Trivia: 3D152 CDC Vol 1 And 2 Ure's! Quiz

1. (030) What is the standard conductor used for data networking?

A. RJ–11.

B. RJ–15.

C. RJ–45.

D. RJ–49.

RJ-45 is the correct answer because it is the standard conductor used for data networking. RJ-11 is used for telephone connections, RJ-15 is not a standard connector, and RJ-49 does not exist. RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for Ethernet connections and are compatible with most networking devices.

Explanation

RJ-45 is the correct answer because it is the standard conductor used for data networking. RJ-11 is used for telephone connections, RJ-15 is not a standard connector, and RJ-49 does not exist. RJ-45 connectors are commonly used for Ethernet connections and are compatible with most networking devices.

2. (038) Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?

A. Emitter.

B. Receiver.

C. Transmitter.

D. Synchronizer.

The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. This section is responsible for receiving the transmitted test pattern and comparing it with the expected pattern to determine the number of bit errors. By measuring the received test pattern, the receiver section can provide valuable information about the quality and accuracy of the transmission.

Explanation

The receiver section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern. This section is responsible for receiving the transmitted test pattern and comparing it with the expected pattern to determine the number of bit errors. By measuring the received test pattern, the receiver section can provide valuable information about the quality and accuracy of the transmission.

3. (239) The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

A. circumvention, and confidentiality.

B. circumvention, and disclosure.

C. confidentiality, and integrity.

D. disclosure, and integrity.

The three cornerstones of voice network system security are confidentiality and integrity. Confidentiality ensures that information is protected from unauthorized access, while integrity ensures that the information remains accurate and unaltered. These two aspects are crucial for maintaining the security of voice network systems, as they prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information and ensure the reliability and trustworthiness of the data being transmitted.

Explanation

The three cornerstones of voice network system security are confidentiality and integrity. Confidentiality ensures that information is protected from unauthorized access, while integrity ensures that the information remains accurate and unaltered. These two aspects are crucial for maintaining the security of voice network systems, as they prevent unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information and ensure the reliability and trustworthiness of the data being transmitted.

4. (240) What should security policies encompass to help mitigate the threat of convergence?

A. Data networks only.

B. Voice networks only.

C. Both voice and data networks.

D. Neither voice nor data networks.

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the integration of different types of communication networks, such as voice and data, into a single network infrastructure. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure that appropriate measures are in place to protect against potential threats and vulnerabilities that may arise from the convergence of these networks. This holistic approach to security helps to safeguard sensitive information, prevent unauthorized access, and maintain the integrity and availability of both voice and data communications.

Explanation

Security policies should encompass both voice and data networks to help mitigate the threat of convergence. Convergence refers to the integration of different types of communication networks, such as voice and data, into a single network infrastructure. By including both voice and data networks in security policies, organizations can ensure that appropriate measures are in place to protect against potential threats and vulnerabilities that may arise from the convergence of these networks. This holistic approach to security helps to safeguard sensitive information, prevent unauthorized access, and maintain the integrity and availability of both voice and data communications.

5. (215) What is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?

A. Baud rate.

B. Interface speed.

C. Bits per second.

D. Baud per second.

In data systems, the most commonly used term to express signaling speed is "bits per second." This refers to the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. Baud rate, on the other hand, refers to the number of signal changes per second, which may not necessarily correspond to the number of bits. Interface speed is a more general term that can refer to the overall speed of data transmission, including factors other than just the number of bits. Baud per second is not a commonly used term in data systems.

Explanation

In data systems, the most commonly used term to express signaling speed is "bits per second." This refers to the number of bits that can be transmitted or processed in one second. Baud rate, on the other hand, refers to the number of signal changes per second, which may not necessarily correspond to the number of bits. Interface speed is a more general term that can refer to the overall speed of data transmission, including factors other than just the number of bits. Baud per second is not a commonly used term in data systems.

6. (206) Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses are represented by

A. 8 groups of dotted decimal numbers.

B. 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers.

C. 4 dotted decimal numbers.

D. 128 decimal numbers.

IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. Each group consists of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. This representation allows for a much larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses dotted decimal notation. The use of hexadecimal numbers allows for a more efficient representation of the address, as it requires fewer characters.

Explanation

IPv6 addresses are represented by 8 groups of hexadecimal numbers. Each group consists of four hexadecimal digits, separated by colons. This representation allows for a much larger address space compared to IPv4, which uses dotted decimal notation. The use of hexadecimal numbers allows for a more efficient representation of the address, as it requires fewer characters.

7. (006) To whom does the risk management (RM) process apply?

A. All personnel.

B. Only safety personnel.

C. Only civilian personnel.

D. Only medical personnel.

The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that it is not limited to a specific group or department within an organization. Risk management is a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in order to protect the organization, its employees, and its assets. By applying the RM process to all personnel, the organization ensures that everyone is involved in identifying and managing risks, promoting a culture of safety and accountability throughout the entire organization.

Explanation

The risk management (RM) process applies to all personnel. This means that it is not limited to a specific group or department within an organization. Risk management is a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in order to protect the organization, its employees, and its assets. By applying the RM process to all personnel, the organization ensures that everyone is involved in identifying and managing risks, promoting a culture of safety and accountability throughout the entire organization.

8. (006) What simple, systematic process allows commanders to maximize combat capability, while limiting risk?

A. Risk control.

B. Safety control.

C. Risk management.

D. Safety management.

Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, and then implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that optimize their combat capabilities while minimizing potential hazards and threats. Safety control and safety management are related concepts but focus more on ensuring the physical well-being and welfare of personnel, whereas risk management encompasses a broader approach to overall mission success.

Explanation

Risk management is a simple, systematic process that allows commanders to maximize combat capability while limiting risk. It involves identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, and then implementing measures to mitigate or eliminate those risks. By effectively managing risks, commanders can make informed decisions that optimize their combat capabilities while minimizing potential hazards and threats. Safety control and safety management are related concepts but focus more on ensuring the physical well-being and welfare of personnel, whereas risk management encompasses a broader approach to overall mission success.

9. (210) Which topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?

A. Bus.

B. Ring.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

In a ring topology, the stations are connected in the form of a circle. Each station is connected to two neighboring stations, forming a continuous loop. This type of topology allows data to flow in only one direction, eliminating the need for a central hub or server. It is commonly used in networks where each station has an equal role and there is a need for high reliability, as the failure of one station does not affect the entire network.

Explanation

In a ring topology, the stations are connected in the form of a circle. Each station is connected to two neighboring stations, forming a continuous loop. This type of topology allows data to flow in only one direction, eliminating the need for a central hub or server. It is commonly used in networks where each station has an equal role and there is a need for high reliability, as the failure of one station does not affect the entire network.

10. (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

A. Facilitate the detection of intruders.

B. Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone.

C. Provide security forces personnel a safe place to work.

D. To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.

The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. This means that the fence acts as a barrier, preventing unauthorized individuals from easily accessing the protected area. It serves as a physical obstacle that makes it more difficult for intruders to enter, while also sending a message that the area is secure and monitored. This can discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the perimeter, as they perceive the risk of detection and apprehension to be higher.

Explanation

The main purpose of a boundary fence in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry. This means that the fence acts as a barrier, preventing unauthorized individuals from easily accessing the protected area. It serves as a physical obstacle that makes it more difficult for intruders to enter, while also sending a message that the area is secure and monitored. This can discourage potential intruders from attempting to breach the perimeter, as they perceive the risk of detection and apprehension to be higher.

11. (020) What does an integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provide for a facility?

A. Protection from noise.

B. Protection from lightning.

C. Protection from blackouts.

D. Protection from brownouts.

An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. Lightning is a natural phenomenon that can cause significant damage to buildings and structures. By having a well-designed system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, the facility is able to safely redirect the electrical energy from a lightning strike to the ground, minimizing the risk of damage or fire caused by the lightning.

Explanation

An integral system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, securely interconnected to the shortest practicable path to earth provides protection from lightning. Lightning is a natural phenomenon that can cause significant damage to buildings and structures. By having a well-designed system of air terminals, roof conductors, and down conductors, the facility is able to safely redirect the electrical energy from a lightning strike to the ground, minimizing the risk of damage or fire caused by the lightning.

12. (021) Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic current?

A. Working at a bench.

B. Walking across carpet.

C. Walking across a vinyl floor.

D. Picking up a common plastic bag.

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current because when we walk on carpet, our shoes rub against the carpet fibers, causing the transfer of electrons. This friction creates a build-up of static electricity, leading to the generation of electrostatic current.

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic current because when we walk on carpet, our shoes rub against the carpet fibers, causing the transfer of electrons. This friction creates a build-up of static electricity, leading to the generation of electrostatic current.

13. (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

A. Sag.

B. Spike.

C. Noise.

D. Blackout.

A blackout is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power. During a blackout, there is a complete and sudden loss of electricity supply, resulting in a complete power outage. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or grid overload. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the utility power source will cease to function until the power is restored.

Explanation

A blackout is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power. During a blackout, there is a complete and sudden loss of electricity supply, resulting in a complete power outage. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or grid overload. During a blackout, all electrical devices and systems connected to the utility power source will cease to function until the power is restored.

14. (022) Which power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage?

A. Sag.

B. Spike.

C. Noise.

D. Blackout.

A spike is a sudden and dramatic increase in voltage. It is a power line fault category that can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances. Spikes can occur due to lightning strikes, power surges, or other electrical disturbances. They can lead to the malfunction or failure of electronic devices, and can also pose a safety risk. Therefore, a spike is the correct answer for a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage.

Explanation

A spike is a sudden and dramatic increase in voltage. It is a power line fault category that can cause damage to electrical equipment and appliances. Spikes can occur due to lightning strikes, power surges, or other electrical disturbances. They can lead to the malfunction or failure of electronic devices, and can also pose a safety risk. Therefore, a spike is the correct answer for a power line fault category that is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage.

15. (240) What are attempts to gain access to a switch system by posing as an authorized user?

A. Toll fraud.

B. War dialing.

C. Masquerades.

D. Denial of service.

Masquerades refer to attempts made by unauthorized individuals to gain access to a switch system by pretending to be an authorized user. This can involve using stolen credentials or impersonating someone else to deceive the system and gain unauthorized access. Toll fraud refers to unauthorized use of telecommunications services for personal gain, while war dialing involves scanning phone numbers to find vulnerable systems. Denial of service refers to attacks that aim to make a network or system unavailable to its intended users.

Explanation

Masquerades refer to attempts made by unauthorized individuals to gain access to a switch system by pretending to be an authorized user. This can involve using stolen credentials or impersonating someone else to deceive the system and gain unauthorized access. Toll fraud refers to unauthorized use of telecommunications services for personal gain, while war dialing involves scanning phone numbers to find vulnerable systems. Denial of service refers to attacks that aim to make a network or system unavailable to its intended users.

16. (209) Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

A. Department of Defense network.

B. Air Force network.

C. local area network.

D. a public network.

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and use their network resources, such as files and applications, over the internet. By using encryption and tunneling protocols, VPNs ensure that data transmitted between the AF's network and the public network remains private and secure. This allows AF personnel to work remotely or connect to resources located outside of their physical network, increasing flexibility and productivity.

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and use their network resources, such as files and applications, over the internet. By using encryption and tunneling protocols, VPNs ensure that data transmitted between the AF's network and the public network remains private and secure. This allows AF personnel to work remotely or connect to resources located outside of their physical network, increasing flexibility and productivity.

17. (210) Which topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

A. Bus.

B. Ring.

C. Star.

D. Hybrid.

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies into a single network. This allows for greater flexibility and scalability in the network design. For example, a network may use a combination of bus and star topologies, where different segments of the network are connected using a bus topology, while individual devices within each segment are connected using a star topology. This combination allows for efficient communication between devices and provides redundancy in case of a failure in one segment of the network.

Explanation

A hybrid topology combines two or more different physical topologies into a single network. This allows for greater flexibility and scalability in the network design. For example, a network may use a combination of bus and star topologies, where different segments of the network are connected using a bus topology, while individual devices within each segment are connected using a star topology. This combination allows for efficient communication between devices and provides redundancy in case of a failure in one segment of the network.

18. (211) The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called its

A. lag.

B. hop.

C. latency.

D. time zone.

The time it takes for a switch to determine the destination of a data unit and forward it is referred to as latency. This term is used to describe the delay or time delay in network communication. It represents the time it takes for a switch to process and make decisions on where to send the data unit. Options a, b, and d are not accurate in describing this concept.

Explanation

The time it takes for a switch to determine the destination of a data unit and forward it is referred to as latency. This term is used to describe the delay or time delay in network communication. It represents the time it takes for a switch to process and make decisions on where to send the data unit. Options a, b, and d are not accurate in describing this concept.

19. (211) What allows transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

A. VLAN trunks.

B. VLAN frames.

C. VLAN links.

D. VLAN ports.

VLAN trunks allow the transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link. A VLAN trunk is a network link that can carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously. It is configured to allow traffic from multiple VLANs to pass through it, effectively extending the VLANs across multiple switches. By using VLAN trunks, switches can communicate with each other and exchange VLAN information, allowing for the transportation of VLAN traffic over a single physical link.

Explanation

VLAN trunks allow the transportation of all active Virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link. A VLAN trunk is a network link that can carry traffic for multiple VLANs simultaneously. It is configured to allow traffic from multiple VLANs to pass through it, effectively extending the VLANs across multiple switches. By using VLAN trunks, switches can communicate with each other and exchange VLAN information, allowing for the transportation of VLAN traffic over a single physical link.

20. (212) What identifier differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another?

A. Hostname.

B. Network name.

C. Service Set Identifier (SSID).

D. Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID).

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is a unique identifier that differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. It is essentially the network name that is broadcasted by the wireless access point (WAP) to allow devices to connect to the correct network. The SSID can be customized by the network administrator and is used by devices to identify and connect to a specific WLAN. The hostname is a unique name given to a device, not a network. The Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID) is used to separate and manage network traffic within a LAN, not to differentiate WLANs.

Explanation

The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is a unique identifier that differentiates one wireless local area network (WLAN) from another. It is essentially the network name that is broadcasted by the wireless access point (WAP) to allow devices to connect to the correct network. The SSID can be customized by the network administrator and is used by devices to identify and connect to a specific WLAN. The hostname is a unique name given to a device, not a network. The Virtual LAN Identifier (VLAN ID) is used to separate and manage network traffic within a LAN, not to differentiate WLANs.

21. (012) What is the first line of defense in securing laptops?

A. Set a login ID and password combination for access.

B. Install biometrics and encryption certificates.

C. Place a lock on computer.

D. Store in locked case.

The first line of defense in securing laptops is setting a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the laptop and its data. Biometrics and encryption certificates (option b) provide additional layers of security, but setting a login ID and password is the initial step in securing the device. Placing a lock on the computer (option c) and storing it in a locked case (option d) are physical measures that can prevent unauthorized physical access, but they do not protect against remote access or data breaches.

Explanation

The first line of defense in securing laptops is setting a login ID and password combination for access. This helps to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the laptop and its data. Biometrics and encryption certificates (option b) provide additional layers of security, but setting a login ID and password is the initial step in securing the device. Placing a lock on the computer (option c) and storing it in a locked case (option d) are physical measures that can prevent unauthorized physical access, but they do not protect against remote access or data breaches.

22. (215) Individual pulses within a digital signal are

A. bits.

B. bytes.

C. codes.

D. blocks.

Individual pulses within a digital signal are represented by bits. A bit is the smallest unit of information in computing and digital communications. It can have a value of either 0 or 1, representing the two possible states of a digital signal. Therefore, each individual pulse within a digital signal corresponds to a single bit. Bytes, codes, and blocks are larger units of data that consist of multiple bits.

Explanation

Individual pulses within a digital signal are represented by bits. A bit is the smallest unit of information in computing and digital communications. It can have a value of either 0 or 1, representing the two possible states of a digital signal. Therefore, each individual pulse within a digital signal corresponds to a single bit. Bytes, codes, and blocks are larger units of data that consist of multiple bits.

23. (033) When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly

A. round.

B. elliptical.

C. flat and level.

D. flat with a 45-degree angle.

When using a polishing cloth, it is important to remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time. This is done to ensure that the fiber becomes flat and level. Removing the fiber gradually allows for a more precise and even polishing surface, which is necessary for achieving the desired result. Therefore, the correct answer is c. flat and level.

Explanation

When using a polishing cloth, it is important to remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time. This is done to ensure that the fiber becomes flat and level. Removing the fiber gradually allows for a more precise and even polishing surface, which is necessary for achieving the desired result. Therefore, the correct answer is c. flat and level.

24. (038) What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules?

A. Cyclic redundancy check.

B. Bipolar violation.

C. Bit slip.

D. Frame.

A bipolar violation is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules. In alternate mark inversion coding, each logic one is represented by alternating polarities. When two successive logic ones of the same polarity occur, it is considered a violation of this coding rule and is known as a bipolar violation.

Explanation

A bipolar violation is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules. In alternate mark inversion coding, each logic one is represented by alternating polarities. When two successive logic ones of the same polarity occur, it is considered a violation of this coding rule and is known as a bipolar violation.

