CDC 2e151 Satellite, Wideband, And Telemetry Systems Journeyman Volume 1
CDC 2E151 Satellite, Wideband, and Telemetry Systems Journeyman Volume 1. This test consists of UREs and Self-Test Questions from volume 1, set 2.
- 1.
What are the two types of nuclear environments?
- A.
Primary and derived.
- B.
Source and derived.
- C.
Primary and radiated.
- D.
Source and radiated.
Correct Answer
A. Primary and derived.Explanation
The correct answer is primary and derived. In the context of nuclear environments, primary refers to the original or initial state, while derived refers to something that is obtained or produced from the primary state. These terms are commonly used to describe different aspects or characteristics of nuclear processes or reactions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What are the four primary nuclear environment elements?
- A.
Thermal radiation, electromagnetic pulse, transient radiation effects on electronics, and air blast and shock.
- B.
Thermal radiation, electromagnetic pulse, transient radiation effects on electronics, and weapon debris.
- C.
Thermally generated x-rays, neutrons, gamma rays, and weapon debris.
- D.
Thermally generated x-rays, neutrons, gamma rays, and airblast and shock.
Correct Answer
C. Thermally generated x-rays, neutrons, gamma rays, and weapon debris.Explanation
The four primary nuclear environment elements are thermally generated x-rays, neutrons, gamma rays, and weapon debris. These elements are commonly associated with nuclear explosions and their aftermath. Thermally generated x-rays, neutrons, and gamma rays are forms of ionizing radiation that are released during a nuclear explosion. They can cause damage to living organisms and materials. Weapon debris refers to the fragments and remnants of the nuclear weapon itself, such as bomb casings and radioactive fallout. These elements collectively define the nuclear environment and its potential hazards.Rate this question:
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- 3.
High-altitude electronmagnetic pulse is what type of frequency phenomenon, and involves which frequency range?
- A.
Secondary; 1 Hz to 1GHz
- B.
Wideband; 1 Hz to 1 GHz
- C.
Secondary; 10 Hz to 10 GHz
- D.
Wideband; 10 Hz to 10 GHz
Correct Answer
B. Wideband; 1 Hz to 1 GHzExplanation
High-altitude electromagnetic pulse (HEMP) is a wideband phenomenon that involves a frequency range from 1 Hz to 1 GHz. It is a type of electromagnetic pulse that occurs as a result of a nuclear explosion in the Earth's atmosphere. HEMP can cause significant damage to electronic systems and infrastructure over a wide range of frequencies, hence the term "wideband". The correct answer, "Wideband; 1 Hz to 1 GHz", accurately describes the frequency range and type of phenomenon associated with HEMP.Rate this question:
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- 4.
High-altitude electromagnetic pulse environment protection is important for critical, time-urgent mission systems because it
- A.
Has a vertical amplitude that decreases inversely with distance, but remains significant for many kilometers.
- B.
Has very intense radial electrical fields, azimuthal magnetic fields, and time-varying air conductivity.
- C.
Is the only nuclear environment that may be imposed on many systems simultaneously with the expenditure of very few weapons.
- D.
Is a problem for electronic components in satellites and reentry vehicles.
Correct Answer
C. Is the only nuclear environment that may be imposed on many systems simultaneously with the expenditure of very few weapons. -
- 5.
A system-generated electromagnetic pulse is a problem for satellites and reentry vehicles that are
- A.
Susceptible to the wideband frequency phenomenon.
- B.
Directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst.
- C.
Affected by the azimuth magnetic fields and time-varying air conductivity.
- D.
Influenced by the signal fading or waveform distortion caused by the structured plasma field.
Correct Answer
B. Directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst. -
- 6.
What source region electromagnetic pulse region is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere?
- A.
Secondary
- B.
Source
- C.
Radiated
- D.
Plasma
Correct Answer
B. Source -
- 7.
What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected?
- A.
Radiated: antennas and boresite feedhorns
- B.
