CDC 2A651 Volume 1, General Maintenance Information : Aviano Airbase IT
This First Volume of CDC 2A651 General Maintenance Information pertains to orientation to the hazardous materials handling, maintenance suply function, technical orders (TO), engine corrosion control, storage and shipment, and nonpowered support equipment. This is a practice test only
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
- A.
Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.
- B.
Maintenance, operations, quality assurance.
- C.
Quality assurance, support, aircraft maintenance.
- D.
Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assuranceExplanation
The correct answer is Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. This answer includes all the necessary squadrons that form a maintenance group, which are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance. These squadrons are responsible for ensuring the proper maintenance and operation of aircraft, as well as quality assurance to maintain safety and efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) QA recommends possible corrective actions to which level?
- A.
Supervisors.
- B.
Flight commanders.
- C.
Group commanders.
- D.
Squadron commanders.
Correct Answer
A. Supervisors.Explanation
The correct answer is supervisors. In the given question, the question is asking about the level to which QA recommends possible corrective actions. Out of the options provided, supervisors are the most appropriate level to receive these recommendations. Supervisors are responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that it is done correctly. Therefore, QA would provide recommendations to supervisors to address any issues or errors that may have been identified.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
- A.
Operations support center.
- B.
Logistics support squadron.
- C.
Operations support squadron
- D.
Maintenance operations center.
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations center.Explanation
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules, as well as maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee and coordinate maintenance activities, ensuring that aircraft are serviced and repaired according to schedule. This includes tracking maintenance requirements, scheduling inspections, and coordinating with logistics support squadrons and operations support squadrons to ensure the smooth operation of aircraft maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(001) When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
- A.
Debrief.
- B.
Training
- C.
Specialist.
- D.
Deployment.
Correct Answer
C. Specialist.Explanation
When assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, you will most likely be assigned to the specialist flight. This is because as an engine troop, your primary responsibility would be to specialize in the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines. The specialist flight would provide you with the necessary training and resources to carry out your duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
- A.
NCO academy
- B.
On-the-job training.
- C.
Career development course.
- D.
Task qualification training.
Correct Answer
C. Career development course.Explanation
A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training focuses on enhancing skills and knowledge related to one's career path. It typically includes a structured curriculum and may involve classroom instruction, online courses, workshops, or seminars. This type of training aims to improve job performance, expand knowledge, and prepare individuals for future career opportunities. NCO academy primarily focuses on leadership and management training for non-commissioned officers, while on-the-job training and task qualification training are more hands-on approaches to learning specific job tasks.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(002) You may attend ALS after having hopw many months in the Air Force?
- A.
24.
- B.
36.
- C.
48.
- D.
60.
Correct Answer
C. 48.Explanation
After serving in the Air Force for 48 months, individuals are eligible to attend ALS (Airman Leadership School). This program is designed to enhance their leadership skills and prepare them for higher-level positions within the Air Force. The correct answer is 48.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(003) Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all Airforce Employees?
- A.
ORM.
- B.
MSDS.
- C.
AFOSH.
- D.
Flightline safety
Correct Answer
C. AFOSH.Explanation
AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health program. It is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for all Air Force employees. This program aims to prevent accidents, injuries, and illnesses in the workplace by implementing safety regulations, conducting inspections, and providing training and guidance to personnel. AFOSH plays a crucial role in maintaining a safe and secure environment for Air Force employees.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) Ocucupational health is regulated by Air Force series
- A.
91.
- B.
66.
- C.
127.
- D.
161.
Correct Answer
A. 91. -
- 9.
(003) Which Airforce instruction defies quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1.
- B.
00-20-1.
- C.
21-101.
- D.
36-2018.
Correct Answer
C. 21-101.Explanation
Airforce instruction 21-101 is the correct answer because it emphasizes the importance of quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance. This instruction likely provides specific guidelines and procedures for maintaining the Airforce's equipment and ensures that maintenance personnel adhere to high standards of professionalism and ethical behavior.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
- A.
Lock and pin the work stands.
- B.
