Trivia: 3D152 CDC Vol 1 And 2 Ure's! Quiz

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(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?
- A. All personnel.
- B. Only safety personnel.
- C. Only civilian personnel.
- D. Only medical personnel.

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in military communications, focusing on deployment, troubleshooting, and security of transmission systems. It evaluates core competencies in Cyber Transport Systems and safety protocols within the Air Force, essential for professionals in this field.

Trivia: 3D152 CDC Vol 1 And 2 Ures! Quiz - Quiz

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2.

(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?
- A. Risk control.
- B. Safety control.
- C. Risk management.
- D. Safety management.
Correct Answer

A. C. Risk management.

Explanation

Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, and then implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that optimize their combat capabilities while minimizing potential hazards and threats. Safety control and safety management are related concepts but focus more on ensuring the physical well-being and welfare of personnel, whereas risk management encompasses a broader approach to overall mission success.

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3.

(020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?
- A. Protection from noise.
- B. Protection from lightning.
- C. Protection from blackouts.
- D. Protection from brownouts.
Correct Answer

A. B. Protection from lightning.

Explanation

An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. Lightning is a natural phenomenon that can cause significant damage to buildings and structures. By having a well-designed system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, the facility is able to safely redirect the electrical energy from a lightning strike to the ground, minimizing the risk of damage or fire caused by the lightning.

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4.

(021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?
- A. Working at a bench.
- B. Walking across carpet.
- C. Walking across a vinyl floor.
- D. Picking up a common plastic bag.
Correct Answer

A. B. Walking across carpet.

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current because when we walk on carpet, our shoes rub against the carpet fibers, causing the transfer of electrons. This friction creates a build-up of static electricity, leading to the generation of electrostatic current.

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5.

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
- A. Sag.
- B. Spike.
- C. Noise.
- D. Blackout.
Correct Answer

A. D. Blackout.

Explanation

A blackout is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power. During a blackout, there is a complete and sudden loss of electricity supply, resulting in a complete power outage. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or grid overload. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the utility power source will cease to function until the power is restored.

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6.

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?
- A. Sag.
- B. Spike.
- C. Noise.
- D. Blackout.
Correct Answer

A. B. Spike.

Explanation

A spike is a sudden and dramatic increase in voltage. It is a power line fault category that can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances. Spikes can occur due to lightning strikes, power surges, or other electrical disturbances. They can lead to the malfunction or failure of electronic devices, and can also pose a safety risk. Therefore, a spike is the correct answer for a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage.

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7.

(030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?
- A. RJ–11.
- B. RJ–15.
- C. RJ–45.
- D. RJ–49.
Correct Answer

A. C. RJ–45.

Explanation

RJ-45 is the correct answer because it is the standard conductor used for data networking. RJ-11 is used for telephone connections, RJ-15 is not a standard connector, and RJ-49 does not exist. RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for Ethernet connections and are compatible with most networking devices.

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8.

(038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
- A. Emitter.
- B. Receiver.
- C. Transmitter.
- D. Synchronizer.
Correct Answer

A. B. Receiver.

Explanation

The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. This section is responsible for receiving the transmitted test pattern and comparing it with the expected pattern to determine the number of bit errors. By measuring the received test pattern, the receiver section can provide valuable information about the quality and accuracy of the transmission.

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9.

(206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by
- A. 8 groups of dotted decimal numbers.
- B. 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.
- C. 4 dotted decimal numbers.
- D. 128 decimal numbers.
Correct Answer

A. B. 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. Each group consists of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. This representation allows for a much larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses dotted decimal notation. The use of hexadecimal numbers allows for a more efficient representation of the address, as it requires fewer characters.

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10.

(210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?
- A. Bus.
- B. Ring.
- C. Star.
- D. Hybrid.
Correct Answer

A. B. Ring.

Explanation

In a ring topology, the stations are connected in the form of a circle. Each station is connected to two neighboring stations, forming a continuous loop. This type of topology allows data to flow in only one direction, eliminating the need for a central hub or server. It is commonly used in networks where each station has an equal role and there is a need for high reliability, as the failure of one station does not affect the entire network.

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11.

(215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
- A. Baud rate.
- B. Interface speed.
- C. Bits per second.
- D. Baud per second.
Correct Answer

A. C. Bits per second.

Explanation

In data systems, the most commonly used term to express signaling speed is "bits per second." This refers to the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. Baud rate, on the other hand, refers to the number of signal changes per second, which may not necessarily correspond to the number of bits. Interface speed is a more general term that can refer to the overall speed of data transmission, including factors other than just the number of bits. Baud per second is not a commonly used term in data systems.