Plasma: antennas and boresite feedhorns
- C.
Secondary: cables and ground wires
- D.
Source: cables and ground wires
Correct Answer
A. Radiated: antennas and boresite feedhornsExplanation
The correct answer is Radiated: antennas and boresite feedhorns. This means that the electromagnetic pulse (EMP) in the radiated source region has a primarily vertical electric field, and it affects antennas and boresite feedhorns. The EMP can induce strong electric currents in these structures, potentially damaging or disrupting their operation.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What derived nuclear environment causes communications blackout and seintillation effects?
- A.
Thermal radiation
- B.
Air blast and shock
- C.
Atmospheric disturbances
- D.
Trasient-radiation effects on electronics
Correct Answer
C. Atmospheric disturbancesExplanation
Atmospheric disturbances, such as solar flares or geomagnetic storms, can cause disruptions in the Earth's ionosphere. These disturbances can lead to the formation of irregularities in the ionosphere, which in turn can cause communication blackout and scintillation effects. These effects interfere with the transmission and reception of radio signals, causing disruptions and distortions in communication systems.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A communications blackout can be produced by large attenuation of the
- A.
Transmitted signal causing the signal-to-noise ratio to fall below unity.
- B.
Transmitted signal causing the signal-to-noise ratio to rise above unity.
- C.
Recieved signal causing the signal-to-noise ratio to be equal to unity.
- D.
Recieved signal causing the signal-to-noise ratio to rise above unity.
Correct Answer
A. Transmitted signal causing the signal-to-noise ratio to fall below unity.Explanation
When the transmitted signal experiences a large attenuation, it means that the signal weakens significantly during transmission. This causes the signal-to-noise ratio to fall below unity, meaning that the level of noise in the signal becomes stronger compared to the actual transmitted signal. As a result, the communication becomes difficult or impossible to decipher, leading to a communications blackout.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Two high-altitude elctromagnetic pulse protection concerns involving today's electronic and communications systemss are protecting against massive system
- A.
Software corruption and permanent component damage.
- B.
Software corruption and permanent system damage.
- C.
Signal distortion and permanent component damage.
- D.
Operation disruption and permanent system damage.
Correct Answer
D. Operation disruption and permanent system damage.Explanation
The correct answer is operation disruption and permanent system damage. High-altitude electromagnetic pulses can disrupt the operation of electronic and communication systems, causing them to malfunction or stop working altogether. Additionally, these pulses can also cause permanent damage to the systems, rendering them unusable. This is a major concern as it can lead to significant disruptions in various sectors that rely on these systems, such as telecommunications, transportation, and defense.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What type of exterior system electromagnetic pulse coupling includes imperfectly sealed personnel access doors and equipment hatches, and improper installation of penetrating conductor protection?
- A.
Shield
- B.
Ground system
- C.
Intrastic conductor
- D.
Electronic enclosure
Correct Answer
A. ShieldExplanation
The correct answer is "Shield". In an exterior system, electromagnetic pulse coupling can occur through imperfectly sealed personnel access doors and equipment hatches, as well as improper installation of penetrating conductor protection. A shield is designed to provide protection against electromagnetic interference by creating a barrier between the external environment and the sensitive electronic components inside. It prevents the coupling of electromagnetic pulses into the system by blocking or redirecting them.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the reason we cannot draq reliable conclusions about the nature and degree of specific system susceptibility without a detailed test and evaluation?
- A.
All high-altitude electromagnetic pulse vulnerabilities may not be identified
- B.
All system malfunctions may not be corrected
- C.
Overall system system shielding maynot be identified
- D.
Overall environment may not be accessed
Correct Answer
A. All high-altitude electromagnetic pulse vulnerabilities may not be identifiedExplanation
Without a detailed test and evaluation, we cannot draw reliable conclusions about the nature and degree of specific system susceptibility because all high-altitude electromagnetic pulse vulnerabilities may not be identified. This means that there could be potential vulnerabilities in the system that we are unaware of, making it difficult to accurately assess its susceptibility to electromagnetic pulses. Therefore, a detailed test and evaluation is necessary to ensure a comprehensive understanding of the system's vulnerabilities and level of susceptibility.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Broadband transmitter noise can often be eliminated by
- A.
