CDC 2e153 Ground Radio Communications Journeyman

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1. What happens to duplicate messages that might be received on more than one missile site communications system?

Explanation

Duplicate messages that might be received on more than one missile site communications system are deleted. This means that if multiple copies of the same message are received, only one copy is kept and the rest are discarded. This helps to prevent unnecessary duplication and clutter in the communication system, ensuring that only the relevant and unique messages are retained.

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About This Quiz
CDC 2e153 Ground Radio Communications Journeyman - Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in ground radio communications, focusing on AFSPC missions, HF systems, missile site communications, and command structures.

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. What does the Minuteman MEECN Program use to prevent electromagnetic pulse damage?

Explanation

The Minuteman MEECN Program uses electrical surge arrestors to prevent electromagnetic pulse damage. Electrical surge arrestors are devices that protect electrical systems from voltage spikes by diverting excess current to the ground. This helps to prevent damage to sensitive electronic equipment caused by electromagnetic pulses, which are short bursts of electromagnetic energy that can disrupt or destroy electronic devices. High current fuses, lead-cased enclosures, and automatic circuit disconnects are not specifically designed to protect against electromagnetic pulses, making them incorrect options.

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3. Which statement best describes the function of a high frequecy (HF) system enhanced with automatic link establishment (ALE) capability?

Explanation

The ALE circuitry automatically tests multiple channels and chooses the one with the least interference for communication. This ensures that the communication is carried out on the clearest channel, improving the quality and reliability of the transmission.

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4. We define Link Quality Analysis as?

Explanation

Link Quality Analysis refers to the process of evaluating and assessing the clarity of a channel by conducting sound tests. This involves analyzing the quality of the connection and determining its reliability and performance. The term "sounding" is commonly used in the context of wireless communication to measure the channel quality and assess its suitability for transmitting data. Therefore, the given answer accurately describes the concept of Link Quality Analysis.

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5. Which SCOPE Command mission provides high frequency (HF) communications for the President, Vice President, and Cabinet members?

Explanation

Mystic Star is the correct answer because it is the mission that provides high frequency (HF) communications for the President, Vice President, and Cabinet members. The other options, DCS HF Entry, USAF Global, and SITFAA, do not specifically mention providing HF communications for these individuals.

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6. What is one advantage of using SCOPE Command's high frequency (HF) signal as opposed to satellite for sending and receiving E-mails?

Explanation

During crises, such as natural disasters or emergencies, satellite communication systems may become disrupted or unavailable. On the other hand, the high frequency (HF) signal used by SCOPE Command is more likely to remain accessible even in such situations. This advantage makes HF a reliable option for sending and receiving emails during times of crisis when other communication channels may be compromised.

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7. What transport protocol is used for communication between all SCOPE Command software?

Explanation

The correct answer is TCP/IP. TCP/IP is a widely used transport protocol that allows communication between devices on a network. It is the foundation of the internet and is used for transmitting data packets between computers. SCOPE Command software, being a network-based software, would rely on TCP/IP for communication between different instances of the software. TCP/IP ensures reliable and efficient transmission of data, making it the most suitable choice for this purpose.

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8. What is the primary difference between the receive/transmit (RT) used at the transmitter sited and the RT units used at the receiver sites at a SCOPE Command station?

Explanation

The primary difference between the receive/transmit (RT) units used at the transmitter site and the receiver sites at a SCOPE Command station is that there is no difference, they are the same unit. Both the transmitter site and the receiver sites use the same RT units, indicating that there is no distinction between them in terms of their hardware or functionality.

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9. What is the tune level used during the RF loop-back test?

Explanation

In the RF loop-back test, the tune level used is -13 dBm. This tune level is selected because it provides an optimal power level for the test without causing any distortion or interference in the signal. It ensures that the signal is strong enough to be accurately measured and analyzed, but not too strong to cause any issues in the test setup.

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10. Which sommunication system is a commercial telephone switch?

Explanation

The Redcom-IGX is a commercial telephone switch. It is a communication system that is specifically designed for use in commercial telephone networks. The other options listed, AN/PRC-117F, DNE TAC-900, and CSU/DSU, are not commercial telephone switches but rather different types of communication equipment used for other purposes.

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11. Which Command does the SPecial Operations Communications Flight Support?

Explanation

The correct answer is US Special Operations Command. This command is responsible for providing communications support to special operations forces. They ensure that these forces have the necessary communication capabilities to carry out their missions effectively.

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12. What was the White House Communications Agency originally known as?

Explanation

The correct answer is White House Signal Detachment. The White House Communications Agency was originally known as the White House Signal Detachment. This agency is responsible for providing communication support to the President and other senior government officials.

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13. Which organization plans, coordinates, directs, and performs signals intelligence and information security functions in support of both Defense and non-Defense US Government activities?

Explanation

The National Security Agency (NSA) is the correct answer because it is the organization responsible for planning, coordinating, directing, and performing signals intelligence and information security functions in support of both Defense and non-Defense US Government activities. The other options listed (AFPCA, DISA, WHCA) are not involved in signals intelligence and information security functions to the same extent as the NSA.

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14. Which system is a commercial telephone switch

Explanation

Redcom - IGX is the correct answer because it is a commercial telephone switch. The other options listed, PRC-117, VOX, CSU/DSU, and JSTARS, are not commercial telephone switches.

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15. State the three steps of ALE linking

Explanation

The three steps of ALE linking are call, response, and acknowledgement. This means that the process begins with a call, where a request or query is made. Then, a response is received, providing the necessary information or action. Finally, an acknowledgement is sent to confirm the successful completion of the request or transaction.

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16. What is the team that function is to recover and relaunch aircraft

Explanation

SART stands for Search and Rescue Team. Their function is to recover and relaunch aircraft in emergency situations. They are trained to respond quickly and efficiently to locate and rescue individuals in distress, as well as to provide medical assistance if needed. SART teams are an essential part of aviation safety, ensuring that any aircraft incidents are handled effectively and lives are saved.

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17. What was WHCA originally known as?

Explanation

The correct answer is White House Signal Detachment. This is the original name for WHCA, which stands for White House Communications Agency. The White House Signal Detachment was responsible for providing secure and reliable communication services to the President and other high-level officials.

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18. Which statement is true concerning receiver operation?

Explanation

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19. During transmit operation, what is the purpose of the compressor circuit in the RT-1446 HF Transceiver?

Explanation

The compressor circuit in the RT-1446 HF Transceiver is used to equalize varying voice levels so that the audio signal is more uniform in amplitude. This helps to ensure consistent audio quality during transmit operation. The compressor circuit adjusts the audio levels to prevent distortion and maintain a consistent volume level, resulting in a clearer and more understandable transmission.

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20. In the AM-7223 LPA, which circuit provides outputs that are directly proportional to the forward and reflected power?