25. (040) What active test is selected on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

A. Packet internetwork groper (PING).

B. Traffic generator.

C. Route generator.

D. Trace route.

The correct answer is "a. Packet internetwork groper (PING)". PING is a commonly used active test on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the target node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responding. If no response is received, it suggests that the node may be disconnected or not responding. PING is a simple and effective way to test network connectivity and diagnose network issues.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Packet internetwork groper (PING)". PING is a commonly used active test on a protocol analyzer to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the target node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responding. If no response is received, it suggests that the node may be disconnected or not responding. PING is a simple and effective way to test network connectivity and diagnose network issues.

26. (201) Which of the following is an example of a video compression standard?

A. Motion Picture Experts Group–4 (MPEG–4).

B. Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG).

C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

D. G.711.

MPEG-4 is a video compression standard developed by the Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG). It is commonly used for streaming video over the internet and is known for its ability to compress video files while maintaining high quality. Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) is a compression standard for still images, not videos. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard for transferring files, not compressing videos. G.711 is a standard for audio compression, not video compression. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4).

Explanation

MPEG-4 is a video compression standard developed by the Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG). It is commonly used for streaming video over the internet and is known for its ability to compress video files while maintaining high quality. Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) is a compression standard for still images, not videos. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard for transferring files, not compressing videos. G.711 is a standard for audio compression, not video compression. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Motion Picture Experts Group-4 (MPEG-4).

27. (217) In what type of digital signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?

A. Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level.

B. NRZ mark.

C. NRZ space.

D. Return-to-zero.

In a return-to-zero digital signal, the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels (either high or low), but it always returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that there is a clear distinction between the signal levels and a regular transition back to zero, which helps in accurately interpreting the signal. This is in contrast to non-return-to-zero (NRZ) signals, where the signal level can remain at one of the discrete levels for an extended period of time without returning to zero.

Explanation

In a return-to-zero digital signal, the signal level moves to one of the discrete signal levels (either high or low), but it always returns to the zero level after a predetermined time. This means that there is a clear distinction between the signal levels and a regular transition back to zero, which helps in accurately interpreting the signal. This is in contrast to non-return-to-zero (NRZ) signals, where the signal level can remain at one of the discrete levels for an extended period of time without returning to zero.

28. (204) Which Application layer protocol is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?

A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).

C. Network Time Protocol (NTP).

D. Packet Internet Groper (PING).

The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is designed to synchronize timekeeping among a set of distributed time servers and clients. It allows computers to maintain accurate and synchronized time, which is important for various network operations and applications. SNMP is used for network management, DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses, and PING is used for testing network connectivity.

Explanation

The Network Time Protocol (NTP) is used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network. NTP is designed to synchronize timekeeping among a set of distributed time servers and clients. It allows computers to maintain accurate and synchronized time, which is important for various network operations and applications. SNMP is used for network management, DHCP is used for assigning IP addresses, and PING is used for testing network connectivity.

29. (003) What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

A. Core duty.

B. Core value.

C. Core competency.

D. Core responsibility.

Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that individuals possess, allowing them to perform their job effectively and differentiate themselves from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for success in a specific role or profession and are developed through education, training, and experience. They contribute to an individual's overall effectiveness and are crucial for achieving organizational goals and objectives.

Explanation

Core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It refers to the unique capabilities and strengths that individuals possess, allowing them to perform their job effectively and differentiate themselves from others in the same field. Core competencies are essential for success in a specific role or profession and are developed through education, training, and experience. They contribute to an individual's overall effectiveness and are crucial for achieving organizational goals and objectives.

30. (005) Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

A. Biological.

B. Chemical.

C. Physical.

D. Stress.

The given correct answer is d. Stress. This is because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to high levels of stress in the workplace. Stress can have negative effects on both physical and mental health, and can lead to various health problems such as anxiety, depression, and cardiovascular issues.

Explanation

The given correct answer is d. Stress. This is because heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to high levels of stress in the workplace. Stress can have negative effects on both physical and mental health, and can lead to various health problems such as anxiety, depression, and cardiovascular issues.

31. (005) To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

A. 25.

B. 50.

C. 75.

D. 100.

To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your body and increase the risk of injuries such as back strains or muscle sprains. By using team lifting, the weight is distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of injury.

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, team lifting should be utilized when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This is because lifting heavy objects on your own can put excessive strain on your body and increase the risk of injuries such as back strains or muscle sprains. By using team lifting, the weight is distributed among multiple individuals, reducing the strain on each person and minimizing the risk of injury.

32. (005) When working on electrical circuits, the role of safety observer is normally performed by the

A. trainer.

B. certifier.

C. technician.

D. supervisor.

The safety observer plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety of the individuals working on electrical circuits. They are responsible for monitoring the work being done, identifying potential hazards, and taking immediate action in case of an emergency. The supervisor, being in a position of authority and having knowledge of safety protocols, is best suited to perform this role effectively. They can provide guidance, enforce safety measures, and make informed decisions to prevent accidents and ensure the well-being of everyone involved.

Explanation

The safety observer plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety of the individuals working on electrical circuits. They are responsible for monitoring the work being done, identifying potential hazards, and taking immediate action in case of an emergency. The supervisor, being in a position of authority and having knowledge of safety protocols, is best suited to perform this role effectively. They can provide guidance, enforce safety measures, and make informed decisions to prevent accidents and ensure the well-being of everyone involved.

33. (005) When working on electrical circuits, you may only wear metal framed eyeglasses if

A. the circuit is energized.

B. you have a valid prescription.

C. they are certified for high voltage.

D. they are secured with a nonmetallic cord.

When working on electrical circuits, it is important to ensure that any metal-framed eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord. This is because if the circuit is energized and there is a potential for electrical shocks or sparks, the metal frames could conduct electricity and pose a safety hazard. By securing the glasses with a nonmetallic cord, the risk of electrical conduction is minimized, providing a safer working environment.

Explanation

When working on electrical circuits, it is important to ensure that any metal-framed eyeglasses are secured with a nonmetallic cord. This is because if the circuit is energized and there is a potential for electrical shocks or sparks, the metal frames could conduct electricity and pose a safety hazard. By securing the glasses with a nonmetallic cord, the risk of electrical conduction is minimized, providing a safer working environment.

34. (208) Which router port is used for initial configuration?

A. Auxiliary.

B. Console.

C. Ethernet.

D. Telnet.

The console port is used for the initial configuration of a router. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) through a console cable. It is typically used for initial setup, troubleshooting, or password recovery. The console port provides a physical connection to the router, allowing configuration changes to be made directly. Other ports like auxiliary, Ethernet, and Telnet may be used for different purposes, but the console port is specifically designed for initial configuration.

Explanation

The console port is used for the initial configuration of a router. This port allows direct access to the router's command-line interface (CLI) through a console cable. It is typically used for initial setup, troubleshooting, or password recovery. The console port provides a physical connection to the router, allowing configuration changes to be made directly. Other ports like auxiliary, Ethernet, and Telnet may be used for different purposes, but the console port is specifically designed for initial configuration.

35. (007) Which of the following is a principle of risk management (RM)?

A. Accept unnecessary risk.

B. Apply the RM process continuously.

C. Train and adhere to safety guidelines.

D. Make risk decisions at the lowest level.

The correct answer is b. Apply the RM process continuously. This principle of risk management emphasizes the importance of consistently applying the risk management process throughout a project or organization. By continuously assessing and managing risks, potential issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, reducing the likelihood of negative impacts on the project or organization. This principle promotes a proactive approach to risk management, ensuring that risks are constantly monitored and mitigated.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Apply the RM process continuously. This principle of risk management emphasizes the importance of consistently applying the risk management process throughout a project or organization. By continuously assessing and managing risks, potential issues can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, reducing the likelihood of negative impacts on the project or organization. This principle promotes a proactive approach to risk management, ensuring that risks are constantly monitored and mitigated.

36. (010) The disadvantage of a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is that it

A. can analyze any encrypted data if it is decrypted before reaching the target host.

B. consumes resources on the host it resides on and slows that device down.

C. monitors log files for inadvisable settings or passwords.

D. monitors traffic on the host on which it is installed.

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is a security measure that is installed on a specific host or device to monitor and detect any unauthorized activities or intrusions. One disadvantage of using a HIDS is that it consumes resources on the host it resides on, which can slow down the device's performance. This is because the HIDS continuously analyzes and monitors the host's activities, which requires processing power and memory. As a result, the device may experience decreased speed and performance while the HIDS is running.

Explanation

A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is a security measure that is installed on a specific host or device to monitor and detect any unauthorized activities or intrusions. One disadvantage of using a HIDS is that it consumes resources on the host it resides on, which can slow down the device's performance. This is because the HIDS continuously analyzes and monitors the host's activities, which requires processing power and memory. As a result, the device may experience decreased speed and performance while the HIDS is running.

37. (013) The definition of integrity as applied to identification, authentication, and encryption is

A. having information ready when needed.

B. not being able to deny who performed network actions.

C. the protection of the network from those not authorized access.

D. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission.

The correct answer is d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission. This definition of integrity refers to the trustworthiness and reliability of data. It ensures that information remains intact and unaltered, guaranteeing its accuracy and consistency. By maintaining data integrity, organizations can prevent unauthorized modifications or deletions, thus preserving the authenticity and reliability of their data.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. the assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information without permission. This definition of integrity refers to the trustworthiness and reliability of data. It ensures that information remains intact and unaltered, guaranteeing its accuracy and consistency. By maintaining data integrity, organizations can prevent unauthorized modifications or deletions, thus preserving the authenticity and reliability of their data.

38. (251) Which interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

A. Ultrasonic.

B. Microwave.

C. Passive infrared.

D. Dual-phenomenology.

Passive infrared sensors detect intruders by sensing the heat radiation emitted by their bodies. These sensors are designed to detect changes in infrared energy within their field of view, and when an intruder crosses the sensor's path, it detects the difference in temperature and triggers an alarm. This makes passive infrared sensors an effective choice for interior intrusion detection systems as they can accurately detect human presence based on heat radiation.

Explanation

Passive infrared sensors detect intruders by sensing the heat radiation emitted by their bodies. These sensors are designed to detect changes in infrared energy within their field of view, and when an intruder crosses the sensor's path, it detects the difference in temperature and triggers an alarm. This makes passive infrared sensors an effective choice for interior intrusion detection systems as they can accurately detect human presence based on heat radiation.

39. (252) What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

A. None.

B. Tamper.

C. Intruder.

D. Equipment fault.

If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is designed to alert the system that the sensor has been tampered with or its integrity has been compromised.

Explanation

If the sensor post cover in a vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed, it would trigger a tamper alarm. This alarm is designed to alert the system that the sensor has been tampered with or its integrity has been compromised.

40. (022) Which power line fault category is typically referred to as electro-magnetic interference and radio frequency interference?

A. Sag.

B. Spike.

C. Noise.

D. Blackout.

Electro-magnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are both types of electrical disturbances that can affect power lines. EMI refers to interference caused by electromagnetic radiation from external sources, while RFI refers to interference caused by radio frequency signals. These disturbances can disrupt the normal flow of electricity and cause problems in electronic devices. The term "noise" is commonly used to describe these types of electrical disturbances, making it the correct answer for this question.

Explanation

Electro-magnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are both types of electrical disturbances that can affect power lines. EMI refers to interference caused by electromagnetic radiation from external sources, while RFI refers to interference caused by radio frequency signals. These disturbances can disrupt the normal flow of electricity and cause problems in electronic devices. The term "noise" is commonly used to describe these types of electrical disturbances, making it the correct answer for this question.

41. (022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is traditionally referred to as "offline"?

A. Passive standby.

B. Line interactive.

C. Double conversion.

D. Ferro resonant standby.

Passive standby is traditionally referred to as an "offline" uninterruptible power supply (UPS). This type of UPS allows the connected equipment to be powered directly from the main power source, bypassing the UPS until a power failure occurs. When a power failure occurs, the UPS switches to battery power to provide uninterrupted power supply to the connected equipment. This type of UPS is typically less expensive and simpler in design compared to other types of UPSs.

Explanation

Passive standby is traditionally referred to as an "offline" uninterruptible power supply (UPS). This type of UPS allows the connected equipment to be powered directly from the main power source, bypassing the UPS until a power failure occurs. When a power failure occurs, the UPS switches to battery power to provide uninterrupted power supply to the connected equipment. This type of UPS is typically less expensive and simpler in design compared to other types of UPSs.

42. (001) Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots, and repairs wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices?

Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

Client Systems (3D1X1).

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices. This field focuses on the transmission of radio frequency signals and ensuring their proper functioning.

Explanation

The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3). This career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing various types of wireless, line-of-sight, beyond line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite and encryption transmission devices. This field focuses on the transmission of radio frequency signals and ensuring their proper functioning.

43. (028) Which type of cable does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields?

A. Unshielded.

B. Shielded.

C. Twisted pair.

D. Multipair.

Shielded cables are designed to minimize the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). They have a conductive layer or shield around the inner conductor(s) that helps to block external electromagnetic fields from entering or exiting the cable. This shielding prevents the cable from radiating energy and also protects it from being affected by nearby magnetic fields. Therefore, shielded cables are the type of cable that does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields.

Explanation

Shielded cables are designed to minimize the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). They have a conductive layer or shield around the inner conductor(s) that helps to block external electromagnetic fields from entering or exiting the cable. This shielding prevents the cable from radiating energy and also protects it from being affected by nearby magnetic fields. Therefore, shielded cables are the type of cable that does not radiate energy and is not affected by nearby magnetic fields.

44. (029) What is used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable?

A. Tip and Ring.

B. Tip and Color.

C. Rate and Color.

D. Pair and Position.

The correct answer is "a. Tip and Ring." In telecommunications, the terms "tip" and "ring" are used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable. The tip is the positive side, and the ring is the negative side. This terminology is commonly used in telephone systems and audio equipment.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Tip and Ring." In telecommunications, the terms "tip" and "ring" are used to identify the polarity of a wire pair in a cable. The tip is the positive side, and the ring is the negative side. This terminology is commonly used in telephone systems and audio equipment.

45. (034) When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

A. Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.

B. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

C. Place the meter in the frequency mode.

D. Set the range for maximum reading.

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is because leaving the power connected can lead to inaccurate readings and potential damage to the meter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, you ensure that there is no current flowing through the circuit, allowing for a more accurate resistance measurement.

Explanation

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is because leaving the power connected can lead to inaccurate readings and potential damage to the meter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, you ensure that there is no current flowing through the circuit, allowing for a more accurate resistance measurement.

46. (036) What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?

A. Masking.

B. Distortion.

C. Deflection.

D. Overloading.

Advancing the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far can result in distortion of the observed signal. This occurs because the synchronizing control is responsible for aligning the horizontal sweep of the oscilloscope with the input signal. When advanced too far, the sweep may not properly synchronize with the signal, causing distortion in the waveform displayed on the screen.

Explanation

Advancing the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far can result in distortion of the observed signal. This occurs because the synchronizing control is responsible for aligning the horizontal sweep of the oscilloscope with the input signal. When advanced too far, the sweep may not properly synchronize with the signal, causing distortion in the waveform displayed on the screen.

47. (203) In binary-synchronous protocol, which characters establishes and maintains character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?

A. SEQ.

B. SYN.

C. STX.

D. EST.

In binary-synchronous protocol, the SYN character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. This character is sent by the sender to indicate the start of a transmission and is acknowledged by the receiver to confirm synchronization. It helps ensure that both ends of the communication are in sync and ready to transmit and receive data accurately.

Explanation

In binary-synchronous protocol, the SYN character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission. This character is sent by the sender to indicate the start of a transmission and is acknowledged by the receiver to confirm synchronization. It helps ensure that both ends of the communication are in sync and ready to transmit and receive data accurately.

48. (005) Which hazard is not one of the four major types of hazards?

A. Biological.

B. Chemical.

C. Physical.

Nuclear.

The correct answer is Nuclear. Nuclear hazards are not included in the four major types of hazards, which are biological, chemical, and physical hazards. Nuclear hazards refer to the risks associated with nuclear power plants, radioactive materials, and nuclear weapons. While nuclear hazards are significant and pose serious threats, they are not typically categorized as one of the four major types of hazards.

Explanation

The correct answer is Nuclear. Nuclear hazards are not included in the four major types of hazards, which are biological, chemical, and physical hazards. Nuclear hazards refer to the risks associated with nuclear power plants, radioactive materials, and nuclear weapons. While nuclear hazards are significant and pose serious threats, they are not typically categorized as one of the four major types of hazards.

49. (229) Which agency is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video and/or data services on DOD networks?

A. Commercial providers.

B. National Security Agency (NSA).

C. Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communications and IT services to the Department of Defense. They manage and operate the DOD's global information infrastructure, including the transport networks that support various communication services. Therefore, DISA is the correct answer as the preferred transport provider for these services.

Explanation

The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the preferred transport provider for Internet and commercial satellite connections used for voice, video, and/or data services on DOD networks. DISA is responsible for providing secure and reliable communications and IT services to the Department of Defense. They manage and operate the DOD's global information infrastructure, including the transport networks that support various communication services. Therefore, DISA is the correct answer as the preferred transport provider for these services.

