Trivia: 3D152 CDC Vol 1 And 2 Ure's! Quiz
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?
- A.
Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
- B.
Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
- C.
Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
- D.
Client Systems (3D1X1).
Correct Answer
A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices. This field focuses on the transmission of radio frequency signals and ensuring their proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?
- A.
A. Transmission security.
- B.
B. Technical security.
- C.
C. Emission security.
- D.
D. Physical security.
Correct Answer
B. B. Technical security.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Technical security. Technical security refers to the protection of computer systems and networks from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. While it is an important aspect of overall cybersecurity, it is not specifically a duty and responsibility of communications security programs for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs primarily focus on ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information during transmission, as well as protecting against unauthorized disclosure or interception. This includes duties and responsibilities related to transmission security, emission security, and physical security.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A.
A. Core duty.
- B.
B. Core value.
- C.
C. Core competency.
- D.
D. Core responsibility.
Correct Answer
C. C. Core competency.Explanation
Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that individuals possess, allowing them to perform their job effectively and differentiate themselves from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for success in a specific role or profession and are developed through education, training, and experience. They contribute to an individual's overall effectiveness and are crucial for achieving organizational goals and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?
- A.
A. Fixed cable systems.
- B.
B. Voice network systems.
- C.
C. Application software systems.
- D.
D. Client-server database systems.
Correct Answer
B. B. Voice network systems.Explanation
The core competency of Cyber Transport Systems is voice network systems. This means that Cyber Transport Systems specializes in designing, implementing, and managing voice communication networks. They have expertise in technologies and protocols related to voice communication, such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) and PBX (Private Branch Exchange) systems. This competency allows Cyber Transport Systems to provide efficient and reliable voice communication solutions to their clients.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- A.
A. 1118.
- B.
B. 457.
- C.
C. 55.
- D.
D. 3.
Correct Answer
B. B. 457.Explanation
AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting safety concerns and is used to document and track hazards in order to ensure appropriate corrective actions are taken. It allows individuals to report any unsafe conditions they observe, such as faulty equipment, unsafe work practices, or potential hazards, so that they can be addressed promptly and effectively. By using AF Form 457, the Air Force can maintain a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?
- A.
A. Biological.
- B.
B. Chemical.
- C.
C. Physical.
- D.
Nuclear.
Correct Answer
D. Nuclear.Explanation
The correct answer is Nuclear. Nuclear hazards are not included in the four major types of hazards, which are biological, chemical, and physical hazards. Nuclear hazards refer to the risks associated with nuclear power plants, radioactive materials, and nuclear weapons. While nuclear hazards are significant and pose serious threats, they are not typically categorized as one of the four major types of hazards.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A.
A. Biological.
- B.
B. Chemical.
- C.
C. Physical.
- D.
D. Stress.
Correct Answer
D. D. Stress.Explanation
The given correct answer is d. Stress. This is because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to high levels of stress in the workplace. Stress can have negative effects on both physical and mental health, and can lead to various health problems such as anxiety, depression, and cardiovascular issues.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A.
A. 25.
- B.
B. 50.
- C.
C. 75.
- D.
D. 100.
Correct Answer
A. A. 25.Explanation
To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your body and increase the risk of injuries such as back strains or muscle sprains. By using team lifting, the weight is distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of injury.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the
- A.
A. trainer.
- B.
B. certifier.
- C.
C. technician.
- D.
D. supervisor.
Correct Answer
D. D. supervisor.Explanation
The safety observer plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety of the individuals working on electrical circuits. They are responsible for monitoring the work being done, identifying potential hazards, and taking immediate action in case of an emergency. The supervisor, being in a position of authority and having knowledge of safety protocols, is best suited to perform this role effectively. They can provide guidance, enforce safety measures, and make informed decisions to prevent accidents and ensure the well-being of everyone involved.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if
- A.
A. the circuit is energized.
- B.
B. you have a valid prescription.
- C.
C. they are certified for high voltage.
- D.
D. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.
Correct Answer
D. D. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.Explanation
When working on electrical circuits, it is important to ensure that any metal-framed eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord. This is because if the circuit is energized and there is a potential for electrical shocks or sparks, the metal frames could conduct electricity and pose a safety hazard. By securing the glasses with a nonmetallic cord, the risk of electrical conduction is minimized, providing a safer working environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?