Explanation

The VSWR Bridge circuit in the AM-7223 LPA provides outputs that are directly proportional to the forward and reflected power. The VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) Bridge is used to measure the impedance mismatch between the transmitter and the load, which can cause reflections of power. By measuring the forward and reflected power, the VSWR Bridge can provide accurate information about the impedance match and the amount of power being reflected.

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21. The ability of an antenna to receiver as well as transmit effectively is called

Explanation

Reciprocity refers to the ability of an antenna to both receive and transmit effectively. This means that the antenna can not only pick up signals from other devices but also send out signals to communicate with them. It is an important characteristic for antennas in various communication systems as it ensures bidirectional communication. Fidelity refers to the accuracy of signal reproduction, capacity refers to the amount of data that can be transmitted, and transquality is not a recognized term in the context of antennas.

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22. If an antenna concentrates its signal in one direction while reducing the signal in other directions, it can be classified as

Explanation

An antenna that concentrates its signal in one direction while reducing the signal in other directions is classified as directional. This means that the antenna is designed to transmit or receive signals in a specific direction, providing a focused and concentrated signal in that direction. Unlike omnidirectional antennas that radiate signals in all directions equally, a directional antenna is used when the signal needs to be focused towards a particular target or receiver.

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23. Nonsynchronus orbit satellites are in orbit which is

Explanation

Nonsynchronous orbit satellites are in elliptical orbits. Unlike synchronous orbits where the satellite remains stationary above a fixed point on the Earth's surface, nonsynchronous orbits have varying distances from the Earth at different points in their orbit. This results in an elliptical path rather than a circular, hyperbolic, or parabolic path.

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24. A polar orbit has an inclination of

Explanation

A polar orbit is a type of orbit where the satellite passes over or near both the North and South poles of the planet being orbited. This orbit has an inclination of 90 degrees because it is inclined at a right angle to the equator. As a result, the satellite's path will cross the poles during each orbit, allowing it to cover the entire globe. Therefore, a polar orbit has an inclination of 90 degrees.

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25. The distance from your facility to the satellite is the

Explanation

The term "slant range" refers to the distance between a facility and a satellite when measured along the line of sight. It takes into account the elevation angle and the direct path between the two points. In contrast, the other options do not specifically address the distance between the facility and the satellite. Therefore, "slant range" is the most appropriate answer in this context.

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26. An advantage of passive satellites is that they

Explanation

Passive satellites have the advantage of operating over a wider-frequency range. This means that they are capable of receiving and transmitting signals across a broader range of frequencies. This versatility allows them to be used for various purposes and applications, making them more flexible and adaptable in different communication scenarios. By operating over a wider-frequency range, passive satellites can accommodate a greater range of communication needs and provide more comprehensive coverage.

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27. What is the delay of a real-time satellite?

Explanation

The delay of a real-time satellite is 0.6 seconds. This means that there is a slight delay in the transmission of signals between the satellite and the ground station. This delay is due to the time it takes for the signals to travel back and forth between the satellite and the ground station, as well as any processing time required.

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28. In a Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) system, which functions as the network control station (NCS)?

Explanation

In a Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) system, the network control station (NCS) is not limited to a specific location or entity. Any remote unit that has the necessary hardware and software can function as the NCS. This means that multiple remote units can potentially act as NCS, depending on their capabilities and configuration.

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29. What are the primary missions of the Global Positioning System (GPS)?

Explanation

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30. Because of overlapping frequency ranges, how many wireless LAN's can exist in any one area?

Explanation

Wireless LANs operate on different frequency ranges, such as 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. These frequency ranges have overlapping channels, which means that they can interfere with each other if multiple wireless LANs are operating in close proximity. However, to minimize interference, it is recommended to have a gap of at least three non-overlapping channels between wireless LANs. Therefore, in any one area, it is ideal to have a maximum of three wireless LANs to ensure minimal interference and optimal performance.

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31. Which conventional LMR device serves as the hub of a net?

Explanation

A base station is a conventional LMR device that serves as the hub of a network. It acts as a central communication point, connecting multiple portable and mobile devices within the network. The base station provides a wide coverage area and facilitates communication between different devices, allowing them to transmit and receive signals effectively. It plays a crucial role in establishing and maintaining communication within the network.

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32. How many squadrons and detachments does JCSE have?

Explanation

The correct answer is five squadrons and one detachment. This means that JCSE has a total of five squadrons and one additional detachment.

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33. Which career fields ar assigend to a special operations communications flight?

Explanation

The career fields assigned to a special operations communications flight are radio operations and maintenance. This involves the operation and maintenance of radio equipment and systems used for communication within the special operations unit. It includes tasks such as setting up and maintaining radio networks, troubleshooting communication issues, and ensuring the proper functioning of radio equipment.

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34. For successful communications to take place, the transmitter's carrier output must be

Explanation

For successful communications to take place, the transmitter's carrier output must be relatively stable in a frequency and amplitude. This is because a stable carrier frequency ensures that the receiver can accurately detect and demodulate the transmitted signal. Any fluctuations or instability in the frequency or amplitude of the carrier signal can lead to distortion or loss of the transmitted information. Therefore, stability in frequency and amplitude is crucial for maintaining the integrity and reliability of the communication signal.

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35. Referring to foldout 2, what determines which specific filter is used in the IF FILTER Assembly?

Explanation

The mode of operation determines which specific filter is used in the IF FILTER Assembly. The different modes of operation may require different filter settings to achieve the desired signal processing. Therefore, the mode of operation plays a crucial role in determining which filter is used.

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36. The primary limitin factor concerning use of waveguides at lower frequencies is

Explanation

The primary limiting factor concerning the use of waveguides at lower frequencies is the physical size. As the frequency decreases, the wavelength increases, and this requires larger waveguide dimensions to accommodate the longer wavelengths. However, practical constraints such as space limitations can make it difficult to implement waveguides of sufficient size at lower frequencies. Therefore, the physical size becomes a significant limitation in using waveguides at lower frequencies.

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37. Which statement concerning waveguides is FALSE?

Explanation

Flexible waveguides are not necessarily easy to install. In fact, the flexibility of waveguides can make them more challenging to install compared to rigid waveguides. Flexible waveguides require careful handling and positioning to ensure proper alignment and connection. Therefore, the statement that the flexible nature of waveguides makes them easy to install is false.

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38. What is the maximum raw data rate fir the 802.11b standard?

Explanation

The maximum raw data rate for the 802.11b standard is 11Mbit/s. This standard was introduced in 1999 and operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range. It uses direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation technique to transmit data wirelessly. The 11Mbit/s data rate refers to the maximum speed at which data can be transmitted over a wireless connection using this standard.

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39. What is the net throughput of 802.11g standard?

Explanation

The net throughput of the 802.11g standard is 24.7Mbit/s. This standard is capable of providing a maximum data rate of 54Mbit/s, but due to various factors such as interference and overhead, the actual net throughput is lower. In this case, it is 24.7Mbit/s.

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40. Which missle site antenna is considered dual-mode and is used by both unltra high frequency (UHF) voice and the AFSATCOM system?