50. (210) Which topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

A. Physical.

B. Logical.

C. Hybrid.

D. Star.

Logical topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It focuses on the logical connections between devices rather than the physical layout of the network. This includes the paths that data takes from one device to another and the protocols used for communication. Unlike physical topology, which describes the physical arrangement of devices and cables, logical topology is concerned with the flow of data and the logical relationships between devices. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Logical.

Explanation

Logical topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network. It focuses on the logical connections between devices rather than the physical layout of the network. This includes the paths that data takes from one device to another and the protocols used for communication. Unlike physical topology, which describes the physical arrangement of devices and cables, logical topology is concerned with the flow of data and the logical relationships between devices. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Logical.

51. (211) Which device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?

A. Switch.

B. Firewall.

C. Gateway.

D. Repeater.

A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets to the appropriate destination. By creating separate collision domains, a switch improves network performance and allows for simultaneous communication between multiple devices. Unlike a firewall or gateway, which are used for security and routing purposes respectively, a switch is specifically designed for network segmentation. A repeater, on the other hand, amplifies and regenerates signals to extend the reach of a network.

Explanation

A switch is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces or segments. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data packets to the appropriate destination. By creating separate collision domains, a switch improves network performance and allows for simultaneous communication between multiple devices. Unlike a firewall or gateway, which are used for security and routing purposes respectively, a switch is specifically designed for network segmentation. A repeater, on the other hand, amplifies and regenerates signals to extend the reach of a network.

52. (213) A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized

A. alphabetically.

B. hierarchically.

C. numerically.

D. objectively.

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information is structured in a way that allows for easy navigation and retrieval. The hierarchical organization helps to categorize the information into different levels or tiers, with each level containing more specific details. This structure is beneficial for managing and accessing the information effectively, as it allows for efficient searching and referencing of data.

Explanation

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a collection of information that is organized hierarchically. This means that the information is structured in a way that allows for easy navigation and retrieval. The hierarchical organization helps to categorize the information into different levels or tiers, with each level containing more specific details. This structure is beneficial for managing and accessing the information effectively, as it allows for efficient searching and referencing of data.

53. (015) Why must the use of TEMPEST-certified equipment be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space?

A. It requires Department of Defense (DOD) approval.

B. It requires certification.

C. It is time consuming.

D. It is expensive.

The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that there are costs associated with the validation process, which may include the expertise and resources required for the certification. The expense involved in the validation process highlights the importance of ensuring that the equipment meets the necessary standards for protecting against electromagnetic radiation and potential security risks.

Explanation

The use of TEMPEST-certified equipment must be validated by an AF Certified TEMPEST technical authority (CTTA) prior to testing an inspectable space because it is expensive. This suggests that there are costs associated with the validation process, which may include the expertise and resources required for the certification. The expense involved in the validation process highlights the importance of ensuring that the equipment meets the necessary standards for protecting against electromagnetic radiation and potential security risks.

54. (034) When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?

A. Common.

B. Voltage.

C. Amperage.

D. Frequency.

When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, the jack that is always used is the "Common" jack. This jack is used as a reference point for measuring voltage, amperage, and frequency. It is typically connected to the ground or negative terminal of the circuit being tested. The other two jacks, voltage and amperage, are used depending on the type of measurement being taken. The frequency jack is not always present on a multimeter and is used specifically for measuring the frequency of an AC signal.

Explanation

When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, the jack that is always used is the "Common" jack. This jack is used as a reference point for measuring voltage, amperage, and frequency. It is typically connected to the ground or negative terminal of the circuit being tested. The other two jacks, voltage and amperage, are used depending on the type of measurement being taken. The frequency jack is not always present on a multimeter and is used specifically for measuring the frequency of an AC signal.

55. (235) Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and

A. an intermediate distribution frame.

B. a black distribution frame.

C. a red distribution frame.

D. a mid distribution frame.

Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and an intermediate distribution frame. A main distribution frame is used to interconnect the incoming and outgoing lines, while an intermediate distribution frame is used to connect the main distribution frame to the individual lines or equipment. Therefore, a combined distribution frame would include both of these functions, allowing for the interconnection of incoming and outgoing lines as well as the connection to individual lines or equipment.

Explanation

Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and an intermediate distribution frame. A main distribution frame is used to interconnect the incoming and outgoing lines, while an intermediate distribution frame is used to connect the main distribution frame to the individual lines or equipment. Therefore, a combined distribution frame would include both of these functions, allowing for the interconnection of incoming and outgoing lines as well as the connection to individual lines or equipment.

56. (040) Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?

A. Filter.

B. Buffer.

C. Counter.

D. Central processing unit.

The component of a protocol analyzer that discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition is the filter. Filters are used to selectively capture and analyze specific network traffic based on defined criteria such as source or destination address, protocol type, or specific data patterns. By applying filters, the protocol analyzer can focus on capturing and analyzing only the relevant frames, reducing the amount of unnecessary data and improving efficiency.

Explanation

The component of a protocol analyzer that discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition is the filter. Filters are used to selectively capture and analyze specific network traffic based on defined criteria such as source or destination address, protocol type, or specific data patterns. By applying filters, the protocol analyzer can focus on capturing and analyzing only the relevant frames, reducing the amount of unnecessary data and improving efficiency.

57. (040) What active test on a protocol analyzer is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?

A. Trace route.

B. Route generator.

C. Traffic generator.

D. Packet internetwork groper (PING).

The correct answer is "a. Trace route." Trace route is a network diagnostic tool that allows users to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes for the packets to complete the trip. It works by sending out a series of packets with gradually increasing time-to-live (TTL) values, and each router along the path sends back an ICMP time exceeded message, allowing the user to trace the route. This helps in identifying any network issues or delays in packet transmission.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a. Trace route." Trace route is a network diagnostic tool that allows users to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes for the packets to complete the trip. It works by sending out a series of packets with gradually increasing time-to-live (TTL) values, and each router along the path sends back an ICMP time exceeded message, allowing the user to trace the route. This helps in identifying any network issues or delays in packet transmission.

58. (204) Which network layer protocol matches a known Internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

A. IP.

B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

The correct answer is b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that matches an IP address to a MAC address. When a device wants to send data to a destination device with a known IP address, it uses ARP to determine the MAC address associated with that IP address. This allows the device to correctly address the data at the data link layer and send it to the intended recipient.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). ARP is a network layer protocol that matches an IP address to a MAC address. When a device wants to send data to a destination device with a known IP address, it uses ARP to determine the MAC address associated with that IP address. This allows the device to correctly address the data at the data link layer and send it to the intended recipient.

59. (218) Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?

A. The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels.

B. A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.

C. The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition.

D. Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.

B8ZS is a line coding technique used in telecommunications to ensure a balance between ones and zeros in a data signal. It intentionally inserts bipolar violations, which are signal transitions that violate the normal coding rules, to break up long strings of zeros. This helps in maintaining synchronization and preventing errors in the transmission. Therefore, option d is the correct statement that describes the B8ZS signal.

Explanation

B8ZS is a line coding technique used in telecommunications to ensure a balance between ones and zeros in a data signal. It intentionally inserts bipolar violations, which are signal transitions that violate the normal coding rules, to break up long strings of zeros. This helps in maintaining synchronization and preventing errors in the transmission. Therefore, option d is the correct statement that describes the B8ZS signal.

60. (003) Which of the following is a core competency of Cyber Transport Systems?

A. Fixed cable systems.

B. Voice network systems.

C. Application software systems.

D. Client-server database systems.

The core competency of Cyber Transport Systems is voice network systems. This means that Cyber Transport Systems specializes in designing, implementing, and managing voice communication networks. They have expertise in technologies and protocols related to voice communication, such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) and PBX (Private Branch Exchange) systems. This competency allows Cyber Transport Systems to provide efficient and reliable voice communication solutions to their clients.

Explanation

The core competency of Cyber Transport Systems is voice network systems. This means that Cyber Transport Systems specializes in designing, implementing, and managing voice communication networks. They have expertise in technologies and protocols related to voice communication, such as VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) and PBX (Private Branch Exchange) systems. This competency allows Cyber Transport Systems to provide efficient and reliable voice communication solutions to their clients.

61. (205) Which network Class has the most addresses for hosts?

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

Class A networks have the most addresses for hosts. In Class A, the first octet is reserved for the network ID, leaving the remaining three octets for host addresses. This allows for a large number of hosts, with a total of 16,777,214 addresses available. Class B and Class C networks have progressively fewer addresses for hosts, with Class C having the fewest. Class D is reserved for multicast addresses and is not used for host addressing.

Explanation

Class A networks have the most addresses for hosts. In Class A, the first octet is reserved for the network ID, leaving the remaining three octets for host addresses. This allows for a large number of hosts, with a total of 16,777,214 addresses available. Class B and Class C networks have progressively fewer addresses for hosts, with Class C having the fewest. Class D is reserved for multicast addresses and is not used for host addressing.

62. (207) Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

A. Bridge.

B. Router.

C. Gateway.

D. Repeater.

A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and is designed to direct data between nodes on a network. It uses routing tables and protocols to determine the best path for data transmission. Unlike a bridge, which connects two similar types of networks, a router can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi. A gateway is a device that connects two different networks, such as a local network and the internet. A repeater is a device that amplifies or regenerates a signal to extend its reach.

Explanation

A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and is designed to direct data between nodes on a network. It uses routing tables and protocols to determine the best path for data transmission. Unlike a bridge, which connects two similar types of networks, a router can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and Wi-Fi. A gateway is a device that connects two different networks, such as a local network and the internet. A repeater is a device that amplifies or regenerates a signal to extend its reach.

63. (211) How many broadcast domains forms a Virtual LAN (VLAN)?

A.1.

B.2.

C.3.

D.4.

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical grouping of devices on a network, regardless of their physical location. It allows for the segmentation of a network into multiple broadcast domains. Each VLAN forms its own broadcast domain, isolating traffic from other VLANs. Therefore, a single VLAN forms one broadcast domain.

Explanation

A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logical grouping of devices on a network, regardless of their physical location. It allows for the segmentation of a network into multiple broadcast domains. Each VLAN forms its own broadcast domain, isolating traffic from other VLANs. Therefore, a single VLAN forms one broadcast domain.

64. (213) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems and help plan for

A. future growth.

B. network security.

C. remote monitoring.

D. network contingencies.

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. It allows administrators to monitor and gather information about network devices, such as routers and switches, in order to optimize their performance and identify areas where additional resources may be needed. By using SNMP, administrators can proactively plan for the expansion and scalability of their network infrastructure, ensuring that it can support future growth and meet the demands of the organization.

Explanation

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. It allows administrators to monitor and gather information about network devices, such as routers and switches, in order to optimize their performance and identify areas where additional resources may be needed. By using SNMP, administrators can proactively plan for the expansion and scalability of their network infrastructure, ensuring that it can support future growth and meet the demands of the organization.

65. (214) Which physical security action can you take to ensure network equipment supports the widest range of security services?

A. Configure the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible.

B. Configure the equipment to use a line console password.

C. Power cycle the equipment at the end of the duty day.

D. Configure the equipment using setup mode.

Configuring the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible can ensure that network equipment supports the widest range of security services. This is because more memory allows for the installation and running of multiple security services simultaneously, providing a higher level of protection for the network. With increased memory, the equipment can handle more complex security tasks and store larger amounts of data, enhancing its overall security capabilities.

Explanation

Configuring the equipment with the maximum amount of memory possible can ensure that network equipment supports the widest range of security services. This is because more memory allows for the installation and running of multiple security services simultaneously, providing a higher level of protection for the network. With increased memory, the equipment can handle more complex security tasks and store larger amounts of data, enhancing its overall security capabilities.

66. (250) The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a

A. gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment and vehicle entrapment area.

B. security forces entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator and gatehouse.

C. location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon.

D. gatehouse, vehicle parking area and personnel entry gate.

The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area. This configuration is necessary for effective control and monitoring of access to a facility. The gatehouse serves as a control center where security personnel can monitor and manage the entry and exit of individuals and vehicles. The personnel entry gate is where individuals enter and exit the facility, and it is typically equipped with access control measures such as ID checks or biometric scanners. Inspection equipment is used to screen individuals and their belongings for prohibited items or threats. The vehicle entrapment area is designed to safely detain and inspect vehicles before granting them access to the facility.

Explanation

The basic configuration of the entry control facility includes a gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area. This configuration is necessary for effective control and monitoring of access to a facility. The gatehouse serves as a control center where security personnel can monitor and manage the entry and exit of individuals and vehicles. The personnel entry gate is where individuals enter and exit the facility, and it is typically equipped with access control measures such as ID checks or biometric scanners. Inspection equipment is used to screen individuals and their belongings for prohibited items or threats. The vehicle entrapment area is designed to safely detain and inspect vehicles before granting them access to the facility.

67. (019) What is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect equipment and signals from the effects of interference propagated by other devices?

A. Bonding.

B. Shielding.

C. Annealing.

D. Grounding.

Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect them from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves the use of conductive materials or coatings to create a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). This helps to maintain the integrity and reliability of electronic equipment and signals by reducing the impact of external interference sources.

Explanation

Shielding is required in electronic settings to prevent equipment and signals from propagating interference and to protect them from the effects of interference propagated by other devices. Shielding involves the use of conductive materials or coatings to create a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). This helps to maintain the integrity and reliability of electronic equipment and signals by reducing the impact of external interference sources.

68. (021) Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

A. Class I.

B. Class II.

C. Class III.

D. Class IV.

Class I electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) devices have a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. This means that they are able to detect and respond to electrostatic discharges within this voltage range. The other classes, II, III, and IV, likely have different sensitivity ranges or are designed for different purposes.

Explanation

Class I electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) devices have a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts. This means that they are able to detect and respond to electrostatic discharges within this voltage range. The other classes, II, III, and IV, likely have different sensitivity ranges or are designed for different purposes.

69. (222) The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called

A. sidebands.

B. sine waves.

C. frequency translators.

D. modulating frequencies.

The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called "sidebands." Sidebands are created when a carrier signal is modulated by a modulating signal, resulting in the shifting of frequencies above and below the carrier frequency. These sidebands carry the information being transmitted and are essential for the process of modulation and demodulation in communication systems.

Explanation

The signal components that occur as bands above and below a carrier are called "sidebands." Sidebands are created when a carrier signal is modulated by a modulating signal, resulting in the shifting of frequencies above and below the carrier frequency. These sidebands carry the information being transmitted and are essential for the process of modulation and demodulation in communication systems.

70. (024) What function do facility batteries provide during normal operating conditions (commercial alternate current [AC] power available)?

A. They generate direct current (DC) power and run the switch.

B. They act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power.

C. They rectify the commercial AC to DC and power the system.

D. They serve no function unless commercial power is disconnected.

Facility batteries act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power during normal operating conditions. This means that they help remove any fluctuations or disturbances in the AC power supply, ensuring that a stable and clean DC power is provided to the system. This helps in protecting the equipment and ensuring its proper functioning.

Explanation

Facility batteries act as a DC filter for the commercial AC power during normal operating conditions. This means that they help remove any fluctuations or disturbances in the AC power supply, ensuring that a stable and clean DC power is provided to the system. This helps in protecting the equipment and ensuring its proper functioning.

71. (030) Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?

A. Blue.

B. Orange.

C. White/blue.

D. White/orange.

Pin 1 on a typical EIA/TIA 568B connector is white/orange in color. The EIA/TIA 568B standard is used for wiring Ethernet cables, and it specifies the color coding for each pin. In this standard, pin 1 is assigned the color white/orange. This color coding is important for ensuring proper connectivity and compatibility between different devices and networks.

Explanation

Pin 1 on a typical EIA/TIA 568B connector is white/orange in color. The EIA/TIA 568B standard is used for wiring Ethernet cables, and it specifies the color coding for each pin. In this standard, pin 1 is assigned the color white/orange. This color coding is important for ensuring proper connectivity and compatibility between different devices and networks.

72. (202) In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?

A. Layer above.

B. Layer below.

C. Lowest layer.

D. Peer layer.

In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer communicates with the layer above it, the layer below it, and its peer layer. The lowest layer in the OSI model is the Physical layer, which is responsible for transmitting raw bit streams over a physical medium. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Lowest layer, as it is not one of the layers that a layer in the OSI model communicates with.

Explanation

In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer communicates with the layer above it, the layer below it, and its peer layer. The lowest layer in the OSI model is the Physical layer, which is responsible for transmitting raw bit streams over a physical medium. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Lowest layer, as it is not one of the layers that a layer in the OSI model communicates with.

73. (217) How many voltage levels does a binary signal have?

A. 1.

B. 2.

C. 3.

D. 4.

A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. These two levels are used to represent the two states of a binary system, such as on and off, true and false, or high and low. The binary system is the foundation of digital communication and computing, where information is encoded and processed using these two voltage levels.

Explanation

A binary signal has two voltage levels, typically represented as 0 and 1. These two levels are used to represent the two states of a binary system, such as on and off, true and false, or high and low. The binary system is the foundation of digital communication and computing, where information is encoded and processed using these two voltage levels.