Using a band pass filter.
- B.
Using a band reject filter.
- C.
Increasing output power.
- D.
Decreasing output power.
Correct Answer
A. Using a band pass filter.Explanation
Broadband transmitter noise refers to unwanted signals that are spread across a wide range of frequencies. To eliminate this noise, a band pass filter can be used. A band pass filter allows only a specific range of frequencies to pass through while attenuating frequencies outside of that range. By using a band pass filter, the desired signal within the specific frequency range can be transmitted effectively while blocking out the unwanted noise. This helps in improving the overall signal quality and reducing interference.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What type of electromagnetic interference occurs when a receiver responds to off-frequency signals?
- A.
Rusty Bolt
- B.
Co-channel
- C.
Brute force
- D.
Spurious responses
Correct Answer
D. Spurious responsesExplanation
When a receiver responds to off-frequency signals, it is experiencing spurious responses. Spurious responses refer to unwanted or unintended signals that interfere with the desired signal reception. These signals can be caused by various factors such as nearby electronic devices, electromagnetic radiation, or poor signal filtering. Spurious responses can disrupt the proper functioning of the receiver and affect the quality and accuracy of the received signals.Rate this question:
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- 15.
How can you normally eliminate electromagnetic interference noise bursts caused by sodium and mercury vapor lights that have stopped working while the power is still applied?
- A.
Change the bulb
- B.
Ground out the light fixture
- C.
Install a noise reject filter on the light
- D.
Install a noise reject filter on the receiver
Correct Answer
A. Change the bulbExplanation
When sodium and mercury vapor lights stop working while the power is still applied, they can cause electromagnetic interference noise bursts. The best way to eliminate this interference is by changing the bulb. By replacing the faulty bulb with a new one, the electromagnetic interference caused by the malfunctioning light will be resolved.Rate this question:
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- 16.
At what level does the Air Force want electromagnetic interference problems resolved?
- A.
Affected unit
- B.
Affected major command
- C.
Electromagnetic environmental effects office
- D.
Spectrum interference resolution office
Correct Answer
A. Affected unitExplanation
The Air Force wants electromagnetic interference problems resolved at the level of the affected unit. This means that the responsibility for addressing and resolving these problems lies with the specific unit that is experiencing the interference. They are expected to take appropriate measures to mitigate the interference and ensure that their operations are not affected. This approach allows for a more localized and efficient resolution of the issue, as the unit directly impacted by the interference is best positioned to understand and address the problem.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What do you do when you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference exists?
- A.
Request engineering assistance.
- B.
Contact the base frequency manager.
- C.
Systematically gather data for analysis.
- D.
Contact the Spectrum Interference Resolution office.
Correct Answer
C. Systematically gather data for analysis.Explanation
When you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference exists, the best course of action is to systematically gather data for analysis. This involves collecting relevant information and conducting a thorough investigation to identify the source and extent of the interference. By systematically gathering data, you can analyze the problem more effectively and make informed decisions on how to mitigate or resolve the interference. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the issue and increases the chances of finding a suitable solution.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What type transmission line has concentric conductors and minimal radiation losses?
- A.
Coaxial
- B.
Twin lead.
- C.
Two wire open.
- D.
Parallel two wire.
Correct Answer
B. Twin lead.Explanation
Twin lead is the type of transmission line that has concentric conductors and minimal radiation losses. This type of transmission line consists of two parallel conductors that are separated by a dielectric material. The concentric arrangement of the conductors helps to minimize radiation losses, as the electric and magnetic fields are contained within the line. This makes twin lead an efficient choice for transmitting signals with minimal loss and interference.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The ratio of voltage to current at the input end of a transmission device is known as the
- A.