Explanation

The Hard UHF antenna is considered dual-mode and is used by both ultra high frequency (UHF) voice and the AFSATCOM system.

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41. What are the three steps of the ALE linking sequence?

Explanation

The three steps of the ALE linking sequence are call, response, and acknowledgment. This means that the process begins with a call, which is a request or signal for communication. The recipient then responds to the call, indicating that they have received and understood the message. Finally, an acknowledgment is given to confirm that the communication has been successfully established.

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42. What is the output of the SCOPE Command power amplifier (PA)?

Explanation

The output of the SCOPE Command power amplifier (PA) is 4000 Watts.

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43. What AACE communications terminal is a one way paging system?

Explanation

The correct answer is TAAN because TAAN stands for Tactical Airborne Alerting Network, which is a one-way paging system used by the U.S. Air Force. A one-way paging system means that it only allows for the transmission of messages or alerts to the recipients, without the ability for them to respond or communicate back. AFSATCOM, Klaxon, and UHF radios are not specifically mentioned as one-way paging systems in the question.

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44. Hammer ACE systems are securable up to what classification?

Explanation

Hammer ACE systems are securable up to the Top Secret classification. This means that the systems have the necessary security measures in place to protect information that is considered highly sensitive and could cause severe damage to national security if accessed by unauthorized individuals.

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45. What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-148

Explanation

The correct answer is 30 - 512 MHZ. This frequency range represents the operating range of the AN/PRC-148, which is a handheld radio commonly used by military personnel. This range allows for communication over a wide range of frequencies, making it versatile and suitable for various operational needs.

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46. In what section of a super heterdyne reciever does most of the amplification take place?

Explanation

In a super heterodyne receiver, the IF (Intermediate Frequency) section is where most of the amplification takes place. This section amplifies the signal after it has been mixed with a local oscillator frequency, allowing for better selectivity and sensitivity. The RF amplifier amplifies the incoming radio frequency signal, the audio amplifier amplifies the audio output, and the input tuning section is responsible for tuning the receiver to the desired frequency. However, it is the IF section that primarily handles the amplification of the signal in a super heterodyne receiver.

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47. Which of the following identifies the output power of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4?

Explanation

The correct answer is 20 Watts in AM, 50 Watts in FM. This means that the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 has an output power of 20 Watts when operating in AM (Amplitude Modulation) mode and 50 Watts when operating in FM (Frequency Modulation) mode.

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48. If an out-of-tolerance condition is detected during a self-test on the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 the

Explanation

When an out-of-tolerance condition is detected during a self-test on the AN/GRC-171B(V)4, the fault lamp illuminates. This means that there is a problem or fault with the transceiver. The fault lamp serves as a visual indicator to alert the user that there is an issue that needs to be addressed. It does not necessarily indicate that the transceiver will power down, that a safety interlock will energize, or that the unit will switch to low-power mode.

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49. The path above the horizon through which an antenna radiates the largest amount of its RF energy is called the

Explanation

The path above the horizon through which an antenna radiates the largest amount of its RF energy is called the radiation angle. This angle determines the direction in which the antenna's energy is focused and transmitted. By adjusting the radiation angle, the antenna can effectively target a specific area or receive signals from a particular direction. The skip angle refers to the angle at which radio waves are refracted back to Earth, allowing for long-distance communication. The escape angle and critical frequency angle are not relevant to the concept of antenna radiation.

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50. If the antenna's electric lines of force lie in a vertical direction, it can be said that the antenna is

Explanation

If the antenna's electric lines of force lie in a vertical direction, it can be said that the antenna is vertically polarized. This means that the electromagnetic waves emitted or received by the antenna have their electric field oscillating in a vertical plane. This polarization is commonly used in radio and television broadcasting, as well as in certain types of antennas for wireless communication.

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51. What are the two types of communications satellites?

Explanation

Active and passive are the two types of communication satellites. Active satellites are equipped with onboard electronic systems that amplify and retransmit the received signals, allowing for stronger and clearer communication. They are capable of receiving, processing, and transmitting signals independently. On the other hand, passive satellites do not have onboard electronic systems and rely on reflecting or redirecting signals from the ground to the desired location. They act as a relay station, bouncing signals from one point to another without amplifying or altering them.

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52. Which satellite reflects signals transmitted toward it?

Explanation

Passive satellites reflect signals transmitted toward them. Unlike active satellites, which generate and transmit their own signals, passive satellites rely on external signals for communication. These satellites act as mirrors, reflecting the signals back to Earth. This makes them useful for various applications, such as communication, weather monitoring, and navigation systems.

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53. When a communications links is established using Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA), how long does the circuit remain active?

Explanation

When a communications link is established using Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA), the circuit remains active only as long as needed. This means that once the communication is completed, the circuit is released and made available for other users. Unlike other options that suggest the circuit remains active indefinitely or until someone else requests a channel, DAMA ensures efficient use of resources by activating and deactivating the circuit based on the actual need for communication. The duration of the circuit is not directly proportional to the bandwidth, as suggested by the last option, but rather depends on the specific communication requirements.

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54. What satellite system was originally developed in 1979 for ship management and distress and safety applications?

Explanation

INMARSAT, also known as the International Maritime Satellite Organization, was originally developed in 1979 for ship management and distress and safety applications. It provides satellite communications services to the maritime industry, including voice, data, and internet connectivity, as well as search and rescue services. INMARSAT plays a crucial role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of maritime operations worldwide.

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55. What is the maximum number of devices a Bluetooth master device can support?

Explanation

A Bluetooth master device can support a maximum of 7 devices. This is because Bluetooth technology uses a frequency-hopping spread spectrum technique, where it rapidly switches between different frequencies to avoid interference. Each Bluetooth connection requires a specific frequency channel, and there are only 79 available channels. Therefore, a master device can support up to 7 simultaneous connections, as it needs one channel for its own communication.

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56. Which conventional LMR device maximizes the communications distance between low powered equipment?

Explanation

A repeater is a conventional LMR device that maximizes the communication distance between low-powered equipment. It receives weak signals from portable or mobile devices and amplifies and retransmits them, effectively extending the range of communication. This allows for better coverage and stronger signals in areas with poor reception or long distances between devices. A repeater acts as a relay station, enhancing the overall communication distance for low-powered equipment.

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57. Which cellular telephone technology usues "spread spectrum"?

Explanation

CDMA stands for Code Division Multiple Access, which is a cellular telephone technology that uses "spread spectrum" to transmit and receive signals. Spread spectrum is a technique that spreads the signal over a wide frequency range, allowing multiple users to share the same frequency band simultaneously. CDMA uses unique codes to differentiate between different users, enabling efficient use of the available bandwidth. This technology is used in many modern cellular networks for its ability to provide increased capacity and improved call quality.

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58. Which statement best describes the function of a high frequency (HF) system enhanced with automatic link establishment (ALE) capability?