- A.
A. All personnel.
- B.
B. Only safety personnel.
- C.
C. Only civilian personnel.
- D.
D. Only medical personnel.
Correct Answer
A. A. All personnel.Explanation
The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that it is not limited to a specific group or department within an organization. Risk management is a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in order to protect the organization, its employees, and its assets. By applying the RM process to all personnel, the organization ensures that everyone is involved in identifying and managing risks, promoting a culture of safety and accountability throughout the entire organization.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?
- A.
A. Risk control.
- B.
B. Safety control.
- C.
C. Risk management.
- D.
D. Safety management.
Correct Answer
C. C. Risk management.Explanation
Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, and then implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that optimize their combat capabilities while minimizing potential hazards and threats. Safety control and safety management are related concepts but focus more on ensuring the physical well-being and welfare of personnel, whereas risk management encompasses a broader approach to overall mission success.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?
- A.
A. Accept unnecessary risk.
- B.
B. Apply the RM process continuously.
- C.
C. Train and adhere to safety guidelines.
- D.
D. Make risk decisions at the lowest level.
Correct Answer
B. B. Apply the RM process continuously.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Apply the RM process continuously. This principle of risk management emphasizes the importance of consistently applying the risk management process throughout a project or organization. By continuously assessing and managing risks, potential issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, reducing the likelihood of negative impacts on the project or organization. This principle promotes a proactive approach to risk management, ensuring that risks are constantly monitored and mitigated.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?
- A.
A. Four.
- B.
B. Five.
- C.
C. Six.
- D.
D. Seven.
Correct Answer
B. B. Five.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Five. The risk management process typically consists of five steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing and analyzing risks, developing risk response strategies, implementing risk response strategies, and monitoring and controlling risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and mitigating risks within an organization or project.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?
- A.
A. I.
- B.
B. II.
- C.
C. III.
- D.
D. IV.
Correct Answer
A. A. I.Explanation
An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a Category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave has a critical vulnerability, as it lacks basic security measures such as a firewall and IDS. Without these protections in place, the enclave is highly susceptible to unauthorized access and potential attacks.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?
- A.
A. One.
- B.
B. Two.
- C.
C. Three.
- D.
D. Four.
Correct Answer
B. B. Two.Explanation
The Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).Rate this question:
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- 17.
(008) The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except
- A.
A. maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.
- B.
B. standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.
- C.
C. maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.
- D.
D. install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).
Correct Answer
D. D. install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN).Explanation
The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for several tasks, including maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN). This responsibility likely falls under a different department or team within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?
- A.
A. IP telephony.
- B.
B. Network telephony.
- C.
C. Voice protection system.
- D.
D. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).
Correct Answer
A. A. IP telephony.Explanation
IP telephony is the correct term used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). This technology allows voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines. It utilizes IP networks to transmit voice data packets, enabling cost-effective and efficient communication. Network telephony refers to the broader concept of telephony services provided over a network, while voice protection system is unrelated to the given technology. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is another commonly used term that refers to the same technology as IP telephony.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except
- A.
A. enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches.
- B.
B. deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing.
- C.
C. consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).
- D.
D. enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client.
Correct Answer
C. C. consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN). -
- 20.
(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 3.
- C.
C. 4.
- D.
D. 5.
Correct Answer
B. B. 3.Explanation
A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding packets across different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming packets and makes decisions on whether to allow or block them based on predetermined rules. By operating at this layer, the packet filter gateway can filter and control network traffic based on IP addresses, ports, protocols, and other criteria.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a circuit layer gateway operate?
- A.
A. 3.
- B.
B. 4.
- C.
C. 5.
- D.
D. 6.
Correct Answer
B. B. 4.Explanation
A circuit layer gateway operates at the fourth OSI layer, also known as the transport layer. This layer is responsible for ensuring reliable transmission of data between end systems, including error detection and correction, flow control, and congestion avoidance. The circuit layer gateway specifically manages the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits for communication between different networks. It provides a connection-oriented service and can perform functions such as segmentation and reassembly of data packets.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?
- A.
A. 4.
- B.
B. 5.
- C.
C. 6.
- D.
