weapon System Management Information System. It is an advanced automated computer system designed by the Air Force Materiel Command. WSMIS helps in monitoring, managing, and improving weapon system support. This system is specifically developed to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of weapon system support operations within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(008) Which of the following positions is not a Weapon System Management Information System access level?
- A.
Base primary point of contact.
- B.
HQ AFMC functional manager
- C.
MAJCOM primary point of contact
- D.
MAJCOM alternate point of contact
Correct Answer
A. Base primary point of contact.Explanation
The Base primary point of contact is not a Weapon System Management Information System access level because it refers to an individual at the base level who is responsible for coordinating and managing activities related to a specific weapon system. While this position may have access to certain information systems, it is not specifically designated as a level of access within the Weapon System Management Information System.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(009) Which standard base-level computer control statement removes undesired or deleted elements in the specified files and rewrites each file?
- A.
@PRT.
- B.
@PACK.
- C.
@COPY.
- D.
@DELETE
Correct Answer
B. @PACK.Explanation
The correct answer is @PACK. The @PACK statement is a standard base-level computer control statement that removes undesired or deleted elements in the specified files and rewrites each file. This statement is commonly used to compress or pack files to save storage space or to remove unnecessary elements from files.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(009) The control statement on the standard base-level computer that causes accounting routines to be called and all facilities assigned to the run to be released is
- A.
@XQT.
- B.
@START.
- C.
@FIN.
- D.
@RUN.
Correct Answer
C. @FIN.Explanation
The control statement on the standard base-level computer that causes accounting routines to be called and all facilities assigned to the run to be released is "@FIN." This statement is typically used to indicate the end of a program or job, triggering the execution of any necessary accounting procedures and freeing up resources that were allocated to the run.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(009) On the standard base-level computer, which control statement provides a means of inserting images into a runstream from any file currently assigned to the user?
- A.
@ADD.
- B.
@MERGE.
- C.
@SET.
- D.
@COPY.
Correct Answer
A. @ADD.Explanation
The correct answer is @ADD. This control statement allows the user to insert images into a runstream from any file that is currently assigned to them. The @ADD statement is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a convenient way to include images in the computer's output. The other control statements listed (@MERGE, @SET, and @COPY) do not have the same functionality and are not used for inserting images into a runstream.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(009) Which standard base-level computer control statement helps manage the disk space and ensures that the space is used efficiently and effectively?
- A.
@ERASE
- B.
@PACK
- C.
@COPY
- D.
@DELETE
Correct Answer
B. @PACKExplanation
The @PACK statement is a standard base-level computer control statement that helps manage disk space efficiently and effectively. It is used to compress files and optimize disk space usage by removing empty blocks and reorganizing data. This statement ensures that the available disk space is used more efficiently, allowing for better storage management and improved performance.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(009) Which control statement changes keys and modes of cataloged mass storage files and changes element and version names in a program file?
- A.
@CHG
- B.
@COPY
- C.
@DELETE
- D.
@PACK
Correct Answer
A. @CHGExplanation
The correct answer is @CHG. This control statement is used to change keys and modes of cataloged mass storage files. It can also be used to modify element and version names in a program file.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(009) On the standard base-level computer system, which gang is not used for processing online transactions?
- A.
Two
- B.
Three
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
D. FiveExplanation
In a standard base-level computer system, the gang that is not used for processing online transactions is "Five". This implies that gangs Two, Three, and Four are utilized for processing online transactions, while gang Five is not involved in this process.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(009) The monthly forecast is prepared and distributed by what day of the month?
- A.
5th
- B.
10th
- C.
15th
- D.
20th
Correct Answer
B. 10thExplanation
The monthly forecast is prepared and distributed by the 10th of the month. This suggests that it takes some time to gather and analyze the necessary data before the forecast can be created. By setting a specific date for distribution, it allows for consistency and ensures that the forecast is available to stakeholders in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(009) Which of the following is not a type of schedule within the RPS Operations section?
- A.
Quarterly forecast
- B.
Monthly forecast
- C.
Daily operations schedule
- D.
RPS operations schedule
Correct Answer
A. Quarterly forecastExplanation
A Quarterly forecast is not a type of schedule within the RPS Operations section. The RPS Operations section typically includes schedules such as the Monthly forecast, Daily operations schedule, and RPS operations schedule. The Quarterly forecast, on the other hand, may be a separate forecast used for long-term planning or budgeting purposes, but it is not directly related to the day-to-day operations within the RPS Operations section.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(010) What number sequence identifies primary and secondary gangs?
- A.
1-4
- B.
1-6
- C.
1-8
- D.
1-10
Correct Answer
C. 1-8Explanation
The number sequence 1-8 identifies primary and secondary gangs. This means that there are a total of 8 gangs, with the first gang being the primary gang and the remaining 7 being secondary gangs.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(010) What gang must be used by an SBSS account if gang two is used as its primary data?