Explanation

The ALE circuitry automatically tests several channels and selects the clearest one for communication. This means that the system is able to assess the quality of different channels and choose the one with the least interference or noise for transmitting data. By doing so, it ensures that the communication is clear and reliable.

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59. If your SCOPE Command station links with a station that is not preprogrammed into your other-station address listing, this other station's address is?

Explanation

When the SCOPE Command station links with a station that is not preprogrammed into the other-station address listing, the address of this other station is stored as a floating address. This means that the address is temporarily saved in the system's memory until the Link Quality Analysis (LQA) can be performed. Once the LQA is accomplished, the address will either be saved as a permanent address or deleted if it fails the LQA.

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60. Name the protocol used for all communications between SCOPE command software processors.

Explanation

The protocol used for all communications between SCOPE command software processors is TCP/IP. TCP/IP is a widely used protocol suite that enables communication over networks, including the internet. It provides reliable, connection-oriented communication between devices, allowing for the exchange of data packets. In the context of SCOPE command software processors, TCP/IP facilitates the transmission of commands, data, and information between these processors, ensuring efficient and secure communication.

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61. What does the NSA do?

Explanation

The NSA, or National Security Agency, is responsible for Signal Intelligence. This means that they gather and analyze information from various sources, such as intercepted communications and electronic signals, to gain insights into potential threats to national security. This includes monitoring and deciphering encrypted messages, tracking the activities of foreign governments and organizations, and providing intelligence to support military operations and decision-making.

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62. With an operating frequency of 150MHz and an IF of 10.7MHz, which option is a possible image frequency?

Explanation

The image frequency is calculated by adding or subtracting the intermediate frequency (IF) from the operating frequency. In this case, since the IF is 10.7MHz, the image frequency would be 150MHz + 10.7MHz = 160.7MHz. Therefore, the correct answer is 171.4MHz, as it is the closest option to the calculated image frequency.

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63. Which statement is true concerning diode detectors?

Explanation

Diode detectors give high fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude. This means that they are able to accurately detect and reproduce the original signal when the amplitude is strong enough. Unlike other options, diode detectors are not described as complex devices or devices that can only handle small signals. Additionally, there is no mention of diode detectors providing a tremendous amount of power gain, so this option can be ruled out.

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64. The purpose of the Input Overload Protection Circuit (grid A11) shown in the foldout 2 is to prevent

Explanation

The purpose of the Input Overload Protection Circuit is to prevent any receiver damage due to excessively strong signals. This circuit is designed to detect and limit the strength of incoming signals to protect the receiver from being overwhelmed by high-power inputs. By controlling the signal strength, the circuit ensures that the receiver operates within safe limits and prevents any potential damage that could be caused by excessively strong signals.

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65. If a transmission line is terminated in an open, what will likely be the result?

Explanation

When a transmission line is terminated in an open, it means that the line is not connected to any load or receiver. In this scenario, the signal that is being transmitted along the line will encounter a high impedance at the open termination. This high impedance mismatch causes a significant portion of the signal to be reflected back towards the source, resulting in signal loss. Therefore, the correct answer is that there would be significant signal loss.

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66. How many subscribers can a single transponder support by using a Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) system?

Explanation

A Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) system allows for efficient allocation of satellite resources by dynamically assigning channels to users on demand. This system optimizes the use of transponders, enabling them to support a large number of subscribers. Therefore, a single transponder using a DAMA system can support several thousand subscribers.

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67. What is the minimum output power of the UHF radio system?

Explanation

The minimum output power of the UHF radio system is 100 Watts. This means that the radio system is capable of producing a minimum power output of 100 Watts.

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68. Which command does the Air Force Thunderbirds belong to?

Explanation

The Air Force Thunderbirds belong to the Air Combat Command. This command is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping combat-ready forces for air, space, and cyberspace operations. The Thunderbirds are the Air Force's premier aerial demonstration team, showcasing the skill and precision of their pilots through breathtaking aerial maneuvers and formations. They perform at air shows and events across the United States and around the world, representing the Air Force and demonstrating the capabilities of its aircraft.

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69. What is the output power at the transmit site?

Explanation

The output power at the transmit site is 4000 watts. This means that the transmit site is capable of generating and transmitting 4000 watts of power.

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70. Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?

Explanation

Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics. When a signal is overmodulated, the amplitude of the carrier wave is increased beyond its normal range. This results in the production of harmonics, which are additional frequencies that are multiples of the original signal frequency. These harmonics occupy additional bandwidth, leading to an increase in the overall bandwidth of the signal.

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71. Resistance of the conductor material in a transmission line leads to which type of loss?

Explanation

The resistance of the conductor material in a transmission line leads to copper loss. Copper loss occurs due to the resistance of the copper wire used in the transmission line. When current flows through the conductor, it encounters resistance, which results in the conversion of electrical energy into heat. This heat is known as copper loss. It is an important factor to consider in power transmission systems as it can cause inefficiencies and decrease the overall efficiency of the transmission line.

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72. If a transmission line is terminated in a short,

Explanation

When a transmission line is terminated in a short, it means that the line is connected to a load with very low impedance. In this case, the current flowing through the line will be at a maximum because the low impedance allows for a large amount of current to flow. On the other hand, the voltage at the termination will be at a minimum because the low impedance causes a voltage drop across the load. Therefore, the correct answer is that the current is at a maximum and the voltage is at a minimum at the termination.

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73. How many programmable net presets does the AN/PRC-117F have?

Explanation

The AN/PRC-117F has 100 programmable net presets. This means that it can store and recall up to 100 different network configurations, allowing for quick and easy switching between different communication settings. This feature is particularly useful in military operations where there may be a need to rapidly switch between different networks or frequencies. Having a large number of presets ensures that the device is versatile and can adapt to various communication requirements.

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74. How many primary missions does AFSPC have?

Explanation

AFSPC, which stands for Air Force Space Command, is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces for space and cyberspace missions. The command has four primary missions: space superiority, space support, space situational awareness, and space control. These missions involve activities such as protecting and defending space assets, providing support to military operations, monitoring and tracking space objects, and ensuring the ability to deny adversaries' use of space capabilities.

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75. What two communication systems make up the Minuteman MEECN Program?

Explanation

The Minuteman MEECN Program consists of two communication systems: EHF MILSTAR and VLF/LF. EHF MILSTAR stands for Extremely High Frequency Military Strategic and Tactical Relay, which is a satellite communication system used for secure and high-capacity transmission of data. VLF/LF refers to Very Low Frequency/Low Frequency communication systems, which use low-frequency radio waves to communicate over long distances. Together, these two systems provide a comprehensive communication network for the Minuteman MEECN Program.

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76. If the technical order states a transmitter has a frequency accuracy of 0.0001 percent, which of the following is an acceptable output with an operating frequency of 225MHz?

Explanation

The technical order states that the transmitter has a frequency accuracy of 0.0001 percent. This means that the acceptable range for the operating frequency can deviate by 0.0001 percent from the specified frequency of 225MHz.