D. 7.
Correct Answer
D. D. 7.Explanation
An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for providing services directly to the end-user applications. An application-level firewall can monitor and control the traffic based on specific application protocols and can filter and block certain types of traffic based on the application being used. This allows for more granular control and security measures at the application level.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it
- A.
A. can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.
- B.
B. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.
- C.
C. monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.
- D.
D. monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.
Correct Answer
B. B. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.Explanation
A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is a security measure that is installed on a specific host or device to monitor and detect any unauthorized activities or intrusions. One disadvantage of using a HIDS is that it consumes resources on the host it resides on, which can slow down the device's performance. This is because the HIDS continuously analyzes and monitors the host's activities, which requires processing power and memory. As a result, the device may experience decreased speed and performance while the HIDS is running.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it
- A.
A. can decrypt data.
- B.
B. uses very few network resources.
- C.
C. monitors logs for policy violations.
- D.
D. can analyze encrypted network traffic.
Correct Answer
B. B. uses very few network resources.Explanation
A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. One advantage of a NIDS is that it uses very few network resources. This means that it does not significantly impact the performance or bandwidth of the network it is monitoring. By using minimal resources, the NIDS can effectively monitor the network without causing any disruptions or slowdowns. This makes it a practical and efficient solution for detecting and preventing network intrusions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?
- A.
A. Active.
- B.
B. Passive.
- C.
C. Host-based.
- D.
D. Network-based.
Correct Answer
C. C. Host-based.Explanation
Host-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) use software sensors to monitor and analyze activities on a specific host or endpoint. These sensors are installed directly on the host and are capable of monitoring events such as file changes, system calls, network connections, and user activities. By analyzing these events, host-based IDS can detect and alert on suspicious or malicious activities occurring on the host itself. This makes host-based IDS particularly effective in detecting insider threats and attacks targeting specific hosts or endpoints.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?
- A.
A. Active.
- B.
B. Passive.
- C.
C. Host-based.
- D.
D. Network-based.
Correct Answer
D. D. Network-based.Explanation
A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. This means that it analyzes the network traffic and looks for any abnormal behavior or patterns that may indicate a potential intrusion or attack. It also compares the packets against a database of known virus signatures to identify any malicious activity. Network-based IDS is different from host-based IDS, which monitors the activities on individual hosts or devices.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are
- A.
A. active only.
- B.
B. passive only.
- C.
C. passive and active.
- D.
D. neither passive nor active.
Correct Answer
C. C. passive and active.Explanation
Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are capable of both passive and active functions. Passive HIDS monitor and analyze system logs, network traffic, and other data sources to detect potential security breaches. They do not take direct action but provide alerts and reports to system administrators. Active HIDS, on the other hand, not only monitor but also respond to security threats by taking actions such as blocking suspicious network traffic, terminating processes, or isolating compromised systems. Therefore, HIDS can perform both passive monitoring and active response to enhance the security of the host system.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are
- A.
A. active only.
- B.
B. passive only.
- C.
C. passive and active.
- D.
D. neither passive nor active.
Correct Answer
B. B. passive only.Explanation
Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are classified as passive only because they monitor network traffic passively without actively interfering or modifying it. NIDS analyze network packets and compare them against a database of known attack signatures or abnormal behaviors to detect potential intrusions. They do not actively block or prevent attacks but instead provide alerts or notifications to system administrators for further investigation and response.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?
- A.
A. Default deny.
- B.
B. Default allow.
- C.
C. Close.
- D.
D. Open.
Correct Answer
D. D. Open.Explanation
The correct answer is "d. Open." An open security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied. This means that by default, all actions and access are allowed unless explicitly restricted. It is the opposite of a default deny posture, where everything is denied unless specifically allowed.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?
- A.
A. Digital.
- B.
B. Biometric.
- C.
C. Encryption.
- D.
D. E-mail signing.
Correct Answer
A. A. Digital.Explanation
A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is used to verify that the user is who they claim to be in digital transactions. Digital certificates use cryptographic keys to ensure the integrity and security of the information being transmitted. This type of certificate is commonly used in online banking, e-commerce, and other secure online transactions to establish trust between the user and the website or service.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?
- A.
A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.
- B.
B. Install biometrics and encryption certificates.
- C.
C. Place a lock on computer.
- D.