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
- C.
Six
- D.
Eight
Correct Answer
C. SixExplanation
An SBSS account must use gang six if gang two is used as its primary data. This suggests that the gangs are numbered sequentially and the SBSS account needs to use the next sequential gang number after gang two, which is gang six.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(011) By which workday of the month does the automated data systems (ADS) scheduler prepare and distribute a forecast of all known SBSS jobs to be run the following month?
- A.
5th
- B.
10th
- C.
15th
- D.
20th
Correct Answer
B. 10thExplanation
The automated data systems (ADS) scheduler prepares and distributes a forecast of all known SBSS jobs to be run the following month by the 10th workday of the month. This means that by the 10th workday, the scheduler has completed the necessary tasks to compile and distribute the forecast.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(012) Which statement is correct about an Air Force support agreement between two organizations?
- A.
Attempts to eliminate the duplication of resources
- B.
Recorded on an official letter of mutual agreement
- C.
Authorizes the transfer of personnel or funds between the organizations
- D.
Unofficially identifies functions and responsibilities to be performed by the supplier
Correct Answer
A. Attempts to eliminate the duplication of resourcesExplanation
An Air Force support agreement between two organizations is aimed at eliminating the duplication of resources. This means that the agreement is designed to ensure that both organizations do not have redundant or overlapping resources, such as equipment, personnel, or funds. By eliminating duplication, the organizations can optimize their resources and improve efficiency in their operations. This helps to streamline processes and avoid unnecessary costs or waste. The agreement is not necessarily recorded on an official letter of mutual agreement, but it does authorize the transfer of personnel or funds between the organizations. Additionally, it unofficially identifies the functions and responsibilities that the supplier organization will perform.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(012) Which is not provided to a receiver organization under a support agreement?
- A.
Utilities
- B.
Staff assistance
- C.
Transfer of funds
- D.
Transportation services
Correct Answer
C. Transfer of fundsExplanation
Under a support agreement, a receiver organization is provided with various types of support, including utilities, staff assistance, and transportation services. However, transfer of funds is not typically provided as part of a support agreement. This means that the receiver organization is responsible for managing and allocating their own funds, rather than receiving direct financial support from the agreement.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(012) In addition to an annual review for cost, supplier organizations should review their support agreements for other factors every
- A.
Two years
- B.
Three years
- C.
Four years
- D.
Five years
Correct Answer
B. Three yearsExplanation
Supplier organizations should review their support agreements every three years to ensure that they are still meeting their needs and providing value for money. This regular review allows organizations to assess any changes in their requirements, evaluate the quality of support received, and consider alternative options in the market. Waiting longer than three years between reviews may result in organizations missing out on potential cost savings or improved services that could be obtained from other suppliers. Additionally, technology and market trends can change rapidly, so a three-year review cycle helps organizations stay up to date with the latest offerings and advancements.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(012) When two major commands cannot agree on which supplier to select for a support agreement, how makes the final decision?
- A.
HQ USAF
- B.
Chief of Staff, USAF
- C.
MAJCOM commanders
- D.
A committee of MAJCOM representatives
Correct Answer
A. HQ USAFExplanation
HQ USAF, or Headquarters United States Air Force, makes the final decision when two major commands cannot agree on which supplier to select for a support agreement.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(012) A major command-level support agreement can be developed if the supplier's MAJCOM must support
- A.
A unit whose levels of support have been reduced
- B.
A single unit of the same type and command with similar requirements
- C.
More than one receiver unit of the same type and command with similar requirements
- D.
A unit whose projection of workload and related planning data for three to five years is significant
Correct Answer
C. More than one receiver unit of the same type and command with similar requirementsExplanation
A major command-level support agreement can be developed if the supplier's MAJCOM must support more than one receiver unit of the same type and command with similar requirements. This means that the supplier's MAJCOM can provide support to multiple units that have similar needs and requirements. This allows for efficient and effective support to be provided to multiple units, streamlining processes and resources.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(012) A category III difficulty report does not stop processing and is corrected
- A.
As workload permits
- B.
On an AF suggestion form
- C.
In the next scheduled release
- D.
Over the telephone with the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) control center
Correct Answer
C. In the next scheduled releaseExplanation
A category III difficulty report is not considered urgent and does not require immediate attention. It can be corrected as workload permits, meaning it will be addressed and fixed when there is available time and resources to do so. The correction will be made in the next scheduled release, which suggests that the report will be included in the regular maintenance or update cycle of the system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(013) Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function?
- A.
Check in and out with the flight chief
- B.
Follow the standard AF directive for conducting such a visit
- C.
Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing
- D.
Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years
Correct Answer
A. Check in and out with the flight chiefExplanation
When conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function, it is important to check in and out with the flight chief. This ensures that there is proper communication and coordination with the responsible authority. Checking in and out with the flight chief allows for accountability and transparency during the visit, as well as providing an opportunity to discuss any specific instructions or requirements for the visit. It also helps in maintaining a record of the visit and ensuring that all necessary procedures are followed.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(013) Where do you start your research before you conduct a surveillance visti of a function?
- A.
Base supply reports and records
- B.
Function's last surveillance report
- C.
Function's unit manning document
- D.
Directives that apply to the function
Correct Answer
D. Directives that apply to the functionExplanation
Before conducting a surveillance visit of a function, it is important to start the research by reviewing the directives that apply to the function. This is because directives provide specific guidelines and instructions that need to be followed during the surveillance visit. By understanding and familiarizing oneself with these directives, the person conducting the surveillance visit can ensure that they are conducting the visit in accordance with the necessary procedures and requirements. Additionally, reviewing the directives can also provide valuable information about any specific areas of focus or concerns that need to be addressed during the visit.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(013) If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed written report to the flight chief within
- A.
5 days after checking in
- B.
15 days after checking in
- C.
5 workdays after the exit briefing
- D.
15 workdays after the exit briefing
Correct Answer
C. 5 workdays after the exit briefingExplanation
After completing a surveillance visit to a function, it is necessary to provide a detailed written report to the flight chief within 5 workdays after the exit briefing. This allows for a timely communication of any deficiencies or issues identified during the visit, ensuring that necessary actions can be taken promptly to address them. Waiting too long to submit the report could result in delays in addressing the identified deficiencies, potentially leading to further problems or risks within the function.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(013) A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?
- A.
7
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
30
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
The function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time for the function to review the report and provide a response. Waiting longer than 15 days may result in delays and potential issues with the surveillance process.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(014) Who is the primary POC for special topics or subjects designated by the accountable officer?
- A.
Procedures
- B.
Accountability
- C.
Customer Service
- D.
Flight Chief
Correct Answer
A. ProceduresExplanation
The primary POC for special topics or subjects designated by the accountable officer is Procedures. This means that Procedures is responsible for handling and managing any special topics or subjects that are assigned by the accountable officer. They are the main point of contact for any issues or inquiries related to these specific areas.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(014) Who does the final review of all proposed changes and suggestions before submission to higher headquarters?
- A.
Customer Service
- B.
Procedures
- C.
LRS commander
- D.
Accountable officer
Correct Answer
D. Accountable officerExplanation
The accountable officer is responsible for conducting a final review of all proposed changes and suggestions before they are submitted to higher headquarters. This individual has the authority and accountability to ensure that the changes and suggestions align with the organization's goals and objectives. They play a crucial role in ensuring the accuracy and appropriateness of the submissions, making them the ideal candidate for this task.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(015) Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?
- A.
Trend
- B.
Problem
- C.
Important
- D.
Performance
Correct Answer
A. TrendExplanation
Experience and standards data are factors used in trend analysis. Trend analysis involves analyzing historical data to identify patterns or trends over time. By examining past experiences and comparing them to established standards, trends can be identified and used to make predictions or inform decision-making.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(015) What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?
- A.
Special studies
- B.
Document
- C.
Problem
- D.
Trend
Correct Answer
A. Special studiesExplanation
Special studies are the analysis method that is commonly used to meet one-time requirements or solve specific problems. These studies involve conducting in-depth research, gathering relevant data, and analyzing it to gain insights and solutions for the specific problem or requirement at hand. By focusing on a particular issue or situation, special studies provide a comprehensive and tailored approach to address the specific needs effectively.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(016) A basic ingredient of any analysis program is
- A.
Charts
- B.
Opinions
- C.
A database
- D.
Reliable and valid data
Correct Answer
D. Reliable and valid dataExplanation
A basic ingredient of any analysis program is reliable and valid data. This is because without accurate and trustworthy data, any analysis conducted would be flawed and unreliable. Reliable and valid data ensures that the analysis program can generate accurate insights and conclusions, leading to informed decision-making. Charts and opinions may be useful in the analysis process, but they are not the fundamental requirement. A database is important for storing and organizing data, but without reliable and valid data, the database would be of little use.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(016) You should request "as required" computer products by using the
- A.
AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request
- B.
AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request
- C.
DD Form 1530, Supply Request
- D.
Telephone or message only
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work RequestExplanation
The correct answer is AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request. This form is used to request "as required" computer products. The other options, AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request and DD Form 1530, Supply Request, are not specifically designed for requesting computer products. The option of using the telephone or message only may not provide the necessary documentation for the request. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is AF Form 2011.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(017) Management indicators can take what type of forms?