To calculate the acceptable range, we can multiply 225MHz by 0.0001 percent (0.0001/100 = 0.000001) to find the deviation.

225MHz * 0.000001 = 0.000225MHz

Therefore, the acceptable range for the operating frequency is from 225MHz - 0.000225MHz to 225MHz + 0.000225MHz, which is 224.999775MHz to 225.000225MHz.

Thus, the correct answer is 224.999975MHz to 225.000225MHz.

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77. Using figure 1-14 determine the electrical length if the frequency is changed from 150MHz to 250MHz.

Explanation

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78. When discussing transmission lines

Explanation

When discussing transmission lines, maximum power transfer actually results from a resonant line, not a non-resonant line. Using a non-resonant line can lead to significant loss and damage to equipment.

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79. Log Periodic antennas

Explanation

Log Periodic antennas exhibit essentially constant characteristics over the entire frequency range. This means that the antenna's performance remains consistent and predictable regardless of the frequency being used. This is an important feature in many applications, as it allows for reliable and accurate communication or direction-finding.

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80. When the speed of a satellite is constant the orbit is

Explanation

When the speed of a satellite is constant, the only orbit that can be maintained is a circular orbit. In a circular orbit, the satellite moves at a constant speed around the central body, such as the Earth, in a perfect circle. This is because the gravitational force acting on the satellite is balanced by the centripetal force, resulting in a stable orbit. In contrast, elliptical, hyperbolic, and parabolic orbits require varying speeds for the satellite to maintain its trajectory, making them incompatible with a constant speed.

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81. How often does the Bluetooth protocol change channels?

Explanation

The Bluetooth protocol changes channels 1600 times per second. This high frequency of channel changes allows for efficient and reliable communication between Bluetooth devices. By rapidly switching channels, Bluetooth can avoid interference from other devices operating in the same frequency range, ensuring a stable connection and minimizing data loss.

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82. Who has the ability to patch different talk groups together?

Explanation

A dispatch console has the ability to patch different talk groups together. This means that it can connect and merge multiple talk groups into one communication channel. This feature is crucial in emergency situations or large-scale operations where different teams or groups need to coordinate and communicate effectively. The dispatch console acts as a central hub for managing and controlling communication between different parties, allowing for seamless and efficient collaboration.

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83. UHF radios in the AACE communications terminal are set at the frequencies of?

Explanation

The UHF radios in the AACE communications terminal are set at the frequencies of 311 and 321 MHz.

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84. Which unit provides worldwide audiovisual, voice, and data communications to support the President?

Explanation

The White House Communications Agency provides worldwide audiovisual, voice, and data communications to support the President. This agency is responsible for ensuring secure and reliable communication between the President, White House staff, and other government officials. They play a crucial role in coordinating and facilitating communications during the President's travels and in the White House itself.

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85. Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives

Explanation

When modulation is reduced to less than 100 percent, it means that the amplitude of the carrier signal is not affected by the modulating signal. In this case, the carrier power remains unchanged because the carrier signal is not being altered or attenuated in any way. The reduction in modulation only affects the sideband power, which is the power carried by the modulating signal. Therefore, there is no reduction in carrier power.

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86. Which section of the receiver dtermines overall selectivity?

Explanation

The IF filter in a receiver determines overall selectivity. The IF filter is responsible for filtering out unwanted signals and noise, allowing only the desired signals to pass through. It helps in improving the receiver's ability to select and separate different frequencies, ensuring better signal quality and reducing interference. The IF filter plays a crucial role in determining the selectivity and performance of the receiver.

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87. The amount of skin-effect loss is directly proportional to

Explanation

The amount of skin-effect loss is directly proportional to the signal frequency. Skin effect is a phenomenon where high-frequency currents tend to flow near the surface of a conductor, resulting in increased resistance and power loss. As the frequency of the signal increases, the skin depth decreases, causing more current to concentrate near the surface and leading to higher skin-effect loss. Therefore, the higher the signal frequency, the greater the skin-effect loss.

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88. Which statement concerning wavelength is true?

Explanation

The statement that wavelength is inversely related to frequency is true. This is based on the fundamental relationship between wavelength and frequency in wave phenomena, such as electromagnetic waves. According to this relationship, as the frequency of a wave increases, its wavelength decreases, and vice versa. This can be explained by considering that wavelength represents the distance between two consecutive points of a wave, while frequency represents the number of complete wave cycles that pass a given point in one second. Therefore, when the frequency increases, more wave cycles occur in a given time, resulting in a shorter wavelength.

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89. A nonresonant transmission line is a line

Explanation

A nonresonant transmission line is a line that does not have any reflected waves. This means that all the energy sent through the line is transmitted without any portion of it being reflected back. In other words, the line is perfectly matched, with the impedance of the line and the load being the same. As a result, there are no reflections and the entire input power is delivered to the load.

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90. Which INMARSAT series satellites was the first to concentrate power on particular areas of high traffic within the footprint?

Explanation

INMARSAT series satellite 3 was the first to concentrate power on particular areas of high traffic within the footprint.

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91. Which item is not a type of wireless LAN infrastructure?

Explanation

The item "stand-alone" is not a type of wireless LAN infrastructure because it does not involve the connection of multiple devices to form a network. Stand-alone refers to a single device that operates independently without the need for any other devices or infrastructure. In contrast, ad-hoc, infrastructure, and peer-to-peer are all types of wireless LAN infrastructures that involve the connection and communication between multiple devices.

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92. Which statement concerning SCOPE Command RF loop-back testing is not true?

Explanation

The SCOPE Command RF loop-back testing is not designed to indicate how well the station communicates with a distant station. It is a test conducted utilizing only local equipment. The purpose of the test is to evaluate the performance of the station's own RF transmission and reception capabilities, rather than its ability to communicate with a distant station. The test is conducted three times to ensure accurate and consistent results, but it does not measure the station's communication with a distant station.

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93. What is the reason DOD has an issue with wireless LANs?

Explanation

The reason the Department of Defense (DOD) has an issue with wireless LANs is due to insecurity. Wireless LANs are vulnerable to security breaches and unauthorized access, which poses a significant risk for sensitive information and communications within the DOD. Therefore, the DOD is concerned about the lack of security in wireless LANs and the potential threats they pose to their infrastructure and operations.

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94. Which UTC is not part of the Theater Acromedical Evacuation system?

Explanation

The question is asking which UTC (Unit Type Code) is not part of the Theater Acromedical Evacuation system. The correct answer is CRG/CRE. This means that the CRG/CRE UTC is not included in the Theater Acromedical Evacuation system.

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95. What is the AN/PRC-148

Explanation

The AN/PRC-148 is a multiband inter/intra radio. This means that it is capable of operating on multiple frequency bands, both within a single radio network and between different radio networks. This flexibility allows for communication across different radio systems, making it a versatile and adaptable radio device.