D. Store in locked case.
Correct Answer
A. A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.Explanation
The first line of defense in securing laptops is setting a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the laptop and its data. Biometrics and encryption certificates (option b) provide additional layers of security, but setting a login ID and password is the initial step in securing the device. Placing a lock on the computer (option c) and storing it in a locked case (option d) are physical measures that can prevent unauthorized physical access, but they do not protect against remote access or data breaches.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
- A.
A. having information ready when needed.
- B.
B. not being able to deny who performed network actions.
- C.
C. the protection of the network from those not authorized access.
- D.
D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
Correct Answer
D. D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.Explanation
The correct answer is d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission. This definition of integrity refers to the trustworthiness and reliability of data. It ensures that information remains intact and unaltered, guaranteeing its accuracy and consistency. By maintaining data integrity, organizations can prevent unauthorized modifications or deletions, thus preserving the authenticity and reliability of their data.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(014) What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?
- A.
A. 2000.
- B.
B. 3000.
- C.
C. 7000.
- D.
D. 8500.
Correct Answer
C. C. 7000.Explanation
The correct answer is c. 7000. The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series 7000 covers emission security (EMSEC). This series provides guidance and procedures for protecting against compromising emanations from electronic systems. EMSEC involves measures to prevent unauthorized interception and analysis of electromagnetic radiation emitted by electronic equipment, which could potentially reveal sensitive information or compromise the security of military systems. The AFSSI series 7000 specifically focuses on EMSEC and provides instructions for implementing protective measures to mitigate these risks.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(015) Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD’s TEMPEST program?
- A.
A. 7700.
- B.
B. 7701.
- C.
C. 7702.
- D.
D. 7703.
Correct Answer
A. A. 7700.Explanation
AFSSI 7700 provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?
- A.
A. Zoning.
- B.
B. Shielding.
- C.
C. Suppression.
- D.
D. Profile matching.
Correct Answer
A. A. Zoning.Explanation
Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. Zoning involves dividing a facility into different zones based on the level of sensitivity to radiated emanations. Each zone is then tested to ensure that the equipment and facilities within it meet the required standards for containing radiated emanations. This method ensures that sensitive information is protected from being intercepted or compromised by unauthorized individuals or entities.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone
- A.
A. A.
- B.
B. B.
- C.
C. C.
- D.
D. D.
Correct Answer
B. B. B.Explanation
A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone B. This indicates that the facility falls within a specific range of inspectable space, which is between 20 and 100 meters.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(015) Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone
- A.
A. A.
- B.
B. B.
- C.
C. C.
- D.
D. D.
Correct Answer
C. C. C.Explanation
Equipment with an equipment radiation TEMPEST zone (ERTZ) of 20 to 100 meters would be considered to be in equipment zone C. This means that the equipment is located within a designated area where electromagnetic radiation from the equipment can potentially be intercepted and exploited by unauthorized individuals. The ERTZ helps determine the level of security measures needed to protect the equipment and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?
- A.
A. It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.
- B.
B. It requires certification.
- C.
C. It is time consuming.
- D.
D. It is expensive.
Correct Answer
D. D. It is expensive.Explanation
The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that there are costs associated with the validation process, which may include the expertise and resources required for the certification. The expense involved in the validation process highlights the importance of ensuring that the equipment meets the necessary standards for protecting against electromagnetic radiation and potential security risks.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(015) What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations?
- A.
A. Distance and angle.
- B.
B. Distance and separation.
- C.
C. Induction and grounding.
- D.
D. Induction and impedance.
Correct Answer
A. A. Distance and angle.Explanation
The correct answer is a. Distance and angle. Distance refers to the physical separation between the conductor and the source of emanations, while angle refers to the direction or orientation of the conductor in relation to the source. By increasing the distance and changing the angle, a conductor can minimize the compromising emanations, which are unintentional signals or radiation that can potentially be intercepted or exploited by unauthorized individuals.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?
- A.
A. Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.
- B.
B. Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information.
- C.
C. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
- D.
D. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
Correct Answer
D. D. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.Explanation
The equipment that should be designated as RED is the one processing clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment is handling information that is not encrypted and is considered confidential and classified.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?
- A.
A. Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.
- B.
B. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.
- C.
C. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.
- D.