74. (004) Which AF form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

A. 1118.

B. 457.

C. 55.

D. 3.

AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting safety concerns and is used to document and track hazards in order to ensure appropriate corrective actions are taken. It allows individuals to report any unsafe conditions they observe, such as faulty equipment, unsafe work practices, or potential hazards, so that they can be addressed promptly and effectively. By using AF Form 457, the Air Force can maintain a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries.

Explanation

AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting safety concerns and is used to document and track hazards in order to ensure appropriate corrective actions are taken. It allows individuals to report any unsafe conditions they observe, such as faulty equipment, unsafe work practices, or potential hazards, so that they can be addressed promptly and effectively. By using AF Form 457, the Air Force can maintain a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries.

75. (208) When configuring a router, you control access to privileged EXEC mode by configuring which password?

A. Line console.

B. Line vty.

C. Enable.

D. Secret.

When configuring a router, access to privileged EXEC mode is controlled by configuring the "Enable" password. This password is used to authenticate users who want to access privileged commands and configurations on the router. By setting an "Enable" password, the router ensures that only authorized users can make changes to the router's settings and configurations.

Explanation

When configuring a router, access to privileged EXEC mode is controlled by configuring the "Enable" password. This password is used to authenticate users who want to access privileged commands and configurations on the router. By setting an "Enable" password, the router ensures that only authorized users can make changes to the router's settings and configurations.

76. (008) An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having what category of vulnerability?

A. I.

B. II.

C. III.

D. IV.

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a Category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave has a critical vulnerability, as it lacks basic security measures such as a firewall and IDS. Without these protections in place, the enclave is highly susceptible to unauthorized access and potential attacks.

Explanation

An enclave that does not have a firewall and intrusion detection system (IDS) is classified as having a Category I vulnerability. This means that the enclave has a critical vulnerability, as it lacks basic security measures such as a firewall and IDS. Without these protections in place, the enclave is highly susceptible to unauthorized access and potential attacks.

77. (010) One advantage of a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is that it

A. can decrypt data.

B. uses very few network resources.

C. monitors logs for policy violations.

D. can analyze encrypted network traffic.

A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. One advantage of a NIDS is that it uses very few network resources. This means that it does not significantly impact the performance or bandwidth of the network it is monitoring. By using minimal resources, the NIDS can effectively monitor the network without causing any disruptions or slowdowns. This makes it a practical and efficient solution for detecting and preventing network intrusions.

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) is designed to monitor network traffic and detect any suspicious or malicious activity. One advantage of a NIDS is that it uses very few network resources. This means that it does not significantly impact the performance or bandwidth of the network it is monitoring. By using minimal resources, the NIDS can effectively monitor the network without causing any disruptions or slowdowns. This makes it a practical and efficient solution for detecting and preventing network intrusions.

78. (018) What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

A. None.

B. Brazing.

C. Welding.

D. Mechanical.

Signal reference bonds are typically applied using mechanical bonding. Mechanical bonding involves physically connecting the conductive materials together using methods such as screws, bolts, or clamps. This type of bond ensures a secure and reliable connection between the signal reference points, allowing for accurate and consistent signal transmission. Unlike brazing or welding, which involve melting and fusing materials together, mechanical bonding does not require the use of heat or additional materials. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Mechanical.

Explanation

Signal reference bonds are typically applied using mechanical bonding. Mechanical bonding involves physically connecting the conductive materials together using methods such as screws, bolts, or clamps. This type of bond ensures a secure and reliable connection between the signal reference points, allowing for accurate and consistent signal transmission. Unlike brazing or welding, which involve melting and fusing materials together, mechanical bonding does not require the use of heat or additional materials. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Mechanical.

79. (019) Which type of shielding utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor?

A. Cable.

B. Circuit.

C. Facility.

D. Equipment.

This type of shielding, which utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor, is commonly used in cables. Cables are designed to transmit electrical signals or power and often consist of multiple conductors enclosed in a protective sheath. The shielding helps to protect the signal or power from external interference and minimize electromagnetic emissions.

Explanation

This type of shielding, which utilizes braid, foil, metal wrap, conduit or twisted wire around a conductor, is commonly used in cables. Cables are designed to transmit electrical signals or power and often consist of multiple conductors enclosed in a protective sheath. The shielding helps to protect the signal or power from external interference and minimize electromagnetic emissions.

80. (024) Which is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries?

A. The facility power requirements.

B. The facility power reserve times.

C. The number of AC converters required for the facility.

D. The amount of current and future floor space available.

The number of AC converters required for the facility is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries. The selection of facility batteries is based on factors such as the facility power requirements, the facility power reserve times, and the amount of current and future floor space available. The number of AC converters required is related to the electrical infrastructure of the facility, not specifically to the selection of batteries.

Explanation

The number of AC converters required for the facility is not a consideration for selecting facility batteries. The selection of facility batteries is based on factors such as the facility power requirements, the facility power reserve times, and the amount of current and future floor space available. The number of AC converters required is related to the electrical infrastructure of the facility, not specifically to the selection of batteries.

81. (029) The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is a

A. marker.

B. bundle.

C. casing.

D. binder.

The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is called a binder. A binder is a device used to hold together multiple items or documents. In this context, the colored tape is used to bind or hold together a specific number of pairs, replicating the color pattern.

Explanation

The thin plastic colored tape that spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in color is called a binder. A binder is a device used to hold together multiple items or documents. In this context, the colored tape is used to bind or hold together a specific number of pairs, replicating the color pattern.

82. (031) What is the maximum operating temperature of fiber optic cable?

A. 500°C.

B. 1,000°C.

C. 5,000°C.

D. 10,000°C.

Fiber optic cables are designed to withstand high temperatures, but their maximum operating temperature is typically around 1,000°C. At temperatures above this limit, the cable's performance may be compromised, and it may suffer from degradation or even melt. Therefore, option b, 1,000°C, is the correct answer.

Explanation

Fiber optic cables are designed to withstand high temperatures, but their maximum operating temperature is typically around 1,000°C. At temperatures above this limit, the cable's performance may be compromised, and it may suffer from degradation or even melt. Therefore, option b, 1,000°C, is the correct answer.

83. (033) What do you use to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable?

A. Scribe.

B. Strippers.

C. Alco wipes.

D. Polishing cloth.

A scribe is used to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable. A scribe is a sharp tool that is used to score or scratch the excess fiber, allowing it to be easily broken off. This process ensures that the fiber is clean and smooth, allowing for optimal performance and connectivity.

Explanation

A scribe is used to remove excess fiber after the connector has cooled and epoxy has dried on a fiber cable. A scribe is a sharp tool that is used to score or scratch the excess fiber, allowing it to be easily broken off. This process ensures that the fiber is clean and smooth, allowing for optimal performance and connectivity.

84. (037) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

A. Microprocessor.

B. Acquisition.

C. Memory.

D. Input.

The microprocessor of a digital storage oscilloscope is responsible for taking digitized samples from the acquisition system and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessor acts as the brain of the oscilloscope, processing the captured data and providing the necessary calculations and analysis.

Explanation

The microprocessor of a digital storage oscilloscope is responsible for taking digitized samples from the acquisition system and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessor acts as the brain of the oscilloscope, processing the captured data and providing the necessary calculations and analysis.

85. (203) Which data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?

A. Character-oriented.

B. Bit-oriented.

C. Network.

D. Routing.

Bit-oriented is the correct answer because this data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits. In bit-oriented protocols, data is transmitted and received one bit at a time, and the position of the bits is important for proper interpretation of the data. These protocols are commonly used in serial communication systems where data is transmitted sequentially.

Explanation

Bit-oriented is the correct answer because this data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits. In bit-oriented protocols, data is transmitted and received one bit at a time, and the position of the bits is important for proper interpretation of the data. These protocols are commonly used in serial communication systems where data is transmitted sequentially.

86. (220) Which communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?

A. Pulse.

B. Tone.

C. Digit.

D. Address.

Tone is the correct answer because it is the communications control signal that uses a two-frequency dialing combination. This means that when dialing a number, two distinct tones are generated to represent each digit, allowing for more efficient and accurate communication. Pulse, digit, and address do not involve a two-frequency dialing combination, making them incorrect options.

Explanation

Tone is the correct answer because it is the communications control signal that uses a two-frequency dialing combination. This means that when dialing a number, two distinct tones are generated to represent each digit, allowing for more efficient and accurate communication. Pulse, digit, and address do not involve a two-frequency dialing combination, making them incorrect options.

87. (204) Which Transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

A. Internet Protocol (IP).

B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

C. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

The correct answer is c. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP is a reliable transport layer protocol that ensures the delivery of data by establishing a connection between the sender and receiver. It provides features like error detection, flow control, and congestion control to ensure the reliable delivery of data packets. TCP guarantees that the data will be delivered in the same order it was sent and that no data will be lost or corrupted during transmission.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP is a reliable transport layer protocol that ensures the delivery of data by establishing a connection between the sender and receiver. It provides features like error detection, flow control, and congestion control to ensure the reliable delivery of data packets. TCP guarantees that the data will be delivered in the same order it was sent and that no data will be lost or corrupted during transmission.

88. (242) The primary reason you should measure the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is to

A. verify the circuit is not in use.

B. prevent interruptions to critical circuits.

C. ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.

D. avoid activating alarm circuits on the voice network system.

Measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for the safety of the technician and to prevent any potential harm or damage that could be caused by high voltage. By measuring the voltage, the technician can determine if it is safe to proceed with the replacement without risking electric shock or other hazards.

Explanation

Measuring the voltage across faulty terminal protectors before removing and replacing them is important to ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line. This is crucial for the safety of the technician and to prevent any potential harm or damage that could be caused by high voltage. By measuring the voltage, the technician can determine if it is safe to proceed with the replacement without risking electric shock or other hazards.

89. (229) What web application is used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?

A. DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE).

B. Facility Circuit Information Tracking (FaCIT).

C. Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).

D. Telecommunications Certifications Office Support System (TCOSS).

DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE) is the web application used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). This application allows users to easily submit orders for various telecommunications needs, streamlining the ordering process and ensuring efficient communication between DISA and its customers. It is the most suitable option among the given choices for this purpose.

Explanation

DISA Direct Order Entry (DDOE) is the web application used to order telecommunications products and services from the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). This application allows users to easily submit orders for various telecommunications needs, streamlining the ordering process and ensuring efficient communication between DISA and its customers. It is the most suitable option among the given choices for this purpose.

90. (008) How many Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC) does the Air Force have?

A. One.

B. Two.

C. Three.

D. Four.

The Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).

Explanation

The Air Force has two Integrated Network and Operation Security Centers (INOSC).

91. (009) You should implement all of the following security features to help defend internet protocol (IP) telephony systems from attackers except

A. enabling access control lists (ACL) on firewalls, routers, and switches.

B. deploying protection from dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) spoofing.

C. consolidating your voice with your data using virtual local area networks (VLAN).

D. enabling port security access to only allow the required devices needed by the client.

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Explanation

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92. (230) If the circuit files are lost or destroyed, what document are Technical Control Facilities required to obtain?

A. The latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuitconfiguration.

B. The original TSO and the original circuit test data.

C. The latest TSO and the latest circuit test data.

D. The original TSO that established the circuit.

Technical Control Facilities are required to obtain the latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration if the circuit files are lost or destroyed. This document will provide them with the necessary information about the circuit's configuration and help them recreate it. The original TSO and circuit test data may not be sufficient as they may not reflect the current configuration, while the latest TSO and circuit test data will provide the most up-to-date information.

Explanation

Technical Control Facilities are required to obtain the latest telecommunications service order (TSO) that reflects the current end-to-end circuit configuration if the circuit files are lost or destroyed. This document will provide them with the necessary information about the circuit's configuration and help them recreate it. The original TSO and circuit test data may not be sufficient as they may not reflect the current configuration, while the latest TSO and circuit test data will provide the most up-to-date information.

93. (249) In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), what must a line of detection detect?

A. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection.

B. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping outside the line of detection.

C. Potential for intruder to bypass the system.

D. Possibility of equipment failures.

The correct answer is a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection. In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection is meant to detect any movement or activity that occurs within its range. This includes various forms of movement such as walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping. The IDS is designed to identify and alert any potential intrusions or unauthorized access attempts by detecting these movements.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Walking, running, rolling, crawling or jumping through the line of detection. In an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), the line of detection is meant to detect any movement or activity that occurs within its range. This includes various forms of movement such as walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping. The IDS is designed to identify and alert any potential intrusions or unauthorized access attempts by detecting these movements.

94. (012) What type of certificate authenticates the identity of the user?

A. Digital.

B. Biometric.

C. Encryption.

D. E-mail signing.

A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is used to verify that the user is who they claim to be in digital transactions. Digital certificates use cryptographic keys to ensure the integrity and security of the information being transmitted. This type of certificate is commonly used in online banking, e-commerce, and other secure online transactions to establish trust between the user and the website or service.

Explanation

A digital certificate is a type of certificate that authenticates the identity of the user. It is used to verify that the user is who they claim to be in digital transactions. Digital certificates use cryptographic keys to ensure the integrity and security of the information being transmitted. This type of certificate is commonly used in online banking, e-commerce, and other secure online transactions to establish trust between the user and the website or service.

95. (014) What Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series covers emission security (EMSEC)?

A. 2000.

B. 3000.

C. 7000.

D. 8500.

The correct answer is c. 7000. The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series 7000 covers emission security (EMSEC). This series provides guidance and procedures for protecting against compromising emanations from electronic systems. EMSEC involves measures to prevent unauthorized interception and analysis of electromagnetic radiation emitted by electronic equipment, which could potentially reveal sensitive information or compromise the security of military systems. The AFSSI series 7000 specifically focuses on EMSEC and provides instructions for implementing protective measures to mitigate these risks.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 7000. The Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) series 7000 covers emission security (EMSEC). This series provides guidance and procedures for protecting against compromising emanations from electronic systems. EMSEC involves measures to prevent unauthorized interception and analysis of electromagnetic radiation emitted by electronic equipment, which could potentially reveal sensitive information or compromise the security of military systems. The AFSSI series 7000 specifically focuses on EMSEC and provides instructions for implementing protective measures to mitigate these risks.

96. (016) What equipment should be designated as BLACK when designating equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts?

A. Equipment processing unencrypted classified information.

B. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

C. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

D. Equipment processing plaintext classified information.

The equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts should be designated as BLACK when it is processing encrypted classified information. This means that the equipment is capable of handling and processing information that has been encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity.

Explanation

The equipment that supports physical and electrical concepts should be designated as BLACK when it is processing encrypted classified information. This means that the equipment is capable of handling and processing information that has been encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity.

97. (017) What is the grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities?

A. 100 ohms or less.

B. 50 ohms or less.

C. 20 ohms or less.

D. 10 ohms or less.

The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This is because a low grounding resistance helps to ensure effective grounding and minimize the risk of electrical hazards such as electric shock and equipment damage. A lower grounding resistance allows for better dissipation of electrical currents and helps to maintain a stable electrical reference point for the equipment.

Explanation

The grounding resistance goal for military communications electronics (C-E) facilities is 10 ohms or less. This is because a low grounding resistance helps to ensure effective grounding and minimize the risk of electrical hazards such as electric shock and equipment damage. A lower grounding resistance allows for better dissipation of electrical currents and helps to maintain a stable electrical reference point for the equipment.

98. (018) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of

A. 1 milliohm.

B. 2 milliohms.

C. 5 milliohms.

D. 10 milliohms.

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem need to have a low resistance in order to effectively conduct electrical current to the earth. A resistance of 1 milliohm is considered to be a very low resistance and ensures a good connection between the earth electrode subsystem and the earth. This low resistance helps to prevent the buildup of excessive voltage and ensures the safety and effectiveness of the grounding system.

Explanation

Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem need to have a low resistance in order to effectively conduct electrical current to the earth. A resistance of 1 milliohm is considered to be a very low resistance and ensures a good connection between the earth electrode subsystem and the earth. This low resistance helps to prevent the buildup of excessive voltage and ensures the safety and effectiveness of the grounding system.

99. (031) What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?

A. The use of light-emitting diodes.

B. The broad bandwidth of the cable.

C. The low signal to noise ratio of the cable.

D. The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics.

The use of light-emitting diodes (LEDs) has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable. LEDs are used as a light source in fiber optics, and they emit light signals that carry data through the cable. LEDs have a fast response time and can operate at high frequencies, allowing for the transmission of large amounts of data at high speeds. Therefore, the use of LEDs enables the high data rate transmission on a fiber optics cable.

Explanation

The use of light-emitting diodes (LEDs) has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable. LEDs are used as a light source in fiber optics, and they emit light signals that carry data through the cable. LEDs have a fast response time and can operate at high frequencies, allowing for the transmission of large amounts of data at high speeds. Therefore, the use of LEDs enables the high data rate transmission on a fiber optics cable.

100. (236) Who determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available?