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96. When using the C-11329 Remote Control Unit, how do we route transmit audio to the RT-1446?

Explanation

The correct answer is using a 600-ohm transmission line. This means that when using the C-11329 Remote Control Unit, the transmit audio is routed to the RT-1446 through a 600-ohm transmission line. This type of transmission line is commonly used for audio signals and provides a balanced connection for better signal quality and noise rejection.

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97. Complete the following statement: When using the CU-2310 antenna coupler, a VSWR exceeding 2:a

Explanation

When using the CU-2310 antenna coupler, a VSWR exceeding 2 causes the keying circuit to be disabled and the tuning cycle must be repeated. This means that if the VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) exceeds 2, there is a mismatch between the antenna and the transmission line, which can cause damage to the equipment. In order to prevent any potential damage, the keying circuit is disabled and the tuning cycle must be repeated to ensure proper matching between the antenna and the transmission line.

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98. Minimally how many satellites does a Global Positioning System (GPS) receiver need timing signals from to calculate its position?

Explanation

A Global Positioning System (GPS) receiver needs timing signals from a minimum of four satellites to calculate its position. This is because each satellite provides a signal that includes its precise location and the time the signal was transmitted. By receiving signals from at least four satellites, the GPS receiver can use the time delay between when each signal was transmitted and when it was received to calculate the distance to each satellite. With this information, the receiver can then triangulate its position accurately.

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99. Which Bluetooth power class is the most common?

Explanation

Class 2 is the most common Bluetooth power class. This class has a range of up to 10 meters and is commonly used in most consumer devices like smartphones, tablets, and laptops. Class 1, on the other hand, has a range of up to 100 meters and is typically found in professional or industrial devices. Class 3 and Class 4 have even shorter ranges and are less common in everyday devices.

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100. What conventional LMR device has a transmit power of 5 or 6 watts?

Explanation

A portable LMR device is the correct answer because it is a conventional device that can be carried and used on the go. It typically has a lower transmit power compared to other LMR devices like mobile, repeater, or base station. The transmit power of 5 or 6 watts is commonly found in portable LMR devices, making it the most suitable option.

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101. How many talk groups can a trunked mobile radio monitor at one time?

Explanation

A trunked mobile radio can monitor only one talk group at a time. This means that it can only receive and transmit communications from one specific group of users within the trunked radio system. It cannot simultaneously monitor multiple talk groups or all the talk groups programmed in the radio.

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102. Which Unified Command is Air Mobility Command a component of?

Explanation

Air Mobility Command is a component of the US Transportation Command. The US Transportation Command is responsible for providing transportation and logistical support to the US military, including the movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies. Air Mobility Command specifically focuses on providing air transportation capabilities, such as airlift and aerial refueling, to support military operations worldwide.

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103. Using figure 1-14, determine the wavelength if the frequency is changed from 150MHz to 250MHz

Explanation

The wavelength of a wave is inversely proportional to its frequency. As the frequency increases from 150MHz to 250MHz, the wavelength decreases. This is because higher frequencies have shorter wavelengths. Therefore, the correct answer is 1.2 meters, which is the shortest wavelength among the given options.

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104. What minimum elevation angle does the AN/PSN-11 select satellites during initial acquisition?

Explanation

The AN/PSN-11 selects satellites during initial acquisition with a minimum elevation angle of 10 degrees. This means that the system will only consider satellites that are above the horizon by at least 10 degrees when establishing a connection. This minimum elevation angle helps ensure a clear line of sight between the AN/PSN-11 and the satellite, reducing potential signal interference or obstructions.

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105. According to the assistant secretary of defense policy, what additional accessory must the purchaser buy when procuring Iridium handheld terminals?

Explanation

The additional accessory that the purchaser must buy when procuring Iridium handheld terminals is the Iridium security module.

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106. Which communications system provides communications between a Command Post operator and alert aircrew personnel?

Explanation

AACE stands for Airborne Alert Communications Equipment. This system provides communications between a Command Post operator and alert aircrew personnel. It is specifically designed for use in airborne alert missions, ensuring effective communication between the command post and the aircrew members who are on alert and ready to respond to any emergency or mission. The AACE system enables real-time communication and coordination, allowing the command post operator to provide updates, instructions, and receive status reports from the alert aircrew personnel.

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107. Which Hammer ACE equipment provides secure intra-site communication from the media and the public?

Explanation

LMR stands for Land Mobile Radio, which is a type of communication system commonly used by public safety agencies, such as police and fire departments. LMR equipment provides secure intra-site communication, meaning it allows communication within a specific location or site. Unlike cell phones, which can be accessed by the general public and media, LMR systems are typically used for private and secure communication between authorized personnel. Therefore, LMR is the correct answer for providing secure intra-site communication from the media and the public.

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108. Leakage loss in a transmission line can be minimized by using a

Explanation

Using a very high-resistance dielectric in a transmission line can minimize leakage loss. Leakage loss occurs when some of the electrical energy being transmitted through the line is lost as heat due to leakage currents. By using a high-resistance dielectric, the leakage currents are reduced, resulting in lower energy losses. This allows for more efficient transmission of electrical energy through the line, minimizing the overall leakage loss.

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109. The Aeromedical Evacuation Support Cell reports to?

Explanation

The correct answer is AECS. The Aeromedical Evacuation Support Cell (AECS) is responsible for reporting to the higher authorities regarding aeromedical evacuations. This cell plays a crucial role in coordinating and supporting the transportation of patients in need of medical care. They ensure that all necessary arrangements and resources are in place for safe and efficient evacuations.

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110. Which communication system is required for both ends of a T1 or T3 connection?

Explanation

CSU/DSU stands for Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit, and it is the correct answer because both ends of a T1 or T3 connection require this communication system. CSU/DSU is responsible for converting digital data from the user's equipment into a format suitable for transmission over the T1 or T3 line, and vice versa. It also performs line monitoring and conditioning functions to ensure reliable communication. Therefore, CSU/DSU is essential for establishing and maintaining a T1 or T3 connection.

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111. What are the basic requirements for any type of demodulation?

Explanation

Demodulation is the process of extracting the original information signal from a modulated carrier signal. Sensitivity is required to accurately detect and interpret the weak modulated signal. Nonlinearity is necessary to convert the modulated signal back to its original form. The RF carrier signal is needed as a carrier wave for the modulation process. Filtering is essential to remove any unwanted noise or interference from the demodulated signal. Therefore, the basic requirements for any type of demodulation include sensitivity, nonlinearity, RF carrier signal, and filtering.

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112. How many 7-level technicians make up the Aeromedical Evacuation Support Cell?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the question asks for the number of 7-level technicians in the Aeromedical Evacuation Support Cell. Out of the given options, 4 is the only number that matches the requirement.

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113. What two communications systems are a part of MMP?