Load impedance.
- B.
Input impedance.
- C.
Output impedance.
- D.
Characteristic impedance.
Correct Answer
B. Input impedance.Explanation
The ratio of voltage to current at the input end of a transmission device is known as the input impedance. Impedance refers to the opposition that an electrical circuit presents to the flow of alternating current. In this case, the input impedance specifically measures the relationship between voltage and current at the input side of the transmission device. It is an important parameter for matching the source impedance with the load impedance to ensure maximum power transfer. The load impedance, output impedance, and characteristic impedance are all different concepts related to impedance but do not specifically refer to the ratio of voltage to current at the input end.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What factor is important in determining how well energy transfers from the source to the load through a transmission line?
- A.
Input impedance.
- B.
Load impedance.
- C.
Output impedance.
- D.
Characteristic impedance.
Correct Answer
D. Characteristic impedance.Explanation
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is important in determining how well energy transfers from the source to the load. It is the ratio of voltage to current in a transmission line and represents the impedance that would exist if the line were infinitely long. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the impedance of the source and load, maximum power transfer occurs, resulting in efficient energy transfer. Therefore, characteristic impedance plays a crucial role in determining the efficiency of energy transfer through a transmission line.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What are three ways transmission lines dissipate power?
- A.
Radiation, heating, and reflection.
- B.
Heating, absorption, and refraction.
- C.
Radiation, reflection, and absorption.
- D.
Absorption, refraction, and radiation.
Correct Answer
A. Radiation, heating, and reflection.Explanation
Transmission lines dissipate power through three main mechanisms: radiation, heating, and reflection. Radiation occurs when energy is emitted in the form of electromagnetic waves, causing power loss. Heating refers to the conversion of electrical energy into heat due to resistance in the transmission line. Reflection occurs when some of the energy is reflected back towards the source, resulting in power loss. These three processes contribute to power dissipation in transmission lines.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Waveguides are capable of handling more power than coaxial lines because the waveguide
- A.
Has less resistance than the coaxial line.
- B.
Has an are-over path twice as long.
- C.
Does not use dielectric support.
- D.
Has an inner silver coating.
Correct Answer
B. Has an are-over path twice as long.Explanation
Waveguides are capable of handling more power than coaxial lines because they have an air-over path twice as long. This longer path reduces the power losses due to resistance, allowing the waveguide to handle higher power levels. The longer path also helps in reducing signal attenuation and interference, making waveguides more efficient for power transmission compared to coaxial lines.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What determines the size of a waveguide?
- A.
Cutoff frequency.
- B.
Operating frequency.
- C.
Amount of power transmitted.
- D.
Minimum frequency propagated.
Correct Answer
B. Operating frequency.Explanation
The size of a waveguide is determined by the operating frequency. The operating frequency of a waveguide refers to the range of frequencies at which it can effectively transmit electromagnetic waves. Different frequencies require different physical dimensions for the waveguide to function optimally. Therefore, the size of the waveguide is directly related to the operating frequency it is designed to accommodate.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In fiber optics, which component of the fiber is the optical transmission path?
- A.
Cladding.
- B.
Coating.
- C.
Buffer.
- D.
Core.
Correct Answer
D. Core.Explanation
The core of a fiber optic cable is the central region through which light is transmitted. It is made of a highly transparent material with a high refractive index, allowing the light to propagate through it by total internal reflection. The cladding, coating, and buffer layers surround and protect the core, but they do not serve as the primary optical transmission path. Therefore, the core is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which fiber-optic connector uses quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected?
- A.
Biconic.
- B.
Field (FC).
- C.
Straight tip (ST).
- D.
Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).
Correct Answer
C. Straight tip (ST).Explanation
The Straight Tip (ST) fiber-optic connector uses quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected. This type of connector provides a secure and stable connection, making it suitable for applications where stability is important. The quick-release feature allows for easy installation and removal, while the keyed bayonet couplings ensure proper alignment and prevent accidental disconnection.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Two types of light sources that are well suited for fiber-optic modems are light-emitting diodes and
- A.