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12.

(239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
- A. circumvention, and confidentiality.
- B. circumvention, and disclosure.
- C. confidentiality, and integrity.
- D. disclosure, and integrity.
Correct Answer

A. C. confidentiality, and integrity.

Explanation

The three cornerstones of voice network system security are confidentiality and integrity. Confidentiality ensures that information is protected from unauthorized access, while integrity ensures that the information remains accurate and unaltered. These two aspects are crucial for maintaining the security of voice network systems, as they prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information and ensure the reliability and trustworthiness of the data being transmitted.

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13.

(240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?
- A. Data networks only.
- B. Voice networks only.
- C. Both voice and data networks.
- D. Neither voice nor data networks.
Correct Answer

A. C. Both voice and data networks.

Explanation

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the integration of different types of communication networks, such as voice and data, into a single network infrastructure. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure that appropriate measures are in place to protect against potential threats and vulnerabilities that may arise from the convergence of these networks. This holistic approach to security helps to safeguard sensitive information, prevent unauthorized access, and maintain the integrity and availability of both voice and data communications.

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14.

(249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
- A. Facilitate the detection of intruders.
- B. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.
- C. Provide security forces personnel a safe place to work.
- D. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
Correct Answer

A. D. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

Explanation

The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. This means that the fence acts as a barrier, preventing unauthorized individuals from easily accessing the protected area. It serves as a physical obstacle that makes it more difficult for intruders to enter, while also sending a message that the area is secure and monitored. This can discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the perimeter, as they perceive the risk of detection and apprehension to be higher.

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15.

(012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?
- A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.
- B. Install biometrics and encryption certificates.
- C. Place a lock on computer.
- D. Store in locked case.
Correct Answer

A. A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.

Explanation

The first line of defense in securing laptops is setting a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the laptop and its data. Biometrics and encryption certificates (option b) provide additional layers of security, but setting a login ID and password is the initial step in securing the device. Placing a lock on the computer (option c) and storing it in a locked case (option d) are physical measures that can prevent unauthorized physical access, but they do not protect against remote access or data breaches.

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16.

(209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
- A. Department of Defense network.
- B. Air Force network.
- C. local area network.
- D. a public network.
Correct Answer

A. D. a public network.

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and use their network resources, such as files and applications, over the internet. By using encryption and tunneling protocols, VPNs ensure that data transmitted between the AF's network and the public network remains private and secure. This allows AF personnel to work remotely or connect to resources located outside of their physical network, increasing flexibility and productivity.

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17.

(210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
- A. Bus.
- B. Ring.
- C. Star.
- D. Hybrid.
Correct Answer

A. D. Hybrid.

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies into a single network. This allows for greater flexibility and scalability in the network design. For example, a network may use a combination of bus and star topologies, where different segments of the network are connected using a bus topology, while individual devices within each segment are connected using a star topology. This combination allows for efficient communication between devices and provides redundancy in case of a failure in one segment of the network.

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18.

(211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its
- A. lag.
- B. hop.
- C. latency.
- D. time zone.
Correct Answer

A. C. latency.

Explanation

The time it takes for a switch to determine the destination of a data unit and forward it is referred to as latency. This term is used to describe the delay or time delay in network communication. It represents the time it takes for a switch to process and make decisions on where to send the data unit. Options a, b, and d are not accurate in describing this concept.

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19.

(211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?
- A. VLAN trunks.
- B. VLAN frames.
- C. VLAN links.
- D. VLAN ports.
Correct Answer

A. A. VLAN trunks.

Explanation

VLAN trunks allow the transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link. A VLAN trunk is a network link that can carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously. It is configured to allow traffic from multiple VLANs to pass through it, effectively extending the VLANs across multiple switches. By using VLAN trunks, switches can communicate with each other and exchange VLAN information, allowing for the transportation of VLAN traffic over a single physical link.

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20.

(212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?
- A. Hostname.
- B. Network name.
- C. Service Set Identifier (SSID).
- D. Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID).
Correct Answer

A. C. Service Set Identifier (SSID).

Explanation

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is a unique identifier that differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. It is essentially the network name that is broadcasted by the wireless access point (WAP) to allow devices to connect to the correct network. The SSID can be customized by the network administrator and is used by devices to identify and connect to a specific WLAN. The hostname is a unique name given to a device, not a network. The Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID) is used to separate and manage network traffic within a LAN, not to differentiate WLANs.