A. Flight commander.

B. Manufacturer.

C. Technician.

D. NCOIC.

The flight commander determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available. This is because the flight commander is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and operations of the flight, and has the authority to make decisions regarding maintenance procedures in the absence of specific guidance from manuals or publications.

Explanation

The flight commander determines if Preventative Maintenance Inspections (PMI) are accomplished when commercial manuals or publications are not available. This is because the flight commander is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and operations of the flight, and has the authority to make decisions regarding maintenance procedures in the absence of specific guidance from manuals or publications.

101. (204) Which Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

A. Internet protocol (IP).

B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).

D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).

The correct answer is d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging services for troubleshooting and diagnostic purposes. It is used to send error messages and operational information, such as network congestion or unreachable hosts, between network devices. ICMP messages are typically generated in response to errors or abnormal conditions in IP packet processing, making it a valuable tool for network troubleshooting and problem resolution.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). ICMP is a network layer protocol that provides messaging services for troubleshooting and diagnostic purposes. It is used to send error messages and operational information, such as network congestion or unreachable hosts, between network devices. ICMP messages are typically generated in response to errors or abnormal conditions in IP packet processing, making it a valuable tool for network troubleshooting and problem resolution.

102. (002) Which of the following is not a communications security program duty and responsibility for Cyber Transport Systems?

A. Transmission security.

B. Technical security.

C. Emission security.

D. Physical security.

The correct answer is b. Technical security. Technical security refers to the protection of computer systems and networks from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. While it is an important aspect of overall cybersecurity, it is not specifically a duty and responsibility of communications security programs for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs primarily focus on ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information during transmission, as well as protecting against unauthorized disclosure or interception. This includes duties and responsibilities related to transmission security, emission security, and physical security.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Technical security. Technical security refers to the protection of computer systems and networks from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. While it is an important aspect of overall cybersecurity, it is not specifically a duty and responsibility of communications security programs for Cyber Transport Systems. Communications security programs primarily focus on ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information during transmission, as well as protecting against unauthorized disclosure or interception. This includes duties and responsibilities related to transmission security, emission security, and physical security.

103. (007) How many steps are in the risk management (RM) process?

A. Four.

B. Five.

C. Six.

D. Seven.

The correct answer is b. Five. The risk management process typically consists of five steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing and analyzing risks, developing risk response strategies, implementing risk response strategies, and monitoring and controlling risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and mitigating risks within an organization or project.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Five. The risk management process typically consists of five steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing and analyzing risks, developing risk response strategies, implementing risk response strategies, and monitoring and controlling risks. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and mitigating risks within an organization or project.

104. (244) Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?

A. Journal file.

B. Table control.

C. Dump/restore.

D. Pending order file.

Table control is the correct answer because it is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This facility ensures that the data is organized and structured correctly, allowing for efficient storage and retrieval of information. It helps in maintaining data integrity and consistency within the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database. The table control feature allows for the creation, modification, and deletion of tables, as well as defining relationships and constraints between them.

Explanation

Table control is the correct answer because it is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner. This facility ensures that the data is organized and structured correctly, allowing for efficient storage and retrieval of information. It helps in maintaining data integrity and consistency within the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-100 database. The table control feature allows for the creation, modification, and deletion of tables, as well as defining relationships and constraints between them.

105. (009) Which term is used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP)?

A. IP telephony.

B. Network telephony.

C. Voice protection system.

D. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

IP telephony is the correct term used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). This technology allows voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines. It utilizes IP networks to transmit voice data packets, enabling cost-effective and efficient communication. Network telephony refers to the broader concept of telephony services provided over a network, while voice protection system is unrelated to the given technology. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is another commonly used term that refers to the same technology as IP telephony.

Explanation

IP telephony is the correct term used to describe the technology for transmitting voice communications over a data network using open-standard-based internet protocol (IP). This technology allows voice calls to be made over the internet rather than traditional telephone lines. It utilizes IP networks to transmit voice data packets, enabling cost-effective and efficient communication. Network telephony refers to the broader concept of telephony services provided over a network, while voice protection system is unrelated to the given technology. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is another commonly used term that refers to the same technology as IP telephony.

106. (212) Which Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers (IEEE) specification is least susceptible to interference caused by household appliances and medical devices?

A. 802.11a.

B. 802.11b.

C. 802.11g.

D. 802.11r.

IEEE 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz frequency band, which is less crowded compared to the 2.4 GHz band used by IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g. Household appliances and medical devices typically operate in the 2.4 GHz band, causing interference with IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g signals. Therefore, IEEE 802.11a is the least susceptible to interference from these devices.

Explanation

IEEE 802.11a operates in the 5 GHz frequency band, which is less crowded compared to the 2.4 GHz band used by IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g. Household appliances and medical devices typically operate in the 2.4 GHz band, causing interference with IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g signals. Therefore, IEEE 802.11a is the least susceptible to interference from these devices.

107. (212) Which wireless design phase accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users and the security and integrity requirements of the network data?

A. Planning.

B. Securing.

C. Deployment.

D. Management.

The wireless design phase that accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users, and the security and integrity requirements of the network data is the planning phase. During the planning phase, considerations such as user capacity, user training needs, and security measures are taken into account to ensure that the wireless network is designed to meet these requirements. This phase involves analyzing and determining the specific needs and goals of the network before moving on to the implementation and deployment phases.

Explanation

The wireless design phase that accounts for the amount of users on the network, the training required for the users, and the security and integrity requirements of the network data is the planning phase. During the planning phase, considerations such as user capacity, user training needs, and security measures are taken into account to ensure that the wireless network is designed to meet these requirements. This phase involves analyzing and determining the specific needs and goals of the network before moving on to the implementation and deployment phases.

108. (011) What security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied?

A. Default deny.

B. Default allow.

C. Close.

D. Open.

The correct answer is "d. Open." An open security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied. This means that by default, all actions and access are allowed unless explicitly restricted. It is the opposite of a default deny posture, where everything is denied unless specifically allowed.

Explanation

The correct answer is "d. Open." An open security posture permits everything that is not specifically denied. This means that by default, all actions and access are allowed unless explicitly restricted. It is the opposite of a default deny posture, where everything is denied unless specifically allowed.

109. (015) Which method of containing radiated emanations requires both facility and equipment testing?

A. Zoning.

B. Shielding.

C. Suppression.

D. Profile matching.

Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. Zoning involves dividing a facility into different zones based on the level of sensitivity to radiated emanations. Each zone is then tested to ensure that the equipment and facilities within it meet the required standards for containing radiated emanations. This method ensures that sensitive information is protected from being intercepted or compromised by unauthorized individuals or entities.

Explanation

Zoning is the method of containing radiated emanations that requires both facility and equipment testing. Zoning involves dividing a facility into different zones based on the level of sensitivity to radiated emanations. Each zone is then tested to ensure that the equipment and facilities within it meet the required standards for containing radiated emanations. This method ensures that sensitive information is protected from being intercepted or compromised by unauthorized individuals or entities.

110. (016) Equipment is comprised as machines that process information in electronic or electrical form. What equipment should be designated as RED?

A. Equipment processing clear-text confidential information.

B. Equipment processing clear-text unclassified information.

C. Equipment processing encrypted classified information.

D. Equipment processing clear-text classified information.

The equipment that should be designated as RED is the one processing clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment is handling information that is not encrypted and is considered confidential and classified.

Explanation

The equipment that should be designated as RED is the one processing clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment is handling information that is not encrypted and is considered confidential and classified.

111. (023) How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

A. Single.

B. Double.

C. Three.

D. Four.

Industrial and commercial applications typically require three phases of generator power. This is because three-phase power offers several advantages over single-phase power, including higher power capacity, more efficient transmission, and better balance of loads. Three-phase power is commonly used in industries such as manufacturing, construction, and data centers, where large amounts of power are needed to operate machinery, equipment, and systems.

Explanation

Industrial and commercial applications typically require three phases of generator power. This is because three-phase power offers several advantages over single-phase power, including higher power capacity, more efficient transmission, and better balance of loads. Three-phase power is commonly used in industries such as manufacturing, construction, and data centers, where large amounts of power are needed to operate machinery, equipment, and systems.

112. (032) What are the three sections of a fiber optic cable?

A. Core, cladding, and shield.

B. Core, cladding, and jacket.

C. Core, conductor, and shield.

D. Core, conductor, and jacket.

The three sections of a fiber optic cable are the core, cladding, and jacket. The core is the innermost part of the cable where the light travels through. The cladding is the layer that surrounds the core and helps to keep the light inside the core by reflecting it back into the core. The jacket is the outermost layer of the cable that provides protection and insulation.

Explanation

The three sections of a fiber optic cable are the core, cladding, and jacket. The core is the innermost part of the cable where the light travels through. The cladding is the layer that surrounds the core and helps to keep the light inside the core by reflecting it back into the core. The jacket is the outermost layer of the cable that provides protection and insulation.

113. (240) What provides enterprise wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage and incidents of toll fraud?

A. Public Switched Telephone Network system.

B. Enterprise Telephony Management system.

C. Voice over Internet protocol system.

D. Time Division Multiplexing system.

The Enterprise Telephony Management system provides enterprise-wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud. This system allows organizations to monitor and manage their telephony infrastructure, including tracking usage patterns, identifying potential fraud or misuse, and optimizing resource allocation. It provides comprehensive insights and control over the entire telephony network, helping organizations make informed decisions and ensure efficient and secure communication.

Explanation

The Enterprise Telephony Management system provides enterprise-wide visibility into telecom resource utilization, phone network usage, and incidents of toll fraud. This system allows organizations to monitor and manage their telephony infrastructure, including tracking usage patterns, identifying potential fraud or misuse, and optimizing resource allocation. It provides comprehensive insights and control over the entire telephony network, helping organizations make informed decisions and ensure efficient and secure communication.

114. (216) Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?

A. Timing pulses are transmitted within the signal stream.

B. Start and stop pulses control data transmission.

C. System timing is not of critical importance.

D. All data bits are the same length in time.

Synchronous data operation refers to a method of data transmission where the sender and receiver are synchronized with each other. In this method, all data bits are of the same length in time. This means that each data bit is transmitted or received within the same fixed time interval. This characteristic ensures that the sender and receiver are in sync and can accurately interpret the data being transmitted. It allows for reliable and efficient data transmission, especially in scenarios where timing is critical.

Explanation

Synchronous data operation refers to a method of data transmission where the sender and receiver are synchronized with each other. In this method, all data bits are of the same length in time. This means that each data bit is transmitted or received within the same fixed time interval. This characteristic ensures that the sender and receiver are in sync and can accurately interpret the data being transmitted. It allows for reliable and efficient data transmission, especially in scenarios where timing is critical.

115. (247) What does the GVG–110 video switcher serial interface allow?

A. Remote microprocessor control.

B. Remote control of switcher transitions.

C. Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory.

D. Semote (remote*, CDCs have a typo) control of all switcher functions by a personal computer.

The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows for remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer.

Explanation

The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows for remote control of all switcher functions by a personal computer.

116. (231) What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

A. In-effect.

B. Exception.

C. Acceptance.

D. Delayed service.

If the circuit does not meet all required parameters but is still accepted for service, a report must be sent to document this situation. This report is called an "exception" report. It serves to highlight the fact that the circuit does not meet all the required parameters, despite being accepted for service.

Explanation

If the circuit does not meet all required parameters but is still accepted for service, a report must be sent to document this situation. This report is called an "exception" report. It serves to highlight the fact that the circuit does not meet all the required parameters, despite being accepted for service.

117. (232) Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds on what basis?

A. Daily.

B. Weekly.

C. Monthly.

D. Annual.

Trend analysis is a program that monitors and analyzes data over a specific period of time to identify patterns and trends. By conducting trend analysis on a monthly basis, circuits can be evaluated and compared to management thresholds to ensure they are meeting the desired criteria. This regular monthly evaluation allows for timely adjustments and interventions if needed, ensuring that circuits are consistently meeting management thresholds.

Explanation

Trend analysis is a program that monitors and analyzes data over a specific period of time to identify patterns and trends. By conducting trend analysis on a monthly basis, circuits can be evaluated and compared to management thresholds to ensure they are meeting the desired criteria. This regular monthly evaluation allows for timely adjustments and interventions if needed, ensuring that circuits are consistently meeting management thresholds.

118. (214) In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling which port?

A. Console.

B. Auxiliary.

C. Interface.

D. Virtual terminal.

The correct answer is b. Auxiliary.
Disabling the auxiliary port is generally recommended to deny direct dial-in access to a network device. The auxiliary port is typically used for out-of-band management, such as connecting a modem for remote administration. By disabling this port, unauthorized individuals cannot gain direct access to the network device through dial-in connections, enhancing the overall security of the network.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Auxiliary.
Disabling the auxiliary port is generally recommended to deny direct dial-in access to a network device. The auxiliary port is typically used for out-of-band management, such as connecting a modem for remote administration. By disabling this port, unauthorized individuals cannot gain direct access to the network device through dial-in connections, enhancing the overall security of the network.

119. (015) What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations?

A. Distance and angle.

B. Distance and separation.

C. Induction and grounding.

D. Induction and impedance.

The correct answer is a. Distance and angle. Distance refers to the physical separation between the conductor and the source of emanations, while angle refers to the direction or orientation of the conductor in relation to the source. By increasing the distance and changing the angle, a conductor can minimize the compromising emanations, which are unintentional signals or radiation that can potentially be intercepted or exploited by unauthorized individuals.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Distance and angle. Distance refers to the physical separation between the conductor and the source of emanations, while angle refers to the direction or orientation of the conductor in relation to the source. By increasing the distance and changing the angle, a conductor can minimize the compromising emanations, which are unintentional signals or radiation that can potentially be intercepted or exploited by unauthorized individuals.

120. (037) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

A. Sequential.

B. Repetitive.

C. Real-time.

D. Random.

A digital storage oscilloscope (DSO) typically uses real-time sampling on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals. Real-time sampling means that the DSO captures and digitizes the signal in a continuous manner, allowing for accurate representation of the waveform. This is in contrast to other types of sampling, such as sequential or repetitive, which may not capture the entire waveform or may miss important details. Real-time sampling ensures that the DSO can accurately capture and display the signal, making it the preferred method for single-shot or seldom-occurring signals.

Explanation

A digital storage oscilloscope (DSO) typically uses real-time sampling on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals. Real-time sampling means that the DSO captures and digitizes the signal in a continuous manner, allowing for accurate representation of the waveform. This is in contrast to other types of sampling, such as sequential or repetitive, which may not capture the entire waveform or may miss important details. Real-time sampling ensures that the DSO can accurately capture and display the signal, making it the preferred method for single-shot or seldom-occurring signals.

121. (237) When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call

A. is broadcast over multiple paths between switches.

B. is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts.

C. has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.

D. has a dedicated trunk created by the switch .

In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a direct and continuous communication path is established between the caller and the receiver for the duration of the call. This dedicated circuit ensures that the call is not shared with other calls and guarantees a consistent and reliable connection. Unlike packet-switched networks where data is divided into packets and transmitted separately, circuit-switched networks reserve resources and bandwidth specifically for each call.

Explanation

In a circuit-switched telephone network, each call has a dedicated circuit created by the switch. This means that a direct and continuous communication path is established between the caller and the receiver for the duration of the call. This dedicated circuit ensures that the call is not shared with other calls and guarantees a consistent and reliable connection. Unlike packet-switched networks where data is divided into packets and transmitted separately, circuit-switched networks reserve resources and bandwidth specifically for each call.

122. (040) What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?

A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

B. Connection statistics.

C. Protocol statistics.

D. Node discovery.

The protocol statistics test window in a protocol analyzer provides information about the network utilization and frame errors that are specific to a particular protocol. This window allows users to analyze the performance and behavior of the protocol being tested, including any errors or issues that may be occurring. It helps in identifying and troubleshooting problems related to the specific protocol being monitored.

Explanation

The protocol statistics test window in a protocol analyzer provides information about the network utilization and frame errors that are specific to a particular protocol. This window allows users to analyze the performance and behavior of the protocol being tested, including any errors or issues that may be occurring. It helps in identifying and troubleshooting problems related to the specific protocol being monitored.

123. (207) Which routing protocol do internet backbones use?

A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF).

C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).

Internet backbones use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is specifically designed for large-scale networks and is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS). It allows internet service providers (ISPs) to determine the most efficient paths for data to travel across the internet, ensuring reliable and efficient routing. OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP are also routing protocols, but they are typically used within smaller networks and are not commonly used in internet backbones.

Explanation

Internet backbones use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is specifically designed for large-scale networks and is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS). It allows internet service providers (ISPs) to determine the most efficient paths for data to travel across the internet, ensuring reliable and efficient routing. OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP are also routing protocols, but they are typically used within smaller networks and are not commonly used in internet backbones.

124. (221) In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used for?

A. Bit robbing.

B. Bit stuffing.

C. Frame correction.

D. Frame enhancement.

In common associated signaling (CAS), the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 is used for bit robbing. Bit robbing refers to the process of stealing one bit from each frame to carry signaling information. This allows for additional signaling without the need for extra bits or frames. Bit robbing is commonly used in telephony systems to transmit signaling information alongside voice data.