Photo transistors.
- B.
Hybrid photodiodes.
- C.
Semiconductor laser diodes.
- D.
Integrated photodiode/preamplifiers.
Correct Answer
C. Semiconductor laser diodes.Explanation
Semiconductor laser diodes are well suited for fiber-optic modems because they can generate a focused and coherent beam of light that can travel long distances through the fiber-optic cables without significant loss of signal quality. They also have a high modulation bandwidth, allowing for efficient transmission of data. Additionally, semiconductor laser diodes can operate at high speeds and have a small form factor, making them ideal for use in compact and high-performance fiber-optic modems.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What type of light is emitted from a laser?
- A.
Incoherent.
- B.
Coherent.
- C.
Ordinary.
- D.
Invisible.
Correct Answer
B. Coherent.Explanation
A laser emits coherent light. Coherent light is light that has a fixed phase relationship between its waves, meaning that all the waves are aligned and have the same frequency and wavelength. This results in a concentrated, narrow beam of light that can travel long distances without spreading out or losing intensity. In contrast, incoherent light consists of waves with random phases and directions, while ordinary light is a combination of different wavelengths and directions. Invisible light refers to wavelengths that are outside the visible spectrum and cannot be seen by the human eye.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Laser power coupling is measured in the
- A.
Megawatt range.
- B.
Kilowatt range.
- C.
Milliwatt range.
- D.
Microwatt range.
Correct Answer
C. Milliwatt range.Explanation
The correct answer is milliwatt range. Laser power coupling refers to the process of transferring power from an external source into a laser system. The power coupling is measured in milliwatts, which is a unit of power equal to one thousandth of a watt. This suggests that the power being transferred is relatively low, indicating that the laser system being used operates at a milliwatt power range.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The responsivity of a photo detector is dependent on the
- A.
Emitter rise time.
- B.
Wavelength of light.
- C.
Signal-to-noise ratio.
- D.
Emitter modulation speed.
Correct Answer
B. Wavelength of light.Explanation
The responsivity of a photo detector refers to its ability to convert incident light into an electrical signal. This conversion efficiency is directly influenced by the wavelength of light being detected. Different photo detectors have different responsivity characteristics, meaning they are more sensitive to certain wavelengths of light than others. Therefore, the wavelength of light is a crucial factor in determining the responsivity of a photo detector.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What photo detector converts one photon to one electron?
- A.
Light emitting diode.
- B.
Avalanche photodiode.
- C.
Positive intrinsic negative diode.
- D.
Integrated photodiode preamplifier.
Correct Answer
C. Positive intrinsic negative diode. -
- 31.
What is multiplexing?
- A.
Transmitting one signal over multiple transmission paths.
- B.
Transmitting one signal multiple times over a single transmission path.
- C.
Combining multiple signals for transmission over a single transmission path.
- D.
Combining multiple signals for transmission over separate, individual transmission paths.
Correct Answer
C. Combining multiple signals for transmission over a single transmission path.Explanation
Multiplexing refers to the process of combining multiple signals into a single transmission path. This allows for more efficient use of the available bandwidth and resources. By combining multiple signals, it is possible to transmit more information simultaneously over a single transmission path, increasing the overall capacity and efficiency of the system. This is commonly used in telecommunications and networking to optimize the use of limited resources and improve data transmission efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What technique of multiplexing samples each low speed channel in sequence to interleave bits or characters and then transmit them at high speed?
- A.
Wavelength division.
- B.
Frequency division.
- C.
Code division.
- D.
Time division.
Correct Answer
D. Time division.Explanation
Time division multiplexing (TDM) is a technique that samples each low-speed channel in sequence, interleaves the bits or characters, and then transmits them at a high speed. In TDM, each channel is allocated a specific time slot within a frame, and the samples from each channel are transmitted during their respective time slots. This allows multiple channels to share the same transmission medium, effectively increasing the overall capacity and efficiency of the system.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Wavelength division multiplexing assigns each incoming optical signal to a specific
- A.