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21.

(215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are
- A. bits.
- B. bytes.
- C. codes.
- D. blocks.
Correct Answer

A. A. bits.

Explanation

Individual pulses within a digital signal are represented by bits. A bit is the smallest unit of information in computing and digital communications. It can have a value of either 0 or 1, representing the two possible states of a digital signal. Therefore, each individual pulse within a digital signal corresponds to a single bit. Bytes, codes, and blocks are larger units of data that consist of multiple bits.

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22.

(240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?
- A. Toll fraud.
- B. War dialing.
- C. Masquerades.
- D. Denial of service.
Correct Answer

A. C. Masquerades.

Explanation

Masquerades refer to attempts made by unauthorized individuals to gain access to a switch system by pretending to be an authorized user. This can involve using stolen credentials or impersonating someone else to deceive the system and gain unauthorized access. Toll fraud refers to unauthorized use of telecommunications services for personal gain, while war dialing involves scanning phone numbers to find vulnerable systems. Denial of service refers to attacks that aim to make a network or system unavailable to its intended users.

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23.

(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?
- Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
- Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
- Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
- Client Systems (3D1X1).
Correct Answer

A. Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices. This field focuses on the transmission of radio frequency signals and ensuring their proper functioning.

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24.

(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
- A. Core duty.
- B. Core value.
- C. Core competency.
- D. Core responsibility.
Correct Answer

A. C. Core competency.

Explanation

Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that individuals possess, allowing them to perform their job effectively and differentiate themselves from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for success in a specific role or profession and are developed through education, training, and experience. They contribute to an individual's overall effectiveness and are crucial for achieving organizational goals and objectives.

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25.

(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- A. Biological.
- B. Chemical.
- C. Physical.
- D. Stress.
Correct Answer

A. D. Stress.

Explanation

The given correct answer is d. Stress. This is because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to high levels of stress in the workplace. Stress can have negative effects on both physical and mental health, and can lead to various health problems such as anxiety, depression, and cardiovascular issues.

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26.

(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- A. 25.
- B. 50.
- C. 75.
- D. 100.
Correct Answer

A. A. 25.

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your body and increase the risk of injuries such as back strains or muscle sprains. By using team lifting, the weight is distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of injury.

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27.

(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the
- A. trainer.
- B. certifier.
- C. technician.
- D. supervisor.
Correct Answer

A. D. supervisor.

Explanation

The safety observer plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety of the individuals working on electrical circuits. They are responsible for monitoring the work being done, identifying potential hazards, and taking immediate action in case of an emergency. The supervisor, being in a position of authority and having knowledge of safety protocols, is best suited to perform this role effectively. They can provide guidance, enforce safety measures, and make informed decisions to prevent accidents and ensure the well-being of everyone involved.

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28.

(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if
- A. the circuit is energized.
- B. you have a valid prescription.
- C. they are certified for high voltage.
- D. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.
Correct Answer

A. D. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

Explanation

When working on electrical circuits, it is important to ensure that any metal-framed eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord. This is because if the circuit is energized and there is a potential for electrical shocks or sparks, the metal frames could conduct electricity and pose a safety hazard. By securing the glasses with a nonmetallic cord, the risk of electrical conduction is minimized, providing a safer working environment.

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29.

(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?
- A. Accept unnecessary risk.
- B. Apply the RM process continuously.
- C. Train and adhere to safety guidelines.
- D. Make risk decisions at the lowest level.
Correct Answer

A. B. Apply the RM process continuously.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Apply the RM process continuously. This principle of risk management emphasizes the importance of consistently applying the risk management process throughout a project or organization. By continuously assessing and managing risks, potential issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, reducing the likelihood of negative impacts on the project or organization. This principle promotes a proactive approach to risk management, ensuring that risks are constantly monitored and mitigated.

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30.

(010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it
- A. can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.
- B. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.
- C. monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.
- D. monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.
Correct Answer

A. B. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is a security measure that is installed on a specific host or device to monitor and detect any unauthorized activities or intrusions. One disadvantage of using a HIDS is that it consumes resources on the host it resides on, which can slow down the device's performance. This is because the HIDS continuously analyzes and monitors the host's activities, which requires processing power and memory. As a result, the device may experience decreased speed and performance while the HIDS is running.

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31.