Explanation

The correct answer is HF & MILSTAR systems. The MMP (Mobile Microwave Package) includes two communication systems: HF (High Frequency) and MILSTAR. HF systems operate in the high frequency range and are commonly used for long-distance communication. MILSTAR (Military Strategic Tactical and Relay) is a satellite communication system used by the U.S. military for secure and reliable communication. Both of these systems play a crucial role in the MMP.

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114. For modulation to take place, what must be present?

Explanation

Modulation is the process of varying a carrier signal in order to transmit information. In order for modulation to take place, several elements must be present. A reference signal is needed as a baseline for comparison. A modulating signal is required to carry the information that needs to be transmitted. Nonlinearity is necessary to mix the carrier signal with the modulating signal, creating sidebands that carry the information. Lastly, filtering is needed to remove any unwanted frequencies and ensure that the modulated signal is clean and ready for transmission. Therefore, the correct answer is "A reference signal, a modulating signal, nonlinearity, and filtering".

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115. Which statement concerning line lengths is true?

Explanation

With a constant physical length, the frequency and electrical length are directly related. This means that as the frequency increases, the electrical length also increases, and vice versa.

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116. What provides C2 operations for the space segment?

Explanation

The master control station provides C2 (command and control) operations for the space segment. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling the various satellites in space. This includes tasks such as tracking their positions, adjusting their orbits, and managing their communications. The master control station acts as the central hub for managing and coordinating the operations of the space segment.

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117. What methos of keying is used by SCOPE Command's digital electronic switch (DES) when a circuit is a phone patch?

Explanation

VOX stands for Voice Operated eXchange. It is a method of keying used by SCOPE Command's digital electronic switch (DES) when a circuit is a phone patch. VOX allows the circuit to automatically switch between transmit and receive modes based on the presence or absence of audio input. This means that when someone speaks into the phone, the circuit will automatically switch to transmit mode, and when there is no audio input, it will switch to receive mode. This eliminates the need for manual keying or using a foot-switch, making communication more convenient.

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118. Besides Air Force Space Command, to what unified command is 20th Air Force responsible?

Explanation

20th Air Force is responsible to US Strategic Command. US Strategic Command is one of the eleven unified combatant commands of the United States Department of Defense. It is responsible for the global command and control of U.S. strategic forces to meet national security objectives. The command oversees strategic deterrence, global strike, and operating the country's nuclear arsenal.

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119. Which communications systems are used for ground base defense and line of site communications?

Explanation

The AN/PRC-148 is used for ground base defense and line of sight communications.

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120. In foldout 1, grid B6, what functions are performed by the A& module's low pass filter?

Explanation

The A& module's low pass filter performs the function of rejecting image frequencies in the receive mode and attenuating harmonics in the transmit mode. This means that it helps to eliminate unwanted frequencies that can interfere with the desired signal during reception, and it also reduces the presence of harmonics that may be generated during transmission.

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121. How many stations exist in the SCOPE command HFGCS?

Explanation

The correct answer is 15. The SCOPE command HFGCS refers to the High Frequency Global Communications System, which is a network of stations used for long-range military communications. The system consists of 15 stations strategically located around the world to provide coverage and ensure reliable communication for military operations.

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122. Which missile site component enables monitor and control of MMP, AFSATCOM, and SACDIN directly from the consol?

Explanation

The remote message processing subsystem (RMPS) is the correct answer because it enables the monitor and control of MMP, AFSATCOM, and SACDIN directly from the console. The RMPS is responsible for processing and managing messages between different components of the missile site, allowing for efficient communication and control.

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123. Which 802.11 standard has the advantage of less interference?

Explanation

The 802.11a standard has the advantage of less interference compared to the other options. This is because it operates on a higher frequency band (5 GHz) which is less crowded and has fewer devices using it. The 802.11b and 802.11g standards operate on the 2.4 GHz frequency band, which is more susceptible to interference from other devices such as microwaves, cordless phones, and Bluetooth devices. The 802.11 legacy standard refers to the original version of the 802.11 standard and does not specify a particular frequency band, so it may have similar interference issues as 802.11b and 802.11g.

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124. Refer to foldout 5, which module contains all of the voice/data interfaces to external equipment?

Explanation

The Controller module contains all of the voice/data interfaces to external equipment. This module is responsible for managing and controlling the communication between the system and external devices. It allows for the exchange of voice and data signals between the system and external equipment, enabling seamless communication and integration with other devices. The RF/IF module is responsible for processing radio frequency signals, the COMSEC module handles encryption and decryption of communications, and the Transmitter module is responsible for transmitting signals.

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125. JCSE is a subordinate of what command

Explanation

JCSE stands for Joint Communications Support Element, which is a specialized unit responsible for providing communication support to joint military operations. The question asks about the subordinate of JCSE, and the correct answer is USJFC, which stands for United States Joint Forces Command. This makes sense because JCSE is a subordinate unit under the command of USJFC, which is responsible for planning and executing joint military operations.

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126. What is the mission of Special Operations Communications Flights?

Explanation

The mission of Special Operations Communications Flights is to provide secure voice and data communications. This includes line of sight communications, HF, VHF, and UHF capabilities. They also assist the ASOC (Air Support Operations Center) during wartime operations and provide tactical antennas in a deployed environment.

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127. Who controls the JCSE?

Explanation

The Joint Staff controls the JCSE.

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128. How many routes can the AN/PSN-11 store?

Explanation

The AN/PSN-11 can store a total of 15 routes, with each route having 25 legs. This means that the device can store 15 different paths or directions, and each path can consist of 25 different segments or legs.

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129. Which UTC is a ground radio maintenance technician assigned to in an AE squadron

Explanation

AESC is the correct answer because it stands for Aerospace Ground Equipment Systems Craftsman. A ground radio maintenance technician in an AE squadron would be responsible for maintaining and repairing aerospace ground equipment systems, which makes AESC the most suitable option for their assigned UTC (Unit Type Code).

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130. Which selection best describes the term "cutoff frequency" when discussing transmission line properties?

Explanation

The cutoff frequency refers to the lowest frequency that a transmission line can successfully pass. This means that any frequency below the cutoff will be attenuated or blocked by the line, while frequencies above the cutoff will be transmitted through the line without significant loss.

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131. Who has command and conrol resposibility for all theater AE elements?

Explanation

TAES (Theater Aeromedical Evacuation System) has command and control responsibility for all theater AE (Aeromedical Evacuation) elements. This means that TAES is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all aeromedical evacuation operations in the theater of operations. They ensure that patients are transported safely and efficiently from the point of injury or illness to medical facilities, and they manage the logistical and operational aspects of the AE mission. TAES plays a crucial role in providing medical support and ensuring the timely evacuation of injured or sick personnel in a theater of operations.

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132. Which of the following UTC are mobile C2 teams that deployed to support strategic and theater air mobility operations?

Explanation

TACC stands for Tanker Airlift Control Center. It is responsible for planning, scheduling, and executing global air mobility operations. Mobile C2 teams deployed by TACC support strategic and theater air mobility operations, ensuring efficient and effective coordination of tanker and airlift assets. MARC, CRG/CRE, and TAES are not specifically associated with mobile C2 teams or air mobility operations.