Pseudorandom code.
- B.
Frequency of light.
- C.
Radio frequency.
- D.
Time slot.
Correct Answer
B. Frequency of light.Explanation
Wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) is a technique used in optical communication systems to combine multiple optical signals onto a single optical fiber by assigning each signal to a specific frequency of light. This allows for the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals over the same fiber, increasing the overall capacity of the system. Therefore, the correct answer is frequency of light.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Up to how many active talkers can be on one general-purpose interface bus simultaneously?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
7
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The correct answer is 1 because a general-purpose interface bus can only support one active talker at a time. This means that only one device can transmit data on the bus while others listen. Having multiple active talkers simultaneously can lead to data collisions and communication errors. Therefore, the maximum number of active talkers on a general-purpose interface bus is limited to one.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What are general-purpose interface bus electrical specifications for a zero (0) logic state?
- A.
Greater than or equal to (≥) +5.0 volts but less than or equal to (≤) +10.25 volts.
- B.
≥ +4.0 volts but ≤ +10.25 volts.
- C.
≥ +3.0 volts but ≤ +5.25 volts.
- D.
≥ +2.0 volts but ≤ +5.25 volts.
Correct Answer
D. ≥ +2.0 volts but ≤ +5.25 volts.Explanation
The general-purpose interface bus electrical specifications for a zero (0) logic state are between ≥ +2.0 volts and ≤ +5.25 volts. This means that the voltage range for a zero logic state must be greater than or equal to 2.0 volts and less than or equal to 5.25 volts.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The general-purpose interface bus management bus lines
- A.
Determine which device is requesting service.
- B.
Transfer commands, addresses, and device-dependent data.
- C.
Interpret signals on the interface bus and manage device operation on the bus.
- D.
Coordinate activities by a handshaking process carried out over the three-line transfer bus.
Correct Answer
C. Interpret signals on the interface bus and manage device operation on the bus.Explanation
The correct answer is "interpret signals on the interface bus and manage device operation on the bus." This answer explains that the general-purpose interface bus management bus lines are responsible for interpreting signals on the interface bus and managing the operation of devices on the bus. This means that the bus lines are able to understand the signals being sent and control the devices accordingly, ensuring proper communication and coordination between the devices on the bus.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which general-purpose interference bus lines ensure data transfer integrity?
- A.
Data.
- B.
Ground.
- C.
Handshake.
- D.
Management.
Correct Answer
C. Handshake.Explanation
The general-purpose interference bus lines that ensure data transfer integrity are handshake lines. Handshake lines are used to establish communication between devices and ensure that data is transferred accurately and without errors. These lines allow devices to exchange control signals to indicate when they are ready to send or receive data, ensuring that the data transfer occurs smoothly and without interference.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The three general-purpose interface bus handshake lines are “Not Ready for Data,” “Data Valid,” and
- A.
“End or Identify.”
- B.
“Service Request.”
- C.
“Ring-back Invalid.”
- D.
“Not Data Accepted.”
Correct Answer
D. “Not Data Accepted.”Explanation
The correct answer is "Service Request." The three general-purpose interface bus handshake lines are "Not Ready for Data," which indicates that the receiving device is not ready to accept data; "Data Valid," which indicates that the data being transmitted is valid; and "Service Request," which is a signal sent by the receiving device to request service from the sending device. "End or Identify" and "Ring-back Invalid" are not valid terms used in the context of general-purpose interface bus handshake lines. "Not Data Accepted" is not a correct term for one of the handshake lines.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Why does the general-purpose interface bus controller use serial polling and which universal command initiates the poll?
- A.
To check the status of all devices on the bus; Service Request.
- B.
To check the status of all devices on the bus; Serial Poll Enable.