(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is
- A. having information ready when needed.
- B. not being able to deny who performed network actions.
- C. the protection of the network from those not authorized access.
- D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.
Correct Answer

A. D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission. This definition of integrity refers to the trustworthiness and reliability of data. It ensures that information remains intact and unaltered, guaranteeing its accuracy and consistency. By maintaining data integrity, organizations can prevent unauthorized modifications or deletions, thus preserving the authenticity and reliability of their data.

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32.

(022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?
- A. Sag.
- B. Spike.
- C. Noise.
- D. Blackout.
Correct Answer

A. C. Noise.

Explanation

Electro-magnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are both types of electrical disturbances that can affect power lines. EMI refers to interference caused by electromagnetic radiation from external sources, while RFI refers to interference caused by radio frequency signals. These disturbances can disrupt the normal flow of electricity and cause problems in electronic devices. The term "noise" is commonly used to describe these types of electrical disturbances, making it the correct answer for this question.

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33.

(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?
- A. Passive standby.
- B. Line interactive.
- C. Double conversion.
- D. Ferro resonant standby.
Correct Answer

A. A. Passive standby.

Explanation

Passive standby is traditionally referred to as an "offline" uninterruptible power supply (UPS). This type of UPS allows the connected equipment to be powered directly from the main power source, bypassing the UPS until a power failure occurs. When a power failure occurs, the UPS switches to battery power to provide uninterrupted power supply to the connected equipment. This type of UPS is typically less expensive and simpler in design compared to other types of UPSs.

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34.

(033) When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly
- A. round.
- B. elliptical.
- C. flat and level.
- D. flat with a 45-degree angle.
Correct Answer

A. C. flat and level.

Explanation

When using a polishing cloth, it is important to remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time. This is done to ensure that the fiber becomes flat and level. Removing the fiber gradually allows for a more precise and even polishing surface, which is necessary for achieving the desired result. Therefore, the correct answer is c. flat and level.

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35.

(038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?
- A. Cyclic redundancy check.
- B. Bipolar violation.
- C. Bit slip.
- D. Frame.
Correct Answer

A. B. Bipolar violation.

Explanation

A bipolar violation is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules. In alternate mark inversion coding, each logic one is represented by alternating polarities. When two successive logic ones of the same polarity occur, it is considered a violation of this coding rule and is known as a bipolar violation.

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36.

(040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
- A. Packet internetwork groper (PING).
- B. Traffic generator.
- C. Route generator.
- D. Trace route.
Correct Answer

A. A. Packet internetwork groper (PING).

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Packet internetwork groper (PING)". PING is a commonly used active test on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the target node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responding. If no response is received, it suggests that the node may be disconnected or not responding. PING is a simple and effective way to test network connectivity and diagnose network issues.

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37.

(201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?
- A. Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).
- B. Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG).
- C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
- D. G.711.
Correct Answer

A. A. Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

Explanation

MPEG-4 is a video compression standard developed by the Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG). It is commonly used for streaming video over the internet and is known for its ability to compress video files while maintaining high quality. Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) is a compression standard for still images, not videos. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard for transferring files, not compressing videos. G.711 is a standard for audio compression, not video compression. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4).

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38.

(204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?
- A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
- B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
- C. Network Time Protocol (NTP).
- D. Packet Internet Groper (PING).
Correct Answer

A. C. Network Time Protocol (NTP).

Explanation

The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is designed to synchronize timekeeping among a set of distributed time servers and clients. It allows computers to maintain accurate and synchronized time, which is important for various network operations and applications. SNMP is used for network management, DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses, and PING is used for testing network connectivity.

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39.

(208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?
- A. Auxiliary.
- B. Console.
- C. Ethernet.
- D. Telnet.
Correct Answer

A. B. Console.

Explanation

The console port is used for the initial configuration of a router. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) through a console cable. It is typically used for initial setup, troubleshooting, or password recovery. The console port provides a physical connection to the router, allowing configuration changes to be made directly. Other ports like auxiliary, Ethernet, and Telnet may be used for different purposes, but the console port is specifically designed for initial configuration.

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40.

(217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
- A. Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.
- B. NRZ mark.
- C. NRZ space.
- D. Return-to-zero.
Correct Answer

A. D. Return-to-zero.

Explanation

In a return-to-zero digital signal, the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels (either high or low), but it always returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that there is a clear distinction between the signal levels and a regular transition back to zero, which helps in accurately interpreting the signal. This is in contrast to non-return-to-zero (NRZ) signals, where the signal level can remain at one of the discrete levels for an extended period of time without returning to zero.