Check the AFTO Form 781K.
- C.
Check the intake for FOD.
- D.
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.
Correct Answer
D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft.Explanation
To ensure that it is safe to proceed with maintenance on the aircraft, checking with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft is important. This is because they may have valuable information or observations regarding the condition of the aircraft or any potential hazards. Their input can help identify any potential risks or issues that need to be addressed before proceeding with maintenance. This step promotes effective communication and collaboration among the maintenance crew, ensuring a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(004) How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear.
- B.
15 feet to the front and 10 feet from the rear.
- C.
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear.
Correct Answer
C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.Explanation
The correct answer is 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet in front of the propeller and 5 feet behind it. This is important to know for safety reasons, as it indicates the area where people and objects should not be located when the propeller is in motion.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(004) To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
- A.
100.
- B.
200.
- C.
300.
- D.
400.
Correct Answer
B. 200.Explanation
To avoid the engine exhaust blast, a minimum distance of 200 feet to the rear of the aircraft is required. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment from the high-temperature and high-velocity gases expelled by the engine during operation. Being within this range can pose a risk of injury and damage, making it crucial to maintain a safe distance.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(005) FOD is normally caused by
- A.
People.
- B.
Animals.
- C.
Weather.
- D.
Mechanical failure.
Correct Answer
A. People.Explanation
FOD, or Foreign Object Debris, is typically caused by people. This refers to any object, substance, or debris that is not part of an aircraft or its components, but can cause damage if it enters the aircraft's systems or engines. People can unintentionally introduce FOD by leaving tools, equipment, or personal items on the runway or in the aircraft during maintenance or cleaning activities. Additionally, people can also cause FOD by not properly securing or disposing of waste materials, such as food wrappers or cigarette butts, which can be blown onto the runway or sucked into the engines.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(005) Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
- A.
Quality assurance.
- B.
Sqaudron commander.
- C.
Production supervisor.
- D.
Maintenance group commander.
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance group commander.Explanation
The overall responsibility for the FOD program lies with the Maintenance Group Commander. This individual is in charge of overseeing all maintenance operations within the organization and ensuring that all necessary measures are taken to prevent foreign object damage (FOD). As the highest-ranking authority in the maintenance group, the commander is responsible for implementing and enforcing FOD prevention policies, conducting regular inspections, and ensuring that all personnel are properly trained and educated on FOD prevention procedures.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(006) During flightline and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
- A.
Acetone.
- B.
Toulene.
- C.
Carbon dioxide.
- D.
Carbon monoxide.
Correct Answer
D. Carbon monoxide.Explanation
During flightline and test cell operations, one may be exposed to various chemicals and gases. Acetone and toulene are commonly used solvents and may be present in these environments. Carbon dioxide is a natural component of the air we breathe and is not considered harmful in normal concentrations. However, carbon monoxide is a toxic gas that can be produced by the combustion of fuels such as gasoline or jet fuel. Exposure to carbon monoxide can be dangerous and can lead to symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and even death. Therefore, carbon monoxide is the correct answer as it poses a potential risk during flightline and test cell operations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
- A.
Aerosols.
- B.
Liquids.
- C.
Solids.
- D.
Gases.
Correct Answer
D. Gases.Explanation
Toxic materials in the form of gases are the easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions. Gases have the ability to easily enter the respiratory system through inhalation and can quickly be absorbed into the bloodstream. Once in the body, gases can rapidly distribute throughout various organs and tissues, leading to immediate toxic effects. In contrast, aerosols, liquids, and solids may require additional steps for absorption, such as ingestion or skin contact, before they can cause toxic reactions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipement?
- A.
Safety.
- B.
Hospital.
- C.
Supervisor.
- D.
Envioromental
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor.Explanation
The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in charge of ensuring that employees are properly educated and trained in the correct procedures for using and maintaining their personal protective equipment to ensure their safety in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions.
- B.
Unauthorized entry.
- C.
Overflow of materials.
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials.