Explanation

In common associated signaling (CAS), the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 is used for bit robbing. Bit robbing refers to the process of stealing one bit from each frame to carry signaling information. This allows for additional signaling without the need for extra bits or frames. Bit robbing is commonly used in telephony systems to transmit signaling information alongside voice data.

125. (008) The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) has several responsibilities except

A. maintain sole administrative privileges on the firewall.

B. standardize, configure, back up, and otherwise maintain the firewall.

C. maintain a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices.

D. install patches or perform any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network(AFEN).

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for several tasks, including maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN). This responsibility likely falls under a different department or team within the organization.

Explanation

The Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (INOSC) is responsible for several tasks, including maintaining sole administrative privileges on the firewall, standardizing, configuring, backing up, and otherwise maintaining the firewall, and maintaining a single naming/configuration standard for boundary devices. However, they are not responsible for installing patches or performing any upgrades provided by the Air Force Enterprise Network (AFEN). This responsibility likely falls under a different department or team within the organization.

126. (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does an application-level firewall operate?

A. 4.

B. 5.

C. 6.

D. 7.

An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for providing services directly to the end-user applications. An application-level firewall can monitor and control the traffic based on specific application protocols and can filter and block certain types of traffic based on the application being used. This allows for more granular control and security measures at the application level.

Explanation

An application-level firewall operates at the seventh layer of the OSI model, which is the application layer. This layer is responsible for providing services directly to the end-user applications. An application-level firewall can monitor and control the traffic based on specific application protocols and can filter and block certain types of traffic based on the application being used. This allows for more granular control and security measures at the application level.

127. (010) Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are

A. active only.

B. passive only.

C. passive and active.

D. neither passive nor active.

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are capable of both passive and active functions. Passive HIDS monitor and analyze system logs, network traffic, and other data sources to detect potential security breaches. They do not take direct action but provide alerts and reports to system administrators. Active HIDS, on the other hand, not only monitor but also respond to security threats by taking actions such as blocking suspicious network traffic, terminating processes, or isolating compromised systems. Therefore, HIDS can perform both passive monitoring and active response to enhance the security of the host system.

Explanation

Host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are capable of both passive and active functions. Passive HIDS monitor and analyze system logs, network traffic, and other data sources to detect potential security breaches. They do not take direct action but provide alerts and reports to system administrators. Active HIDS, on the other hand, not only monitor but also respond to security threats by taking actions such as blocking suspicious network traffic, terminating processes, or isolating compromised systems. Therefore, HIDS can perform both passive monitoring and active response to enhance the security of the host system.

128. (222) What is the process, or result of the process, of modifying (varying) one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal?

A. Modulation.

B. Multiplexing.

C. Quantization.

D. Synthesizing.

Modulation is the process of modifying one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal. This allows the information signal to be transmitted over a communication channel. Multiplexing refers to the combining of multiple signals into one signal for transmission. Quantization is the process of converting a continuous analog signal into a discrete digital signal. Synthesizing refers to the creation or generation of a signal or sound.

Explanation

Modulation is the process of modifying one or more characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with an instantaneous characteristic of an information signal. This allows the information signal to be transmitted over a communication channel. Multiplexing refers to the combining of multiple signals into one signal for transmission. Quantization is the process of converting a continuous analog signal into a discrete digital signal. Synthesizing refers to the creation or generation of a signal or sound.

129. (033) How long do most fiber-optic epoxies take to set?

A. 30–40 minutes.

B. 12–24 hours.

C. 24–48 hours.

D. 48–72 hours.

Most fiber-optic epoxies take 12-24 hours to set.

Explanation

Most fiber-optic epoxies take 12-24 hours to set.

130. (037) Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

A. CURSORS control.

B. MEMORY control.

C. SELECT C1/C2 switch.

D. SAVE/CONTINUE switch.

The CURSORS control button on a digital storage oscilloscope is used to control all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode. This button allows the user to select and manipulate cursors on the screen, which can be used to measure various parameters of the waveform such as voltage, time, frequency, and phase. By adjusting the cursors, the user can accurately analyze and measure different aspects of the waveform being displayed. Therefore, the CURSORS control button is responsible for controlling all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode.

Explanation

The CURSORS control button on a digital storage oscilloscope is used to control all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode. This button allows the user to select and manipulate cursors on the screen, which can be used to measure various parameters of the waveform such as voltage, time, frequency, and phase. By adjusting the cursors, the user can accurately analyze and measure different aspects of the waveform being displayed. Therefore, the CURSORS control button is responsible for controlling all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode.

131. (039) When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action might a manufacturer require to prevent false readings?

A. Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.

B. Connect an injector at the end of the cable being tested.

C. Set the range for maximum reading.

D. Use the frequency mode.

To prevent false readings when using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), a manufacturer might require the user to connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested. This is because the launch cable helps to eliminate any reflections or anomalies that may occur at the beginning of the cable under test. By using a launch cable, the OTDR can accurately measure the characteristics of the cable without any interference or false readings caused by the initial connection point.

Explanation

To prevent false readings when using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), a manufacturer might require the user to connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested. This is because the launch cable helps to eliminate any reflections or anomalies that may occur at the beginning of the cable under test. By using a launch cable, the OTDR can accurately measure the characteristics of the cable without any interference or false readings caused by the initial connection point.

132. (205) How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?

A. Three.

B. Five.

C. Seven.

D. Nine.

To support 90 subnets on a Class B network, seven subnet bits are required. In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, which provides 16 bits for the network portion. By adding seven subnet bits, we increase the number of available subnets to 2^7 = 128. Since we only need 90 subnets, seven subnet bits will be sufficient. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Seven.

Explanation

To support 90 subnets on a Class B network, seven subnet bits are required. In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, which provides 16 bits for the network portion. By adding seven subnet bits, we increase the number of available subnets to 2^7 = 128. Since we only need 90 subnets, seven subnet bits will be sufficient. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Seven.

133. (206) Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?

A. Host-specific relay.

B. Client.

C. Server.

D. Agent.

Teredo is an IPv6 transition technology that enables IPv6 connectivity for devices behind IPv4 NAT devices. It consists of four tunneling components: host-specific relay, client, server, and Teredo relay. The Teredo agent is not one of the components.

Explanation

Teredo is an IPv6 transition technology that enables IPv6 connectivity for devices behind IPv4 NAT devices. It consists of four tunneling components: host-specific relay, client, server, and Teredo relay. The Teredo agent is not one of the components.

134. (022) Which type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) offers the highest level of protection?

A. Passive standby.

B. Line interactive.

C. Double conversion.

D. Ferro resonant standby.

Double conversion UPS offers the highest level of protection. In a double conversion UPS, the incoming AC power is converted to DC power and then reconverted back to AC power, ensuring a constant and clean power supply to connected devices. This process eliminates any fluctuations or disturbances in the power source, providing a high level of protection against power surges, voltage spikes, frequency variations, and other power quality issues. This type of UPS is commonly used for critical applications where uninterrupted and reliable power is essential.

Explanation

Double conversion UPS offers the highest level of protection. In a double conversion UPS, the incoming AC power is converted to DC power and then reconverted back to AC power, ensuring a constant and clean power supply to connected devices. This process eliminates any fluctuations or disturbances in the power source, providing a high level of protection against power surges, voltage spikes, frequency variations, and other power quality issues. This type of UPS is commonly used for critical applications where uninterrupted and reliable power is essential.

135. (025) Which publication series covers standard Air Force installation practices?

A. TO 31–20 series.

B. TO 61–20 series.

C. TO 31–10 series.

D. TO 61–10 series.

The correct answer is c. TO 31-10 series. The TO 31-10 series covers standard Air Force installation practices.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. TO 31-10 series. The TO 31-10 series covers standard Air Force installation practices.

136. (027) Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed how many feet?

A. 5.

B. 10.

C. 15.

D. 20.

Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed 5 feet. This means that the distance between each support point for the cables, such as poles or brackets, will not be more than 5 feet. This is important for ensuring the stability and proper installation of the cables, as excessive spacing between support points can lead to sagging or damage to the cables. By limiting the support intervals to 5 feet, the cables can be properly supported and maintained.

Explanation

Support intervals for cables requiring surface installation will not exceed 5 feet. This means that the distance between each support point for the cables, such as poles or brackets, will not be more than 5 feet. This is important for ensuring the stability and proper installation of the cables, as excessive spacing between support points can lead to sagging or damage to the cables. By limiting the support intervals to 5 feet, the cables can be properly supported and maintained.

137. (028) The advantage of using coaxial cable over paired cable is that coaxial cable

A. is less expensive.

B. is easier to install.

C. does not radiate energy.

D. has a low frequency range.

Coaxial cable has the advantage over paired cable in that it does not radiate energy. This means that it is less susceptible to electromagnetic interference and can provide better signal quality. Coaxial cable has a central conductor surrounded by a layer of insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. This design helps to contain the electromagnetic energy within the cable, preventing it from being radiated and interfering with other devices. Paired cable, on the other hand, consists of two conductors twisted together, which can result in some energy being radiated.

Explanation

Coaxial cable has the advantage over paired cable in that it does not radiate energy. This means that it is less susceptible to electromagnetic interference and can provide better signal quality. Coaxial cable has a central conductor surrounded by a layer of insulation, a metallic shield, and an outer insulating layer. This design helps to contain the electromagnetic energy within the cable, preventing it from being radiated and interfering with other devices. Paired cable, on the other hand, consists of two conductors twisted together, which can result in some energy being radiated.

138. (040) What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

B. Connection statistics.

C. Protocol statistics.

D. Node discovery.

The correct answer is a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics. Protocol analyzers are used to monitor and analyze network traffic. The MAC node statistics window in a protocol analyzer provides information about errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. This window displays statistics related to the MAC layer, which is responsible for controlling access to the network medium. By analyzing these statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot issues related to the physical layer of the network.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Media access control (MAC) node statistics. Protocol analyzers are used to monitor and analyze network traffic. The MAC node statistics window in a protocol analyzer provides information about errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. This window displays statistics related to the MAC layer, which is responsible for controlling access to the network medium. By analyzing these statistics, network administrators can identify and troubleshoot issues related to the physical layer of the network.

139. 46. (219) How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?

A. 8.

B. 12.

C. 24.

D. 48.

The extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence consists of 24 bits.

Explanation

The extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence consists of 24 bits.

140. (225) What are the two major types of frame structures?

A. Low speed and high speed.

B. High speed and EBCDIC.

C. CCITT and low speed.

D. EBCDIC and CCITT.

The correct answer is c. CCITT and low speed. CCITT (Comité Consultatif International Téléphonique et Télégraphique) is a standardization organization that developed protocols for data communication. Low speed refers to slower data transmission rates. Therefore, the two major types of frame structures are CCITT, which represents the standardization organization, and low speed, which represents slower data transmission rates.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. CCITT and low speed. CCITT (Comité Consultatif International Téléphonique et Télégraphique) is a standardization organization that developed protocols for data communication. Low speed refers to slower data transmission rates. Therefore, the two major types of frame structures are CCITT, which represents the standardization organization, and low speed, which represents slower data transmission rates.

141. (226) Which wave-division multiplexing technology uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost?

A. Wave-division multiplexing.

B. Coarse wave division multiplexing.

C. Dense wave division multiplexing.

D. Long wave division multiplexing.

Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) is a wave-division multiplexing technology that uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost. Unlike dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM) which requires expensive cooled lasers, CWDM utilizes uncooled lasers that do not require additional cooling mechanisms. This makes CWDM a more cost-effective solution for multiplexing multiple signals onto a single fiber optic cable. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

Explanation

Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM) is a wave-division multiplexing technology that uses uncooled lasers to reduce cost. Unlike dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM) which requires expensive cooled lasers, CWDM utilizes uncooled lasers that do not require additional cooling mechanisms. This makes CWDM a more cost-effective solution for multiplexing multiple signals onto a single fiber optic cable. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

142. (242) What Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis and error reporting?

A. Visual display unit.

B. Digital trunk controller.

C. Line concentrating modules.

D. Maintenance and administration position.

The correct answer is d. Maintenance and administration position. The DMS-100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis, and error reporting, which are all functions typically performed by the maintenance and administration position. This position is responsible for monitoring and managing the system, identifying and resolving issues, and ensuring the system is running smoothly. The maintenance and administration position would have access to tools and resources for performing these tasks, such as test routing capabilities, fault detection tools, and error reporting systems.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Maintenance and administration position. The DMS-100 system contains subsystems for test routing, fault detection, fault analysis, and error reporting, which are all functions typically performed by the maintenance and administration position. This position is responsible for monitoring and managing the system, identifying and resolving issues, and ensuring the system is running smoothly. The maintenance and administration position would have access to tools and resources for performing these tasks, such as test routing capabilities, fault detection tools, and error reporting systems.

143. (227) What do Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites use to provide very precise time to GPS receivers?

A. Crystal oscillator

B. Internal timing.

C. Atomic clock.

D. Station clock.

GPS satellites use atomic clocks to provide very precise time to GPS receivers. Atomic clocks are extremely accurate timekeeping devices that use the vibrations of atoms to measure time. The use of atomic clocks ensures that the time provided by GPS satellites is highly accurate and reliable, allowing GPS receivers to accurately calculate their position based on the time signals received from multiple satellites.

Explanation

GPS satellites use atomic clocks to provide very precise time to GPS receivers. Atomic clocks are extremely accurate timekeeping devices that use the vibrations of atoms to measure time. The use of atomic clocks ensures that the time provided by GPS satellites is highly accurate and reliable, allowing GPS receivers to accurately calculate their position based on the time signals received from multiple satellites.

144. (227) Which stratum level is a Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source?

A. 1.

B. 2.

C. 3.

D. 4

The correct answer is a. 1. A Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source is considered to be at stratum level 1. Stratum level 1 represents a highly accurate and reliable time source, such as an atomic clock or a GPS receiver directly connected to a computer. This level is typically used as a reference for other network devices and is considered the most accurate and reliable source of time synchronization.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 1. A Global Positioning System (GPS) timing source is considered to be at stratum level 1. Stratum level 1 represents a highly accurate and reliable time source, such as an atomic clock or a GPS receiver directly connected to a computer. This level is typically used as a reference for other network devices and is considered the most accurate and reliable source of time synchronization.

145. (211) Which of the following will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems?

A. Disable all the interfaces after creating the EtherChannel.

B. Configure all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode.

C. Configure all interfaces for the same parameters as the last port configured.

D. Assign all interfaces in the EtherChannel to a different Virtual LAN (VLAN).

Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any potential conflicts or mismatches that could cause issues. By having uniform speed and duplex settings, the interfaces can effectively communicate and work together as part of the EtherChannel, improving overall stability and performance.

Explanation

Configuring all interfaces to operate at the same speed and duplex mode will minimize EtherChannel configuration problems. This ensures that all interfaces in the EtherChannel have consistent settings, preventing any potential conflicts or mismatches that could cause issues. By having uniform speed and duplex settings, the interfaces can effectively communicate and work together as part of the EtherChannel, improving overall stability and performance.

146. (252) What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

A. Alternating current (AC).

B. Direct current (DC).

C. Digital.

D. Analog.

When an alarm is detected in the fence protection system (FPS), an analog signal is sent to the signal processor. This means that the signal is continuous and can have any value within a certain range. Analog signals are commonly used in FPS systems because they can accurately represent the varying levels of electrical current or voltage that are generated when an alarm is triggered. This allows the signal processor to analyze and interpret the alarm signal effectively, helping to detect and respond to potential threats.

Explanation

When an alarm is detected in the fence protection system (FPS), an analog signal is sent to the signal processor. This means that the signal is continuous and can have any value within a certain range. Analog signals are commonly used in FPS systems because they can accurately represent the varying levels of electrical current or voltage that are generated when an alarm is triggered. This allows the signal processor to analyze and interpret the alarm signal effectively, helping to detect and respond to potential threats.

147. (017) Which facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

A. Earth electrode.

B. Fault protection.

C. Signal reference.

D. Lightning protection.

The facility ground subsystem that uses surge arrestors is the lightning protection system. Surge arrestors are devices that protect electrical systems from voltage spikes caused by lightning strikes. These devices divert the excess voltage to the ground, preventing damage to the electrical equipment. Therefore, option d, lightning protection, is the correct answer.

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem that uses surge arrestors is the lightning protection system. Surge arrestors are devices that protect electrical systems from voltage spikes caused by lightning strikes. These devices divert the excess voltage to the ground, preventing damage to the electrical equipment. Therefore, option d, lightning protection, is the correct answer.

148. (030) What cable type connects devices that operate at similar layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Straight-through.

B. Crossover.

C. Rollover.

D. Coaxial.

Crossover cables are used to connect devices that operate at similar layers of the OSI model. These cables are specifically designed to allow the exchange of data between two devices of the same type, such as two computers or two switches. The wiring arrangement in a crossover cable enables the transmit and receive pairs to be crossed over, allowing the devices to communicate effectively. This is in contrast to straight-through cables, which are used to connect devices that operate at different layers of the OSI model. Rollover cables are used for connecting a computer to a router or switch for configuration purposes, while coaxial cables are used for transmitting television signals.