- A.
Subjective and informational
- B.
Informational and available
- C.
Quantitative or qualitative
- D.
Available or subjective
Correct Answer
C. Quantitative or qualitativeExplanation
Management indicators can take the form of either quantitative or qualitative data. Quantitative indicators are numerical in nature and can be measured objectively, such as financial metrics or production output. On the other hand, qualitative indicators are descriptive and subjective in nature, such as customer satisfaction or employee morale. Both types of indicators are valuable in providing a comprehensive understanding of the performance and effectiveness of management strategies.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(017) What management indicators measure how well the supply system is responding to urgent requests by customers?
- A.
NMCS
- B.
Priority support
- C.
Expedite support
- D.
Warehouse storage
Correct Answer
B. Priority supportExplanation
Priority support is a management indicator that measures how well the supply system is responding to urgent requests by customers. This indicator focuses on providing immediate attention and assistance to customers with urgent needs, ensuring that their requests are prioritized and addressed promptly. By monitoring and measuring the effectiveness of priority support, management can assess the supply system's ability to meet urgent customer demands and make necessary improvements if needed.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(018) The Air Force Supply Management Activity Group is designed to operate on what basis?
- A.
No-profit/No-loss
- B.
Profit/loss
- C.
No-profit
- D.
No-loss
Correct Answer
A. No-profit/No-lossExplanation
The Air Force Supply Management Activity Group is designed to operate on a no-profit/no-loss basis. This means that the goal of the group is not to make a profit or a loss but to break even. The focus is on efficiently managing the supply chain and ensuring that the Air Force has the necessary resources without incurring unnecessary costs or generating excess revenue. This approach helps maintain financial stability and ensures that resources are allocated effectively to support the Air Force's mission.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(018) Which type of items are financed from the Supply Management Activity Group appropriations?
- A.
Merged
- B.
Expense
- C.
Wholesale
- D.
Investment
Correct Answer
B. ExpenseExplanation
The correct answer is Expense. Supply Management Activity Group appropriations are used to finance expenses related to the procurement and management of supplies. This includes the purchase of goods and services necessary for the operation of an organization, such as office supplies, equipment, and maintenance services. The expenses incurred in the supply management process are funded through the Expense category of the appropriations.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(018) Which type of Supply Management Activity Group has assets at both retail and wholesale level?
- A.
Lateral
- B.
Vertical
- C.
Revolving
- D.
Horizontal
Correct Answer
B. VerticalExplanation
The correct answer is Vertical. In a supply management context, the term "vertical" refers to the integration of different levels of the supply chain, from retail to wholesale. This means that assets, such as inventory or production facilities, are owned and managed at both the retail and wholesale levels. This integration allows for better coordination and control of the supply chain, leading to improved efficiency and cost savings.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(018) The Material Support Division is responsible for what type of expense items?
- A.
Base funded
- B.
Capital controlled
- C.
Centrally procured
- D.
Locally manufactured
Correct Answer
C. Centrally procuredExplanation
The Material Support Division is responsible for centrally procured expense items. This means that they are in charge of acquiring and purchasing items for the organization from a central source or supplier. These expenses are not funded by individual bases or controlled by capital, but rather handled and managed at a centralized level. The division ensures that the necessary items are procured efficiently and effectively to meet the organization's needs.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(019) How is a decision normally made no whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property?
- A.
Externally by the flight chief
- B.
Automatically by the AGSOP
- C.
Externally by the accountable officer
- D.
Automatically under the SBSS program control
Correct Answer
D. Automatically under the SBSS program controlExplanation
The correct answer is "Automatically under the SBSS program control." This means that the decision to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property is made automatically by the SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) program control. The SBSS program control likely has specific rules and criteria in place that determine when a customer is eligible for a refund, and the decision-making process is automated based on these rules.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(019) What credit code do you use to override program control and allow full credit for a Supply Management Activity Group item, regardless of stock position?
- A.
A
- B.
N
- C.
Y
- D.
D
Correct Answer
C. YExplanation
The credit code "Y" is used to override program control and allow full credit for a Supply Management Activity Group item, regardless of stock position. This means that even if there is no stock available for the item, it will still be credited in full.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(019) Who must approve the use of credit code "Y" in the Standard Base Supply System program control before processing a stock fund turn-in?
- A.
SMAG manager
- B.
Division SMAG officer
- C.
Accounting and finance
- D.
Maintenance or supply inspector
Correct Answer
A. SMAG managerExplanation
The SMAG manager must approve the use of credit code "Y" in the Standard Base Supply System program control before processing a stock fund turn-in. This is because the SMAG manager is responsible for overseeing the management and control of the supply system, including approving any credit code usage.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 04, 2010Quiz Created by
Diezeitgeist
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