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41.

(251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
- A. Ultrasonic.
- B. Microwave.
- C. Passive infrared.
- D. Dual-phenomenology.
Correct Answer

A. C. Passive infrared.

Explanation

Passive infrared sensors detect intruders by sensing the heat radiation emitted by their bodies. These sensors are designed to detect changes in infrared energy within their field of view, and when an intruder crosses the sensor's path, it detects the difference in temperature and triggers an alarm. This makes passive infrared sensors an effective choice for interior intrusion detection systems as they can accurately detect human presence based on heat radiation.

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42.

(252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?
- A. None.
- B. Tamper.
- C. Intruder.
- D. Equipment fault.
Correct Answer

A. B. Tamper.

Explanation

If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is designed to alert the system that the sensor has been tampered with or its integrity has been compromised.

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43.

(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?
- A. Biological.
- B. Chemical.
- C. Physical.
- Nuclear.
Correct Answer

A. Nuclear.

Explanation

The correct answer is Nuclear. Nuclear hazards are not included in the four major types of hazards, which are biological, chemical, and physical hazards. Nuclear hazards refer to the risks associated with nuclear power plants, radioactive materials, and nuclear weapons. While nuclear hazards are significant and pose serious threats, they are not typically categorized as one of the four major types of hazards.

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44.

(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?
- A. It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.
- B. It requires certification.
- C. It is time consuming.
- D. It is expensive.
Correct Answer

A. D. It is expensive.

Explanation

The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that there are costs associated with the validation process, which may include the expertise and resources required for the certification. The expense involved in the validation process highlights the importance of ensuring that the equipment meets the necessary standards for protecting against electromagnetic radiation and potential security risks.

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45.

(028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?
- A. Unshielded.
- B. Shielded.
- C. Twisted pair.
- D. Multipair.
Correct Answer

A. B. Shielded.

Explanation

Shielded cables are designed to minimize the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). They have a conductive layer or shield around the inner conductor(s) that helps to block external electromagnetic fields from entering or exiting the cable. This shielding prevents the cable from radiating energy and also protects it from being affected by nearby magnetic fields. Therefore, shielded cables are the type of cable that does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields.

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46.

(029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?
- A. Tip and Ring.
- B. Tip and Color.
- C. Rate and Color.
- D. Pair and Position.
Correct Answer

A. A. Tip and Ring.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Tip and Ring." In telecommunications, the terms "tip" and "ring" are used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable. The tip is the positive side, and the ring is the negative side. This terminology is commonly used in telephone systems and audio equipment.

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47.

(034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
- A. Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
- B. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
- C. Place the meter in the frequency mode.
- D. Set the range for maximum reading.
Correct Answer

A. B. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

Explanation

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is because leaving the power connected can lead to inaccurate readings and potential damage to the meter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, you ensure that there is no current flowing through the circuit, allowing for a more accurate resistance measurement.

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48.

(036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
- A. Masking.
- B. Distortion.
- C. Deflection.
- D. Overloading.
Correct Answer

A. B. Distortion.

Explanation

Advancing the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far can result in distortion of the observed signal. This occurs because the synchronizing control is responsible for aligning the horizontal sweep of the oscilloscope with the input signal. When advanced too far, the sweep may not properly synchronize with the signal, causing distortion in the waveform displayed on the screen.

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49.

(203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
- A. SEQ.
- B. SYN.
- C. STX.
- D. EST.
Correct Answer

A. B. SYN.

Explanation

In binary-synchronous protocol, the SYN character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. This character is sent by the sender to indicate the start of a transmission and is acknowledged by the receiver to confirm synchronization. It helps ensure that both ends of the communication are in sync and ready to transmit and receive data accurately.

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Jan 01, 2020

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Trivia: 3D152 CDC Vol 1 And 2 Ure's! Quiz

(006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

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(006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

(020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

(021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

(022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

(030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

(038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

(206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

(210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

(215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

(239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

(240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

(249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

(012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

(209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

(210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

(211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

(211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

(212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

(215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

(240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

(001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

(003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

(005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

(005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

(005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

(005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

(007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

(010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

(013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

(022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

(022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as “offline”?

(033) When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

(038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

(040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

(201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

(204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

(208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

(217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

(251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

(252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

(005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

(015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

(028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

(029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

(034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

(036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

(203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?