- C.
To determine which device has requested service; Service Request.
- D.
To determine which device has requested service; Serial Poll Enable.
Correct Answer
D. To determine which device has requested service; Serial Poll Enable.Explanation
The general-purpose interface bus controller uses serial polling to determine which device has requested service. Serial polling allows the controller to sequentially communicate with each device on the bus and inquire if it requires any service. By using the Serial Poll Enable command, the controller initiates the poll and receives responses from the devices, enabling it to identify the device that has requested service. This method ensures efficient communication and allows the controller to prioritize and address the needs of different devices on the bus.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which two lines must the general-purpose interface bus controller simultaneously activate true to execute a parallel poll?
- A.
“Attention” and “Service Request.”
- B.
“Attention” and “End of Identify.”
- C.
“Service Request” and “Interface Clear.”
- D.
“Service Request” and “End of Identify.”
Correct Answer
B. “Attention” and “End of Identify.”Explanation
The general-purpose interface bus controller must simultaneously activate "Attention" and "End of Identify" to execute a parallel poll. This means that the controller needs to send a signal to both the device requesting attention and the device indicating the end of the identification process. This ensures that the controller can effectively communicate with the devices on the bus and gather information from them in parallel.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which is not a type of device that sends or receives messages over a MIL-STD 1553 data bus?
- A.
Remote terminal.
- B.
Remote monitor.
- C.
Bus controller.
- D.
Bus monitor.
Correct Answer
B. Remote monitor.Explanation
A remote monitor is not a type of device that sends or receives messages over a MIL-STD 1553 data bus. The other options, such as remote terminal, bus controller, and bus monitor, are all valid types of devices that are used in this context. A remote terminal is a device that communicates with the bus, a bus controller is responsible for managing the data flow on the bus, and a bus monitor is used to monitor the data traffic on the bus. However, a remote monitor does not have a specific role in the MIL-STD 1553 data bus communication.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which type of MIL-STD 1553 message is generated when the bus controller instructs one remote terminal to be prepared to receive a certain number of words into one of its subaddresses and then instructs another remote terminal to send that number of data words from one of its subaddresses?
- A.
Remote terminal to bus controller.
- B.
Remote terminal to remote terminal.
- C.
Bus controller to remote terminal.
- D.
Mode command.
Correct Answer
B. Remote terminal to remote terminal.Explanation
When the bus controller instructs one remote terminal to be prepared to receive a certain number of words into one of its subaddresses and then instructs another remote terminal to send that number of data words from one of its subaddresses, it is a communication between two remote terminals. The first remote terminal is instructed to receive data, while the second remote terminal is instructed to send data. Therefore, the correct answer is "Remote terminal to remote terminal."Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which kind of message is used for management of the MIL-STD 1553 data bus?
- A.
Remote terminal to bus controller.
- B.
Remote terminal to remote terminal.
- C.
Bus controller to remote terminal.
- D.
Mode command.
Correct Answer
D. Mode command.Explanation
The correct answer is "Mode command." The mode command is used for the management of the MIL-STD 1553 data bus. This command allows the bus controller to change the operational mode of the remote terminals on the bus. It is responsible for initiating and controlling the data transfer between the remote terminals and the bus controller, ensuring efficient communication and coordination within the system.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A MIL-STD 1153 multiplex data bus short stub can have a maximum length of
- A.
1 foot.
- B.
5 feet.
- C.
20 feet.
- D.
100 feet.
Correct Answer
A. 1 foot.Explanation
A MIL-STD 1153 multiplex data bus short stub can have a maximum length of 1 foot. This means that the length of the short stub should not exceed 1 foot in order to comply with the standard. Using a longer length could result in signal degradation or other issues.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A MIL-STD 1153 multiplex data bus long stub can have a maximum length of
- A.
1 foot.
- B.
5 feet.
- C.
20 feet.
- D.
100 feet.