Correct Answer
B. Unauthorized entry.Explanation
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety and security of both the environment and individuals. Unauthorized entry can lead to potential accidents, spills, or intentional harm, which can have severe consequences. By restricting access to authorized personnel only, the risk of mishandling or illegal disposal of hazardous waste is minimized, protecting both the public and the environment from potential harm.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(007) A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
- A.
Dilution.
- B.
Incineration.
- C.
Land disposal.
- D.
Biodegradation.
Correct Answer
A. Dilution.Explanation
A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is dilution. This involves mixing the hazardous waste with a large volume of water or other liquid to reduce its concentration. Dilution is often used when the hazardous waste is in liquid form and cannot be easily treated or recycled. By diluting the waste, its harmful effects can be minimized, making it safer to handle or release into the environment. However, it is important to note that dilution is not always the most effective or environmentally friendly method of disposal, and other methods such as incineration, land disposal, or biodegradation may be more appropriate depending on the nature of the waste.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(007) For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
- A.
Incineration.
- B.
Land disposal.
- C.
Biodegration.
- D.
Chemico-physical treatment.
Correct Answer
A. Incineration.Explanation
The Air Force is unlikely to justify incineration for hazardous waste disposal because it is not an environmentally friendly method. Incineration releases harmful pollutants into the air and can contribute to air pollution and climate change. Additionally, incineration does not completely destroy hazardous waste and can result in the formation of toxic byproducts. Therefore, alternative methods such as land disposal, biodegradation, or chemico-physical treatment may be more suitable and safer options for hazardous waste disposal.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(008) A specialized function of the supply mission is
- A.
Rapir.
- B.
Service.
- C.
Disposal.
- D.
Retrieval.
Correct Answer
C. Disposal.Explanation
The specialized function of a supply mission is disposal. This means that the mission is focused on getting rid of or getting rid of something, such as waste or unwanted items. This could involve safely disposing of hazardous materials or properly disposing of items that are no longer needed. The mission may involve following specific protocols and regulations to ensure that disposal is done in an environmentally friendly and safe manner.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(008) From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
- A.
Base system.
- B.
Weapons system.
- C.
Inventory system.
- D.
Geographical system.
Correct Answer
B. Weapons system.Explanation
The RSS manages supply from a weapons system perspective. This means that it focuses on the supply of weapons and related equipment, ensuring that they are properly maintained, stored, and distributed to the appropriate personnel. This perspective is important in military operations as it ensures that the necessary weapons are available and ready for use when needed.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(008) Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
- A.
Depot Level Repair System.
- B.
Repair Cycle Support System.
- C.
Standard Base Supply System.
- D.
Precious Metals Recovery System.
Correct Answer
B. Repair Cycle Support System.Explanation
The Repair Cycle Support System manages the repair cycle system. This system is responsible for coordinating and overseeing the repair and maintenance of equipment and supplies. It ensures that repairs are completed efficiently and effectively, minimizing downtime and maximizing the availability of equipment for use. The Repair Cycle Support System plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of military assets.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of thier design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
- A.
Overhaul.
- B.
Retests OK.
- C.
Time change.
- D.
Repair cycle support.
Correct Answer
A. Overhaul.Explanation
Selected equipment items are predetermined to require overhaul when returned to the depot due to their design characteristics, function, or application. Overhaul refers to the process of completely disassembling, inspecting, repairing, and reassembling the equipment to ensure it is in optimal working condition. This is necessary to address any wear and tear, damage, or performance issues that may have occurred during the equipment's use. Overhaul is a comprehensive maintenance procedure that aims to extend the lifespan and reliability of the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(008) Which supply document provides means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by SBSS?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report (D18).
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04).
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30).
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register (D04).Explanation
The correct answer is Daily Document Register (D04). This document provides organizations with a means to review all document numbers processed during the day by SBSS. It allows them to keep track of the documents that have been processed and ensures that all necessary paperwork has been completed. The Priority Monitor Report (D18) provides information on high-priority items, the Due-out Validation Listing (M30) provides information on items that are due to be shipped, and the Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23) provides information on assets that are in need of repair.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?
- A.
Mission.
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Location.
- D.