Explanation

Crossover cables are used to connect devices that operate at similar layers of the OSI model. These cables are specifically designed to allow the exchange of data between two devices of the same type, such as two computers or two switches. The wiring arrangement in a crossover cable enables the transmit and receive pairs to be crossed over, allowing the devices to communicate effectively. This is in contrast to straight-through cables, which are used to connect devices that operate at different layers of the OSI model. Rollover cables are used for connecting a computer to a router or switch for configuration purposes, while coaxial cables are used for transmitting television signals.

149. (238) In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries

A. user traffic.

B. call setup traffic.

C. handshaking data.

D. management data.

In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries user traffic. This means that it is responsible for carrying the actual data that is being transmitted between the user's devices, such as voice or video signals. The "B" channel is one of the two channels in ISDN, with the other being the "D" channel which is responsible for call setup and management. Therefore, the correct answer is a. user traffic.

Explanation

In Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), the "B" channel carries user traffic. This means that it is responsible for carrying the actual data that is being transmitted between the user's devices, such as voice or video signals. The "B" channel is one of the two channels in ISDN, with the other being the "D" channel which is responsible for call setup and management. Therefore, the correct answer is a. user traffic.

150. (240) Where are voice protection system servers installed?

A. Local bases.

B. MAJCOM headquarters.

C. Air Force Network Operations Center.

D. Integrated Network and Security Center.

The voice protection system servers are installed in the Integrated Network and Security Center. This is where the servers are located to provide protection for voice communications within the Air Force.

Explanation

The voice protection system servers are installed in the Integrated Network and Security Center. This is where the servers are located to provide protection for voice communications within the Air Force.

151. (240) Which is not a characteristic and capability of a voice protection system?

A. Securing communications.

B. Enabling of real-time notifications.

C. Centralizing yet distributing management.

D. Detecting and blocking all inbound and outbound modem connections.

The correct answer is c. Centralizing yet distributing management. A voice protection system typically focuses on securing communications, enabling real-time notifications, and detecting and blocking modem connections. Centralizing yet distributing management is not a characteristic or capability of a voice protection system.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Centralizing yet distributing management. A voice protection system typically focuses on securing communications, enabling real-time notifications, and detecting and blocking modem connections. Centralizing yet distributing management is not a characteristic or capability of a voice protection system.

152. (243) Where do incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the ENET enter the NT9X35A cross-point card?

A. Vertical bus (V-bus).

B. Horizontal bus (H-bus).

C. Clock rate/messaging card.

D. Enhanced network (ENET) processor.

Incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the NT9X35A cross-point card enter through the Vertical bus (V-bus).

Explanation

Incoming (unswitched) circuits transmitted to the NT9X35A cross-point card enter through the Vertical bus (V-bus).

153. (231) Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?

A. 72.

B. 48.

C. 24.

D. 12.

Within 72 normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO), the circuit control office (CCO) must submit an in-effect report.

Explanation

Within 72 normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO), the circuit control office (CCO) must submit an in-effect report.

154. (252) What is the maximum detection distance in meters of an Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS)?

A. 60.

B. 80.

C. 100.

D. 150.

An Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS) is a security system that uses infrared technology to detect intrusions. The maximum detection distance refers to the furthest distance at which the system can detect an intrusion. In this case, the correct answer is b. 80, indicating that the IPIDS can detect intrusions up to a maximum distance of 80 meters.

Explanation

An Infrared Pulsed Intrusion Detection System (IPIDS) is a security system that uses infrared technology to detect intrusions. The maximum detection distance refers to the furthest distance at which the system can detect an intrusion. In this case, the correct answer is b. 80, indicating that the IPIDS can detect intrusions up to a maximum distance of 80 meters.

155. (222) To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than

A. 20 kHz.

B. 50 kHz.

C. 75 kHz.

D. 88 kHz.

To prevent interference between FM radio stations, the FCC has set limits on the amount of frequency deviation allowed for each station. This means that each station can cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than 75 kHz. This restriction ensures that the signals from different stations do not overlap or interfere with each other, allowing for clear and distinct reception of each station's broadcast.

Explanation

To prevent interference between FM radio stations, the FCC has set limits on the amount of frequency deviation allowed for each station. This means that each station can cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than 75 kHz. This restriction ensures that the signals from different stations do not overlap or interfere with each other, allowing for clear and distinct reception of each station's broadcast.

156. (026) How are connectorized cables labeled?

Connectorized cables are labeled by placing the first label within 12 inches of the connector and marking it as "TO", and the second label is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM". This labeling system helps identify the direction of the cable and ensures proper connectivity.

Explanation

Connectorized cables are labeled by placing the first label within 12 inches of the connector and marking it as "TO", and the second label is placed within two (2) inches of the first label and marked "FROM". This labeling system helps identify the direction of the cable and ensures proper connectivity.

157. (027) Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

A. Lower.

B. Upper.

C. Right.

D. Left.

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designated for these types of cables to ensure proper organization and separation from other types of cables. Placing signal and control cables in the upper section also helps to minimize interference and maintain the integrity of the signals being transmitted.

Explanation

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This section is typically designated for these types of cables to ensure proper organization and separation from other types of cables. Placing signal and control cables in the upper section also helps to minimize interference and maintain the integrity of the signals being transmitted.

158. (032) Which type of cable is the easiest to splice?

A. Multimode graded-index fiber.

B. Multimode step index fiber.

C. Single mode fiber.

D. Coaxial cable.

Multimode step index fiber is the easiest to splice because it has a larger core diameter and a uniform refractive index profile, making it easier to align and join the fiber ends together. In contrast, multimode graded-index fiber has a varying refractive index profile, which can make the splicing process more challenging. Single mode fiber has a much smaller core diameter, requiring more precise alignment for splicing. Coaxial cable, on the other hand, is not typically spliced but rather terminated using connectors.

Explanation

Multimode step index fiber is the easiest to splice because it has a larger core diameter and a uniform refractive index profile, making it easier to align and join the fiber ends together. In contrast, multimode graded-index fiber has a varying refractive index profile, which can make the splicing process more challenging. Single mode fiber has a much smaller core diameter, requiring more precise alignment for splicing. Coaxial cable, on the other hand, is not typically spliced but rather terminated using connectors.

159. (227) To create a better timing environment in communications networks, external timing distribution occurs through

A. station clocks.

B. internal timing.

C. crystal oscillators.

D. distribution frames.

External timing distribution occurs through station clocks. Station clocks are synchronized clocks that are used to distribute accurate timing signals to various devices in a communications network. These clocks ensure that all devices in the network are operating on the same time reference, which is crucial for maintaining reliable and efficient communication. By using station clocks, the timing environment in the network can be improved, leading to better synchronization and coordination among the devices.

Explanation

External timing distribution occurs through station clocks. Station clocks are synchronized clocks that are used to distribute accurate timing signals to various devices in a communications network. These clocks ensure that all devices in the network are operating on the same time reference, which is crucial for maintaining reliable and efficient communication. By using station clocks, the timing environment in the network can be improved, leading to better synchronization and coordination among the devices.

160. (232) If a circuit fails its management threshold, what test might be performed?

A. Quality control.

B. Operational acceptance.

C. Test and acceptance.

D. Operations and maintenance.

If a circuit fails its management threshold, the appropriate test to be performed would be quality control. Quality control involves the process of inspecting and testing the circuit to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. By conducting quality control tests, any issues or faults in the circuit can be identified and addressed, ensuring that it functions properly and meets the desired performance criteria.

Explanation

If a circuit fails its management threshold, the appropriate test to be performed would be quality control. Quality control involves the process of inspecting and testing the circuit to ensure that it meets the required standards and specifications. By conducting quality control tests, any issues or faults in the circuit can be identified and addressed, ensuring that it functions properly and meets the desired performance criteria.

161. (010) Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are

A. active only.

B. passive only.

C. passive and active.

D. neither passive nor active.

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are classified as passive only because they monitor network traffic passively without actively interfering or modifying it. NIDS analyze network packets and compare them against a database of known attack signatures or abnormal behaviors to detect potential intrusions. They do not actively block or prevent attacks but instead provide alerts or notifications to system administrators for further investigation and response.

Explanation

Network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are classified as passive only because they monitor network traffic passively without actively interfering or modifying it. NIDS analyze network packets and compare them against a database of known attack signatures or abnormal behaviors to detect potential intrusions. They do not actively block or prevent attacks but instead provide alerts or notifications to system administrators for further investigation and response.

162. (015) A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone

A. A.

B. B.

C. C.

D. D.

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone B. This indicates that the facility falls within a specific range of inspectable space, which is between 20 and 100 meters.

Explanation

A facility with an inspectable space of more than 20 meters, but less than 100 meters would be considered to be in facility zone B. This indicates that the facility falls within a specific range of inspectable space, which is between 20 and 100 meters.

163. (016) Which type of separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device, or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device?

A. Physical.

B. Electrical.

C. Equipment.

D. Mechanical.

Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This type of separation is achieved by using techniques such as isolation transformers, opto-isolators, or galvanic isolation to prevent direct electrical connections between the RED and BLACK devices. By implementing electrical separation, the integrity and security of the signals are maintained, preventing unauthorized access or interference.

Explanation

Electrical separation ensures that every signal conductor from a RED device routes to another RED device or becomes encrypted before connecting to a BLACK device. This type of separation is achieved by using techniques such as isolation transformers, opto-isolators, or galvanic isolation to prevent direct electrical connections between the RED and BLACK devices. By implementing electrical separation, the integrity and security of the signals are maintained, preventing unauthorized access or interference.

164. (252) What is the secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?

A. Beam break.

B. Signal fade margin.

C. Multipath reflection.

D. Multipath amplification.

The secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor is multipath reflection. This means that the sensor detects any reflections or echoes of the microwave signal that bounce off objects or obstacles in its path. These reflections can occur due to the signal bouncing off buildings, trees, or other structures, and the sensor is able to analyze these reflections to detect any disturbances or intrusions in the monitored area.

Explanation

The secondary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor is multipath reflection. This means that the sensor detects any reflections or echoes of the microwave signal that bounce off objects or obstacles in its path. These reflections can occur due to the signal bouncing off buildings, trees, or other structures, and the sensor is able to analyze these reflections to detect any disturbances or intrusions in the monitored area.

165. (240) The vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks were highlighted in a report released by the

A. President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee.

B. Air Force Network Integration Center.

C. Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab.

D. Cryptographic Systems Group.

The correct answer is a. President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. This committee is responsible for advising the President on matters related to national security and telecommunications. The report released by this committee highlights the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks, indicating that there are potential risks and weaknesses in these networks that need to be addressed for national security purposes.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. President's National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee. This committee is responsible for advising the President on matters related to national security and telecommunications. The report released by this committee highlights the vulnerabilities of voice and data converged networks, indicating that there are potential risks and weaknesses in these networks that need to be addressed for national security purposes.

166. (240) Which is not a component of the voice protection system architecture?

A. Server.

B. Firewall.

C. Software.

D. Appliance.

The voice protection system architecture consists of various components that work together to ensure the security and integrity of voice communications. These components include servers, software, and appliances. A firewall, however, is not typically considered a direct component of the voice protection system architecture. Firewalls are generally used to protect networks from unauthorized access and do not directly focus on voice communication security. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Firewall.

Explanation

The voice protection system architecture consists of various components that work together to ensure the security and integrity of voice communications. These components include servers, software, and appliances. A firewall, however, is not typically considered a direct component of the voice protection system architecture. Firewalls are generally used to protect networks from unauthorized access and do not directly focus on voice communication security. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Firewall.

167. (220) The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that functions to

A. process switch addressing.

B. control digit translations.

C. control and process calls.

D. provide a clear signal.

The signaling equipment in a communication system has three types of communication signals that are responsible for controlling and processing calls. These signals are used to establish, maintain, and terminate connections between different devices or networks. They carry information about the call setup, call progress, and call termination. Therefore, option c is the correct answer as it accurately describes the function of the signaling equipment.

Explanation

The signaling equipment in a communication system has three types of communication signals that are responsible for controlling and processing calls. These signals are used to establish, maintain, and terminate connections between different devices or networks. They carry information about the call setup, call progress, and call termination. Therefore, option c is the correct answer as it accurately describes the function of the signaling equipment.

168. (223) Which form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?

A. Delta modulation.

B. Frequency shift keying.

C. Binary-phase shift keying.

D. Pulse-amplitude modulation.

Binary-phase shift keying (BPSK) is a form of modulation that is insensitive to signal variations. In BPSK, the phase of the carrier signal is shifted by 180 degrees to represent binary data. This means that the amplitude and frequency of the carrier signal can vary without affecting the demodulation process. As long as the phase is accurately detected, the original binary data can be recovered, making BPSK robust against signal variations. Delta modulation, frequency shift keying, and pulse-amplitude modulation are all sensitive to signal variations and may result in errors during demodulation.

Explanation

Binary-phase shift keying (BPSK) is a form of modulation that is insensitive to signal variations. In BPSK, the phase of the carrier signal is shifted by 180 degrees to represent binary data. This means that the amplitude and frequency of the carrier signal can vary without affecting the demodulation process. As long as the phase is accurately detected, the original binary data can be recovered, making BPSK robust against signal variations. Delta modulation, frequency shift keying, and pulse-amplitude modulation are all sensitive to signal variations and may result in errors during demodulation.

169. (242) What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic–100 (MSL–100) supports?

A. 10,000.

B. 30,000.

C. 100,000.

D. 300,000

The Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports a maximum of 30,000 ports.

Explanation

The Meridian System Logic-100 (MSL-100) supports a maximum of 30,000 ports.

170. (225) The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is

A. frequency division.

B. binary division.

C. pulse division.

D. time division.

The T1 multiplexer uses time division as its method of multiplexing. Time division multiplexing involves dividing the available time slots in a communication channel into smaller intervals and assigning each interval to different signals. In the case of T1 multiplexing, multiple voice or data signals are combined into a single T1 line by allocating specific time slots to each signal. This allows for efficient transmission of multiple signals over a single line by utilizing the available time slots in a sequential manner.

Explanation

The T1 multiplexer uses time division as its method of multiplexing. Time division multiplexing involves dividing the available time slots in a communication channel into smaller intervals and assigning each interval to different signals. In the case of T1 multiplexing, multiple voice or data signals are combined into a single T1 line by allocating specific time slots to each signal. This allows for efficient transmission of multiple signals over a single line by utilizing the available time slots in a sequential manner.

171. (037) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

A. sequential records.

B. waveform points.

C. record lengths.

D. record points.

The correct answer is b. waveform points. In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored in memory as waveform points. These points represent the amplitude of the signal at specific time intervals. By storing the waveform points, the oscilloscope can display and analyze the signal in a graphical form, allowing users to observe the shape, frequency, and other characteristics of the signal.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. waveform points. In a digital storage oscilloscope, sampled data points are stored in memory as waveform points. These points represent the amplitude of the signal at specific time intervals. By storing the waveform points, the oscilloscope can display and analyze the signal in a graphical form, allowing users to observe the shape, frequency, and other characteristics of the signal.

172. (038) What determines the size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT)?

A. The total amount of bandwidth in the test pattern.

B. The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern.

C. The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.

D. The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern.

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the segment is dependent on the number of bits needed to represent all the bits in the pattern.

Explanation

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the segment is dependent on the number of bits needed to represent all the bits in the pattern.

173. (216) A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes

A. synchronous operation.

B. asynchronous operation.

C. synchronous and/or isochronous operation.

D. asynchronous and/or synchronous operation.

A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes asynchronous operation. Synchronizing bits are used to maintain the timing and synchronization of data transmission in asynchronous communication. Asynchronous operation refers to a mode of operation where data is transmitted in an intermittent and independent manner, without requiring a constant clock signal. Therefore, the presence of synchronizing bits indicates that the signal is being transmitted asynchronously.

Explanation

A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes asynchronous operation. Synchronizing bits are used to maintain the timing and synchronization of data transmission in asynchronous communication. Asynchronous operation refers to a mode of operation where data is transmitted in an intermittent and independent manner, without requiring a constant clock signal. Therefore, the presence of synchronizing bits indicates that the signal is being transmitted asynchronously.

174. (223) The form of pulse modulation in which a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions is known as

A. pulse-amplitude.

B. pulse-duration.

C. pulse-position.

D. pulse-code.

Pulse-position modulation (PPM) is a form of pulse modulation where the position of a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions. In PPM, the timing of the pulse represents the information being transmitted. This modulation technique is commonly used in digital communication systems where precise timing is crucial for accurate data transmission. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) varies the amplitude of the pulse, pulse-duration modulation (PDM) varies the duration of the pulse, and pulse-code modulation (PCM) is a digital modulation technique that represents analog signals by encoding them into binary code words.

Explanation

Pulse-position modulation (PPM) is a form of pulse modulation where the position of a discrete pulse is varied within a range of positions. In PPM, the timing of the pulse represents the information being transmitted. This modulation technique is commonly used in digital communication systems where precise timing is crucial for accurate data transmission. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) varies the amplitude of the pulse, pulse-duration modulation (PDM) varies the duration of the pulse, and pulse-code modulation (PCM) is a digital modulation technique that represents analog signals by encoding them into binary code words.