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133. An antenna that radiates well in all directions is said to be

Explanation

An antenna that radiates well in all directions is said to be omnidirectional. This means that the antenna can transmit and receive signals equally well in all directions, providing a 360-degree coverage. On the other hand, a bi-directional antenna is capable of transmitting and receiving signals in two opposite directions, while unidirectional antennas have a focused beam pattern that allows transmission and reception in a specific direction. Quad-directional is not a recognized term in antenna technology.

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What happens to duplicate messages that might be received on more than...
What does the Minuteman MEECN Program use to prevent electromagnetic...
Which statement best describes the function of a high frequecy (HF)...
We define Link Quality Analysis as?
Which SCOPE Command mission provides high frequency (HF)...
What is one advantage of using SCOPE Command's high frequency (HF)...
What transport protocol is used for communication between all SCOPE...
What is the primary difference between the receive/transmit (RT) used...
What is the tune level used during the RF loop-back test?
Which sommunication system is a commercial telephone switch?
Which Command does the SPecial Operations Communications Flight...
What was the White House Communications Agency originally known as?
Which organization plans, coordinates, directs, and performs signals...
Which system is a commercial telephone switch
State the three steps of ALE linking
What is the team that function is to recover and relaunch aircraft
What was WHCA originally known as?
Which statement is true concerning receiver operation?
During transmit operation, what is the purpose of the compressor...
In the AM-7223 LPA, which circuit provides outputs that are directly...
The ability of an antenna to receiver as well as transmit effectively...
If an antenna concentrates its signal in one direction while reducing...
Nonsynchronus orbit satellites are in orbit which is
A polar orbit has an inclination of
The distance from your facility to the satellite is the
An advantage of passive satellites is that they
What is the delay of a real-time satellite?
In a Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA) system, which functions as...
What are the primary missions of the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
Because of overlapping frequency ranges, how many wireless LAN's can...
Which conventional LMR device serves as the hub of a net?
How many squadrons and detachments does JCSE have?
Which career fields ar assigend to a special operations communications...
For successful communications to take place, the transmitter's carrier...
Referring to foldout 2, what determines which specific filter is used...
The primary limitin factor concerning use of waveguides at lower...
Which statement concerning waveguides is FALSE?
What is the maximum raw data rate fir the 802.11b standard?
What is the net throughput of 802.11g standard?
Which missle site antenna is considered dual-mode and is used by both...
What are the three steps of the ALE linking sequence?
What is the output of the SCOPE Command power amplifier (PA)?
What AACE communications terminal is a one way paging system?
Hammer ACE systems are securable up to what classification?
What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-148
In what section of a super heterdyne reciever does most of the...
Which of the following identifies the output power of the...
If an out-of-tolerance condition is detected during a self-test on the...
The path above the horizon through which an antenna radiates the...
If the antenna's electric lines of force lie in a vertical direction,...
What are the two types of communications satellites?
Which satellite reflects signals transmitted toward it?
When a communications links is established using Demand Assigned...
What satellite system was originally developed in 1979 for ship...
What is the maximum number of devices a Bluetooth master device can...
Which conventional LMR device maximizes the communications distance...
Which cellular telephone technology usues "spread spectrum"?
Which statement best describes the function of a high frequency (HF)...
If your SCOPE Command station links with a station that is not...
Name the protocol used for all communications between SCOPE command...
What does the NSA do?
With an operating frequency of 150MHz and an IF of 10.7MHz, which...
Which statement is true concerning diode detectors?
The purpose of the Input Overload Protection Circuit (grid A11) shown...
If a transmission line is terminated in an open, what will likely be...
How many subscribers can a single transponder support by using a...
What is the minimum output power of the UHF radio system?
Which command does the Air Force Thunderbirds belong to?
What is the output power at the transmit site?
Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?
Resistance of the conductor material in a transmission line leads to...
If a transmission line is terminated in a short,
How many programmable net presets does the AN/PRC-117F have?
How many primary missions does AFSPC have?
What two communication systems make up the Minuteman MEECN Program?
If the technical order states a transmitter has a frequency accuracy...
Using figure 1-14 determine the electrical length if the...
When discussing transmission lines
Log Periodic antennas
When the speed of a satellite is constant the orbit is
How often does the Bluetooth protocol change channels?
Who has the ability to patch different talk groups together?
UHF radios in the AACE communications terminal are set at the...
Which unit provides worldwide audiovisual, voice, and data...
Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
Which section of the receiver dtermines overall selectivity?
The amount of skin-effect loss is directly proportional to
Which statement concerning wavelength is true?
A nonresonant transmission line is a line
Which INMARSAT series satellites was the first to concentrate power on...
Which item is not a type of wireless LAN infrastructure?
Which statement concerning SCOPE Command RF loop-back testing is not...
What is the reason DOD has an issue with wireless LANs?
Which UTC is not part of the Theater Acromedical Evacuation system?
What is the AN/PRC-148
When using the C-11329 Remote Control Unit, how do we route transmit...
Complete the following statement: When using the CU-2310 antenna...
Minimally how many satellites does a Global Positioning System (GPS)...
Which Bluetooth power class is the most common?
What conventional LMR device has a transmit power of 5 or 6 watts?
How many talk groups can a trunked mobile radio monitor at one time?
Which Unified Command is Air Mobility Command a component of?
Using figure 1-14, determine the wavelength if the frequency is...
What minimum elevation angle does the AN/PSN-11 select satellites...
According to the assistant secretary of defense policy, what...
Which communications system provides communications between a Command...
Which Hammer ACE equipment provides secure intra-site communication...
Leakage loss in a transmission line can be minimized by using a
The Aeromedical Evacuation Support Cell reports to?
Which communication system is required for both ends of a T1 or T3...
What are the basic requirements for any type of demodulation?
How many 7-level technicians make up the Aeromedical Evacuation...
What two communications systems are a part of MMP?
For modulation to take place, what must be present?
Which statement concerning line lengths is true?
What provides C2 operations for the space segment?
What methos of keying is used by SCOPE Command's digital electronic...
Besides Air Force Space Command, to what unified command is 20th Air...
Which communications systems are used for ground base defense and line...
In foldout 1, grid B6, what functions are performed by the A&...
How many stations exist in the SCOPE command HFGCS?
Which missile site component enables monitor and control of MMP,...
Which 802.11 standard has the advantage of less interference?
Refer to foldout 5, which module contains all of the voice/data...
JCSE is a subordinate of what command
What is the mission of Special Operations Communications Flights?
Who controls the JCSE?
How many routes can the AN/PSN-11 store?
Which UTC is a ground radio maintenance technician assigned to in an...
Which selection best describes the term "cutoff frequency" when...
Who has command and conrol resposibility for all theater AE elements?
Which of the following UTC are mobile C2 teams that deployed to...
An antenna that radiates well in all directions is said to be
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