Type of aircraft.
Correct Answer
A. Mission.Explanation
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because each organization has a different mission. The mission of an organization determines its specific needs and requirements, including the parts and supplies it requires. Therefore, Base Supply must prioritize the delivery of parts based on the mission of each organization to ensure that they can fulfill their objectives effectively.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(009) What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
- A.
Origin of an item.
- B.
Why the item broke.
- C.
How long the item will take to repair.
- D.
The responsible reparable processing center.
Correct Answer
A. Origin of an item.Explanation
A completed AFTO Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the United States Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment. By completing this form, the responsible personnel can record information such as the date of acquisition, the source from which the item was obtained, and any relevant details about its origin. This helps in maintaining accurate records and enables better tracking and management of the item throughout its lifecycle.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(009) Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
- A.
AFMAN 23-110.
- B.
TO 00-20-2.
- C.
AFI 91-301.
- D.
TO 00-5-1
Correct Answer
B. TO 00-20-2.Explanation
TO 00-20-2 provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(010) If your are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
- A.
AF IMT 2005.
- B.
AFTO Form 349.
- C.
AFTO Form 350.
- D.
DD Form 1574.
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 2005.Explanation
If you are TDY (Temporary Duty) and both IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) and SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) are not available, you would use AF IMT 2005 to order an engine part. This form is used for requesting and tracking supplies and equipment in the Air Force. AFTO Form 349 is used for aircraft maintenance documentation, AFTO Form 350 is used for aircraft equipment record, and DD Form 1574 is used for documenting the issue and receipt of property.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(010) If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries , refer to AFMAN
- A.
23-110.
- B.
23-254.
- C.
91-110.
- D.
91-254.
Correct Answer
A. 23-110.Explanation
The correct answer is 23-110. This is because the question is asking for a reference to the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, and the correct reference is AFMAN 23-110. The other options, 23-254, 91-110, and 91-254, are not the correct references for the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(011) Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance ?
- A.
DD Form 1574.
- B.
DD Form 1575.
- C.
DD Form 1577-2.
- D.
DD Form 1577-3
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1575.Explanation
DD Form 1575 is the correct answer because it is the form that is used to attach to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance. This form is specifically designed to track and document the status of items that are in need of repair or awaiting the arrival of necessary parts. It helps to ensure that these items are properly accounted for and that the necessary actions are taken to resolve any issues or perform the required maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(012) Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
- A.
Supply.
- B.
Shelf-life.
- C.
Inspection.
- D.
Bench stock.
Correct Answer
B. Shelf-life.Explanation
Shelf-life is the correct answer because it refers to the period of time during which a product, such as food or medicine, remains usable, safe, and of acceptable quality. Assigning a storage time period to a product ensures that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time, indicating when it should be consumed or disposed of. This is particularly important for perishable items that may spoil or lose their effectiveness if stored for too long.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date.
- C.
Has a definite non extendible period of shelf-life.
- D.
Should be inspected and tested.
Correct Answer
C. Has a definite non extendible period of shelf-life.Explanation
When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite non extendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its expiration date and should be disposed of or replaced once it reaches its shelf-life limit.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(013) A Category I DR is used to report defieciency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manage.
- B.
Found during an initial acceptance inspection ( critical or major defects only ).
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement ( applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).
Correct Answer
C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.Explanation
A Category I DR is used to report a deficiency that, if left uncorrected, has the potential to cause significant loss or damage to equipment or a system. This category is reserved for critical issues that require immediate attention to prevent any major consequences.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(013) Within how many hours must category I DR be forwarded to the screening point?
- A.
8.
- B.
12.
- C.
24.
- D.
72.
Correct Answer
C. 24.Explanation
Category I DR refers to a drug reaction that is severe and life-threatening. These types of adverse reactions need to be promptly reported to the appropriate authorities for further evaluation and monitoring. Therefore, it is crucial to forward category I DR reports to the screening point within 24 hours to ensure timely action and prevent any potential harm to patients.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(014) Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
- A.
Shelf-life
- B.
Bench stock
- C.