Correct Answer
C. 20 feet.Explanation
A MIL-STD 1153 multiplex data bus long stub can have a maximum length of 20 feet. This standard specifies the requirements for a multiplex data bus system, and a long stub refers to a branch or extension of the main bus. The maximum length of 20 feet ensures that the signal integrity and data transmission quality are maintained within acceptable limits. Going beyond this length could result in signal degradation, increased noise, and potential data errors. Therefore, 20 feet is the maximum length allowed for a MIL-STD 1153 multiplex data bus long stub.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which MIL-STD 1553 coupling technique requires a separate bus coupler unit?
- A.
Direct.
- B.
Mini stub.
- C.
Short stub.
- D.
Transformer.
Correct Answer
D. Transformer.Explanation
The MIL-STD 1553 coupling technique that requires a separate bus coupler unit is the transformer. Transformers are used to couple the bus to the terminals in the system, providing electrical isolation and impedance matching. This allows for effective communication between the bus and the terminals while minimizing signal distortion and interference. The other options, direct, mini stub, and short stub, do not require a separate bus coupler unit as they are different coupling techniques that do not involve the use of transformers.Rate this question:
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- 47.
To have adequate signal strength at the receiver, either the transmitted power must be sufficiently high or the
- A.
Efficiency of the transmitting and receiving antennas must be high.
- B.
Efficiency of the transmitting and receiving antennas must be low.
- C.
Receiver must be extremely insensitive.
- D.
Receiver must have low gain.
Correct Answer
A. Efficiency of the transmitting and receiving antennas must be high.Explanation
To have adequate signal strength at the receiver, the efficiency of the transmitting and receiving antennas must be high. This means that the antennas are able to effectively capture and transmit the signals without significant loss or degradation. If the antennas have low efficiency, it means that a significant portion of the signal is lost during transmission, resulting in a weaker signal at the receiver. Therefore, for the receiver to receive a strong signal, it is important for the antennas to have high efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What determines the proper physical size of an antenna?
- A.
Beacon frequency and desired radiation pattern.
- B.
Operating frequency and desired radiation pattern.
- C.
Operating frequency and power handling capability.
- D.
Power handling capability and desired radiation pattern.
Correct Answer
C. Operating frequency and power handling capability.Explanation
The proper physical size of an antenna is determined by its operating frequency and power handling capability. The operating frequency is important because it determines the wavelength of the signal, which in turn affects the size of the antenna elements. The power handling capability is important because it determines the maximum power that the antenna can handle without being damaged. Therefore, both factors are crucial in determining the appropriate physical size of an antenna.Rate this question:
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- 49.
With respect to the wavelength, as the size of a parabolic reflector gets
- A.
Larger, the beamwidth gets wider.
- B.
Larger, the bandwidth gets wider.
- C.
Smaller, the beamwidth gets wider.
- D.
Smaller, the bandwidth gets wider.
Correct Answer
C. Smaller, the beamwidth gets wider.Explanation
As the size of a parabolic reflector gets smaller, the beamwidth gets wider. This is because the beamwidth of a parabolic reflector is inversely proportional to the size of the reflector. A smaller reflector will have a wider beamwidth because the smaller size causes the reflected waves to spread out over a larger area. This results in a wider beamwidth, meaning the reflected waves cover a larger angular area.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Aircraft antennas are housed
- A.
Inside nonconductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.
- B.
Inside conductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.
- C.
Outside nonconductive radomes mounted outside the fuselage.
- D.
Inside conductive radomes mounted flush with the fuselage.
Correct Answer
A. Inside nonconductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.Explanation
Aircraft antennas are housed inside nonconductive radomes to protect them from the elements and to minimize interference with the aircraft's structure. These radomes are mounted outside or flush with the fuselage to ensure that the antennas have a clear line of sight for optimal signal reception and transmission. Using nonconductive materials for the radomes helps to prevent electrical interference and ensures that the antennas can operate effectively.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 24, 2009Quiz Created by
Thek4k1ng
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