D. Equipment processing plaintext classified information.
Correct Answer
B. B. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.Explanation
The equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts should be designated as BLACK when it is processing encrypted classified information. This means that the equipment is capable of handling and processing information that has been encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?
- A.
A. Physical.
- B.
B. Electrical.
- C.
C. Equipment.
- D.
D. Mechanical.
Correct Answer
B. B. Electrical.Explanation
Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This type of separation is achieved by using techniques such as isolation transformers, opto-isolators, or galvanic isolation to prevent direct electrical connections between the RED and BLACK devices. By implementing electrical separation, the integrity and security of the signals are maintained, preventing unauthorized access or interference.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?
- A.
A. 100 ohms or less.
- B.
B. 50 ohms or less.
- C.
C. 20 ohms or less.
- D.
D. 10 ohms or less.
Correct Answer
D. D. 10 ohms or less.Explanation
The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This is because a low grounding resistance helps to ensure effective grounding and minimize the risk of electrical hazards such as electric shock and equipment damage. A lower grounding resistance allows for better dissipation of electrical currents and helps to maintain a stable electrical reference point for the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
- A.
A. Earth electrode.
- B.
B. Fault protection.
- C.
C. Signal reference.
- D.
D. Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
D. D. Lightning protection.Explanation
The facility ground subsystem that uses surge arrestors is the lightning protection system. Surge arrestors are devices that protect electrical systems from voltage spikes caused by lightning strikes. These devices divert the excess voltage to the ground, preventing damage to the electrical equipment. Therefore, option d, lightning protection, is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
- A.
A. Earth electrode.
- B.
B. Fault protection.
- C.
C. Signal reference.
- D.
D. Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
B. B. Fault protection.Explanation
The facility ground subsystem that is also called the safety ground is the fault protection. Fault protection is responsible for detecting and mitigating faults in electrical systems to ensure the safety of equipment and personnel. It is designed to quickly interrupt the flow of current in the event of a fault, preventing damage and reducing the risk of electrical shock or fire. The fault protection system is an essential component of any electrical installation, providing a reliable and low-impedance path for fault currents to flow, effectively grounding the system and protecting against electrical hazards.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the “signal ground” and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?
- A.
A. Earth electrode.
- B.
B. Fault protection.
- C.
C. Signal reference.
- D.
D. Lightning protection.
Correct Answer
C. C. Signal reference.Explanation
The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. This subsystem is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. It provides a stable reference point for signals and helps to maintain signal integrity by reducing interference and noise.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
- A.
A. 1 milliohm.
- B.
B. 2 milliohms.
- C.
C. 5 milliohms.
- D.
D. 10 milliohms.
Correct Answer
A. A. 1 milliohm.Explanation
Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem need to have a low resistance in order to effectively conduct electrical current to the earth. A resistance of 1 milliohm is considered to be a very low resistance and ensures a good connection between the earth electrode subsystem and the earth. This low resistance helps to prevent the buildup of excessive voltage and ensures the safety and effectiveness of the grounding system.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?
- A.
A. None.
- B.
B. Brazing.
- C.
C. Welding.
- D.
D. Mechanical.
Correct Answer
D. D. Mechanical.Explanation
Signal reference bonds are typically applied using mechanical bonding. Mechanical bonding involves physically connecting the conductive materials together using methods such as screws, bolts, or clamps. This type of bond ensures a secure and reliable connection between the signal reference points, allowing for accurate and consistent signal transmission. Unlike brazing or welding, which involve melting and fusing materials together, mechanical bonding does not require the use of heat or additional materials. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Mechanical.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?
- A.
A. Bonding.
- B.
B. Shielding.
- C.
C. Annealing.
- D.
D. Grounding.
Correct Answer
B. B. Shielding.Explanation
Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect them from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves the use of conductive materials or coatings to create a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). This helps to maintain the integrity and reliability of electronic equipment and signals by reducing the impact of external interference sources.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?
- A.
A. Cable.
- B.
B. Circuit.
- C.
C. Facility.
- D.
D. Equipment.
Correct Answer
A. A. Cable.Explanation
This type of shielding, which utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor, is commonly used in cables. Cables are designed to transmit electrical signals or power and often consist of multiple conductors enclosed in a protective sheath. The shielding helps to protect the signal or power from external interference and minimize electromagnetic emissions.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 01, 2020Quiz Created by
Jonathan Davis
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