Hazardous materials
- D.
Equipment Authorization Inventory Data
Correct Answer
D. Equipment Authorization Inventory DataExplanation
The CA/CRL (Central Authority/Controlled Repairable List) is a list that reflects the inventory of authorized equipment. It includes information such as the type, quantity, and condition of the equipment. Therefore, the correct answer is "Equipment Authorization Inventory Data" because it is necessary to reflect this type of information on the CA/CRL.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Commander
- D.
Supply chief
Correct Answer
C. CommanderExplanation
To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. The commander is the highest-ranking official in the military unit or organization and has the authority to appoint individuals to various positions. As an equipment custodian, the individual would be responsible for the proper care, maintenance, and inventory of equipment assigned to their unit. The commander's appointment ensures that the custodian is selected based on their qualifications and trustworthiness to handle the equipment effectively.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(015) The first part of a TO number identifies the
- A.
Sectionalization of the TO.
- B.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- C.
Category and type of equipment in the TO
- D.
Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO
Correct Answer
C. Category and type of equipment in the TOExplanation
The first part of a TO number identifies the category and type of equipment in the TO. This means that the TO number helps to categorize and identify the specific type of equipment that the TO is referring to. It allows for easy organization and classification of the TOs based on the different categories and types of equipment.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(015) The second part of a TO number gives the
- A.
TO classifications
- B.
Type of equipment in the TO
- C.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- D.
Model and series for equiptment type in the TO
Correct Answer
D. Model and series for equiptment type in the TOExplanation
The second part of a TO number provides information about the model and series for the type of equipment in the TO. This means that by looking at the second part of the TO number, one can determine the specific model and series of equipment that the TO is referring to. This information is important for accurately identifying and accessing the correct instructions and procedures for a particular equipment type.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(016) In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment
- A.
Index
- B.
Preliminary
- C.
Methods and procedure
- D.
Operational and maintenance
Correct Answer
A. IndexExplanation
In the Index type of Technical Order (TO), you would find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment. The Index serves as a reference guide that helps users locate the appropriate TO for a particular equipment category. It provides a comprehensive list of all the TOs available for that specific category, allowing users to quickly find the TO they need. This helps streamline the process of accessing the necessary information and ensures that users can easily navigate through the various TOs related to a specific equipment category.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General equipment
- B.
General systems
- C.
Fault isolation
- D.
Job guide
Correct Answer
D. Job guideExplanation
A job guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. This type of manual provides step-by-step instructions and guidance for performing specific maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. It is designed to assist technicians or maintenance personnel in carrying out their duties effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(017) Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electrionic technical manuals (IETMS)?
- A.
Rapid action changes
- B.
Operational supplements
- C.
Urgent recommendations
- D.
Time compliance technical order
Correct Answer
C. Urgent recommendationsExplanation
Interactive electronic technical manuals (IETMs) provide various types of additional data to users. However, one type of additional data that is not provided in IETMs is "urgent recommendations." Urgent recommendations typically refer to critical information or instructions that need to be immediately implemented due to safety concerns or urgent operational requirements. While IETMs may contain important information such as rapid action changes, operational supplements, and time compliance technical orders, they do not typically include specific urgent recommendations.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(017) What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
- A.
Introduction
- B.
Numerical index
- C.
Group aseembly parts list
- D.
Reference designation index
Correct Answer
A. IntroductionExplanation
The correct answer is "Introduction". The introduction section of the IPB typically provides an overview and explanation of the coding system used throughout the IPB. It may include information on how to interpret the codes, abbreviations, symbols, or any other coding conventions used in the document. This section helps users understand and navigate the IPB more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(018) What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
- A.
Record
- B.
Urgent action
- C.
Routine action
- D.
Immediate action
Correct Answer
D. Immediate actionExplanation
Immediate action TCTOs are issued to correct unsafe conditions that have the potential to cause a fatality or serious injury to personnel. These TCTOs require immediate attention and action to ensure the safety of individuals. They are prioritized over other categories of TCTOs due to the urgency and severity of the situation.Rate this question:
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