175. (211) Which of the following is not a distinct layer of a hierarchical network design?

A. Core.

B. Access.

C. Transport.

D. Distribution.

The correct answer is c. Transport. In a hierarchical network design, the core layer, access layer, and distribution layer are all distinct layers that serve different purposes. The core layer is responsible for high-speed data forwarding and connectivity between different parts of the network. The access layer provides connectivity for end devices and users to the network. The distribution layer acts as an intermediary between the core and access layers, providing services such as routing, filtering, and policy enforcement. However, the transport layer is not a distinct layer in a hierarchical network design. It is a layer in the OSI model that is responsible for end-to-end communication and ensures reliable data transfer between network hosts.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Transport. In a hierarchical network design, the core layer, access layer, and distribution layer are all distinct layers that serve different purposes. The core layer is responsible for high-speed data forwarding and connectivity between different parts of the network. The access layer provides connectivity for end devices and users to the network. The distribution layer acts as an intermediary between the core and access layers, providing services such as routing, filtering, and policy enforcement. However, the transport layer is not a distinct layer in a hierarchical network design. It is a layer in the OSI model that is responsible for end-to-end communication and ensures reliable data transfer between network hosts.

176. (010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) uses software sensors?

A. Active.

B. Passive.

C. Host-based.

D. Network-based.

Host-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) use software sensors to monitor and analyze activities on a specific host or endpoint. These sensors are installed directly on the host and are capable of monitoring events such as file changes, system calls, network connections, and user activities. By analyzing these events, host-based IDS can detect and alert on suspicious or malicious activities occurring on the host itself. This makes host-based IDS particularly effective in detecting insider threats and attacks targeting specific hosts or endpoints.

Explanation

Host-based intrusion detection systems (IDS) use software sensors to monitor and analyze activities on a specific host or endpoint. These sensors are installed directly on the host and are capable of monitoring events such as file changes, system calls, network connections, and user activities. By analyzing these events, host-based IDS can detect and alert on suspicious or malicious activities occurring on the host itself. This makes host-based IDS particularly effective in detecting insider threats and attacks targeting specific hosts or endpoints.

177. (015) Which AF System Security Instruction (AFSSI) provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program?

A. 7700.

B. 7701.

C. 7702.

D. 7703.

AFSSI 7700 provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program.

Explanation

AFSSI 7700 provides the overall implementation of DOD's TEMPEST program.

178. (035) The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to

A. measure the individual interface signals.

B. change the voltage of individual interface signals.

C. allow the cross-patching of the individual interface conductors.

D. allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing.

The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing. This means that the switches can be used to temporarily disconnect specific interface signals, allowing for testing and troubleshooting of those signals without affecting the rest of the system. This can be useful in diagnosing and isolating issues within the interface conductors.

Explanation

The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors for isolated testing. This means that the switches can be used to temporarily disconnect specific interface signals, allowing for testing and troubleshooting of those signals without affecting the rest of the system. This can be useful in diagnosing and isolating issues within the interface conductors.

179. (241) How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

A. 32

B. 12

C. 3

D. 1

The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has 3 serial data interface ports.

Explanation

The Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller has 3 serial data interface ports.

180. (221) Which common channel signaling (CCS) mode does the transfer of messages relating to signaling between two points occur directly over links interconnecting the signaling points?

A. Associated.

B. Nonassociated.

C. Quasi-associated.

D. Multi-associated.

In the associated common channel signaling (CCS) mode, the transfer of messages relating to signaling occurs directly over links interconnecting the signaling points. This means that the signaling messages are sent and received between the specific points without any intermediate signaling points. This mode allows for a more direct and efficient communication between the signaling points, ensuring that the messages are delivered accurately and quickly.

Explanation

In the associated common channel signaling (CCS) mode, the transfer of messages relating to signaling occurs directly over links interconnecting the signaling points. This means that the signaling messages are sent and received between the specific points without any intermediate signaling points. This mode allows for a more direct and efficient communication between the signaling points, ensuring that the messages are delivered accurately and quickly.

181. (229) What document is the authority for the operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment necessary for the installation or operation of the circuit? a. Request for service.

A. Request for service.

B. Service acquisition message.

C. Telecommunications service order.

D. Telecommunications service request.

The correct answer is c. Telecommunications service order. This document serves as the authority for operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment needed for the installation or operation of the circuit. It outlines the details of the requested services, including the type of equipment needed and any additional requirements.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Telecommunications service order. This document serves as the authority for operations and maintenance agencies to procure specific devices and ancillary equipment needed for the installation or operation of the circuit. It outlines the details of the requested services, including the type of equipment needed and any additional requirements.

182. (230) Which DD form do you use for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders?

A. 1441.

B. 1443.

C. 1698.

D. 1753.

The correct answer is d. 1753. The DD Form 1753 is used for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders. This form is specifically designed for recording important information and events in a chronological order, providing a comprehensive overview of activities and decisions made within the unit. It serves as a valuable tool for effective communication and decision-making within the unit command structure.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. 1753. The DD Form 1753 is used for an official narrative log that is often used to brief unit commanders. This form is specifically designed for recording important information and events in a chronological order, providing a comprehensive overview of activities and decisions made within the unit. It serves as a valuable tool for effective communication and decision-making within the unit command structure.

183. (245) What names are given to the shifted R–Y and B–Y signals, respectively?

A. I (45° in-phase) and Q (90° in-phase).

B. I (90° in-phase) and Q (45° in-phase).

C. I (out-of-phase) and Q (quadrature).

D. I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature).

The shifted R-Y and B-Y signals are referred to as I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature) signals.

Explanation

The shifted R-Y and B-Y signals are referred to as I (in-phase) and Q (quadrature) signals.

184. (246) Which digital broadcast system was adopted by the United States as the standard?

A. Digital Video Broadcast-Terrestrial system.

B. Advanced Television Systems Committee.

C. Digital Video Broadcast-Satellite system.

D. Digital Video Broadcast-Committee.

The United States adopted the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) as the standard digital broadcast system. This system was developed to replace the previous analog television system and is used for over-the-air terrestrial television broadcasting. It provides higher quality audio and video, as well as additional features such as high-definition television (HDTV) and interactive capabilities.

Explanation

The United States adopted the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) as the standard digital broadcast system. This system was developed to replace the previous analog television system and is used for over-the-air terrestrial television broadcasting. It provides higher quality audio and video, as well as additional features such as high-definition television (HDTV) and interactive capabilities.

185. (251) Which interior intrusion detection system is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo or building?

A. AN/GSS–42.

B. AN/GSS–41.

C. AN/GSS–29.

D. AN/GSS–39.

The AN/GSS-39 is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building. The other options (AN/GSS-42, AN/GSS-41, AN/GSS-29) do not have this specific capability and are not designed for this purpose.

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39 is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building. The other options (AN/GSS-42, AN/GSS-41, AN/GSS-29) do not have this specific capability and are not designed for this purpose.

186. 82. (035) The purpose of a breakout box is to

A. provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable.

B. allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors.

C. measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance.

D. locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs.

A breakout box is a device used in telecommunications and networking to allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors. It provides a convenient way to connect and disconnect multiple wires without having to directly tap into the cables. This allows technicians to easily troubleshoot and test the connections without disrupting the network. The breakout box typically has multiple ports or terminals where the conductors can be connected, and it may also have indicators or test points to monitor the signals passing through the conductors.

Explanation

A breakout box is a device used in telecommunications and networking to allow monitoring and access to multiple conductors. It provides a convenient way to connect and disconnect multiple wires without having to directly tap into the cables. This allows technicians to easily troubleshoot and test the connections without disrupting the network. The breakout box typically has multiple ports or terminals where the conductors can be connected, and it may also have indicators or test points to monitor the signals passing through the conductors.

187. (240) During the initial research for voice system security, who recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by voice protection system?

A. The President’s National Security Telecommunications Advisory Committee.

B. The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab.

C. The Air Force Network Integration Center.

D. The Cryptographic Systems Group.

The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by a voice protection system.

Explanation

The Air Force Information Warfare Battle Lab recognized that the most common security threats could be addressed by a voice protection system.

188. (009) At which open systems interconnect (OSI) layer does a packet filter gateway operate at?

A. 2.

B. 3.

C. 4.

D. 5.

A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding packets across different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming packets and makes decisions on whether to allow or block them based on predetermined rules. By operating at this layer, the packet filter gateway can filter and control network traffic based on IP addresses, ports, protocols, and other criteria.

Explanation

A packet filter gateway operates at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding packets across different networks. A packet filter gateway examines the headers of incoming packets and makes decisions on whether to allow or block them based on predetermined rules. By operating at this layer, the packet filter gateway can filter and control network traffic based on IP addresses, ports, protocols, and other criteria.

189. (010) Which intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures?

A. Active.

B. Passive.

C. Host-based.

D. Network-based.

A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. This means that it analyzes the network traffic and looks for any abnormal behavior or patterns that may indicate a potential intrusion or attack. It also compares the packets against a database of known virus signatures to identify any malicious activity. Network-based IDS is different from host-based IDS, which monitors the activities on individual hosts or devices.

Explanation

A network-based intrusion detection system (IDS) monitors packets for protocol anomalies and known virus signatures. This means that it analyzes the network traffic and looks for any abnormal behavior or patterns that may indicate a potential intrusion or attack. It also compares the packets against a database of known virus signatures to identify any malicious activity. Network-based IDS is different from host-based IDS, which monitors the activities on individual hosts or devices.

190. (017) Which facility ground subsystem is also called the "signal ground" and controls electrical noise and static in a facility?

A. Earth electrode.

B. Fault protection.

C. Signal reference.

D. Lightning protection.

The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. This subsystem is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. It provides a stable reference point for signals and helps to maintain signal integrity by reducing interference and noise.

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem that is also called the "signal ground" is the signal reference. This subsystem is responsible for controlling electrical noise and static in a facility. It provides a stable reference point for signals and helps to maintain signal integrity by reducing interference and noise.

191. (234) When you must restore user service by rerouting, what is the second type of circuit you preempt?

A. Spare channels.

B. Active on-call circuits.

C. Nonactive on-call circuits.

D. Circuits with 00 RP codes.

When you must restore user service by rerouting, the second type of circuit you preempt is nonactive on-call circuits. This means that if there are any circuits that are currently not in use but have been designated as on-call circuits, they will be preempted in order to restore user service.

Explanation

When you must restore user service by rerouting, the second type of circuit you preempt is nonactive on-call circuits. This means that if there are any circuits that are currently not in use but have been designated as on-call circuits, they will be preempted in order to restore user service.

192. (040) What protocol analyzer test window automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

B. Connection statistics.

C. Protocol statistics.

D. Node discovery.

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, the test window that automatically runs in the background is the Node discovery. This feature allows the protocol analyzer to identify and locate all the nodes or devices connected to the network. It helps in providing information about the network topology and the devices present in the network.

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, the test window that automatically runs in the background is the Node discovery. This feature allows the protocol analyzer to identify and locate all the nodes or devices connected to the network. It helps in providing information about the network topology and the devices present in the network.

193. (224) Which form of multiplexing is very susceptible to signal deterioration?

A. Frequency-division.

B. Wave-division.

C. Time-division.

D. Phase-division.

Frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) is a technique that divides the available bandwidth into multiple frequency channels, each allocated to a different signal. However, FDM is susceptible to signal deterioration because it relies on the separation of signals by their frequencies. If the signals overlap or interfere with each other, it can result in signal deterioration and loss of information. This is in contrast to other forms of multiplexing such as time-division multiplexing (TDM) or wave-division multiplexing (WDM), which have different mechanisms for combining and separating signals and are less susceptible to signal deterioration.

Explanation

Frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) is a technique that divides the available bandwidth into multiple frequency channels, each allocated to a different signal. However, FDM is susceptible to signal deterioration because it relies on the separation of signals by their frequencies. If the signals overlap or interfere with each other, it can result in signal deterioration and loss of information. This is in contrast to other forms of multiplexing such as time-division multiplexing (TDM) or wave-division multiplexing (WDM), which have different mechanisms for combining and separating signals and are less susceptible to signal deterioration.

194. (035) What do the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow?

A. Measurement of individual interface signals.

B. Interruption of voltage/current to the interfaces.

C. Cross-patching of individual interface conductors.

D. Changing the voltage of individual interface signals.

The jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow for cross-patching of individual interface conductors. This means that they allow for the rearrangement or reconfiguration of the connections between different interface conductors, enabling flexibility in the setup and configuration of the interfaces.

Explanation

The jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box allow for cross-patching of individual interface conductors. This means that they allow for the rearrangement or reconfiguration of the connections between different interface conductors, enabling flexibility in the setup and configuration of the interfaces.

195. (201) At what Open System Interconnection (OSI) layer are virtual circuits established, maintained and terminated?

A. Network.

B. Physical.

C. Data link.

D. Transport.

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and ensures reliable and orderly delivery of data between network devices. It establishes a virtual circuit by setting up a connection between the sender and receiver, maintains it by monitoring the flow of data and handling any errors or congestion, and terminates the circuit when the communication is complete. The Network layer (option a) handles routing and logical addressing, the Physical layer (option b) deals with the physical transmission of data, and the Data link layer (option c) manages the reliable transmission of data over a physical link.

Explanation

Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at the Transport layer of the OSI model. The Transport layer is responsible for end-to-end communication and ensures reliable and orderly delivery of data between network devices. It establishes a virtual circuit by setting up a connection between the sender and receiver, maintains it by monitoring the flow of data and handling any errors or congestion, and terminates the circuit when the communication is complete. The Network layer (option a) handles routing and logical addressing, the Physical layer (option b) deals with the physical transmission of data, and the Data link layer (option c) manages the reliable transmission of data over a physical link.

196. (242) What link is used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?

A. DS–1.

B. DS–30.

C. DS–30A.

D. DS–512.

The link used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus is DS-512.

Explanation

The link used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus is DS-512.

197. (228) Which agency has responsibility for a circuit end-to-end?

A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

B. Network Control Center (NCC).

C. Node Side Coordinator (NSC).

D. Circuit Control Office (CCO).

The Circuit Control Office (CCO) is responsible for managing a circuit end-to-end. They oversee the entire circuit, ensuring its proper functioning and addressing any issues that may arise. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is a separate agency responsible for providing information technology and communications support to the U.S. Department of Defense. The Network Control Center (NCC) and Node Side Coordinator (NSC) are not specifically mentioned as having responsibility for a circuit end-to-end.

Explanation

The Circuit Control Office (CCO) is responsible for managing a circuit end-to-end. They oversee the entire circuit, ensuring its proper functioning and addressing any issues that may arise. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is a separate agency responsible for providing information technology and communications support to the U.S. Department of Defense. The Network Control Center (NCC) and Node Side Coordinator (NSC) are not specifically mentioned as having responsibility for a circuit end-to-end.

198. (230) Which DD form is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports?

A. 1441.

B. 1443.

C. 1445.

D. 1753.

The correct answer is b. 1443. The DD Form 1443 is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports. This form provides a standardized format for reporting and documenting the status of the DODIN, including information on outages, disruptions, and other significant events. It is an important tool for tracking and managing the status of the DODIN and ensuring effective communication and coordination within the Department of Defense.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. 1443. The DD Form 1443 is used as the primary source of information when preparing DOD Information Network (DODIN) status reports. This form provides a standardized format for reporting and documenting the status of the DODIN, including information on outages, disruptions, and other significant events. It is an important tool for tracking and managing the status of the DODIN and ensuring effective communication and coordination within the Department of Defense.

199. (251) What does the AN/GSS–39(V) system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?

A. Zone indicator plate.

B. Video display unit.

C. End-of-line module.

D. Tamper interface module.

The AN/GSS-39(V) system uses end-of-line modules to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel. These modules are typically installed at the end of each sensor loop and provide a way to detect any breaks or faults in the wiring. By constantly monitoring the circuit, the end-of-line module can alert the system if there is any tampering or damage to the wiring, ensuring the system's overall integrity and functionality.

Explanation

The AN/GSS-39(V) system uses end-of-line modules to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel. These modules are typically installed at the end of each sensor loop and provide a way to detect any breaks or faults in the wiring. By constantly monitoring the circuit, the end-of-line module can alert the system if there is any tampering or damage to the wiring, ensuring the system's overall integrity and functionality.

200. (242) Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

A. Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS).

B. CM and system load module (SLM).

C. Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU).

D. CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM).

The control component of the SuperNode central control is made up of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These two elements work together to manage and control the operations of the SuperNode system. The computing mode determines the mode of operation for the system, while the system load module monitors and manages the system's load to ensure optimal performance. Together, CM and SLM form the control component of the SuperNode central control.

Explanation

The control component of the SuperNode central control is made up of the computing mode (CM) and the system load module (SLM). These two elements work together to manage and control the operations of the SuperNode system. The computing mode determines the mode of operation for the system, while the system load module monitors and manages the system's load to ensure optimal performance. Together, CM and SLM form the control component of the SuperNode central control.