CCNA Security Part 2 Quiz

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| By Mich1212
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Mich1212
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1.
  Which action best describe a MAC address spoofing attack?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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2.
When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch and the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded, the default action is to shut down the port. This means that any device connected to the port will lose network connectivity until the issue is resolved. Shutting down the port helps to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network and ensures network security.

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3. What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?

Explanation

The "no service password-recovery" command disables the ability to access ROMmon. ROMmon is a special mode in Cisco devices that allows users to recover passwords or perform other troubleshooting tasks. By disabling this command, users will no longer be able to access ROMmon, limiting their ability to recover passwords or perform any other tasks that require ROMmon access.

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4.
Nov 30 11:00:24 EST: %SYS-5-CONFIG-I: Configured from console by vty0 (10.64.2.2) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The message indicates that the configuration was changed from the console by a virtual terminal (vty0) with the IP address 10.64.2.2. This is a normal but significant event as it shows that a configuration change was made. It does not indicate any immediate action needed, warning conditions, or that the system is unusable. Therefore, the correct answer is that this is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

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5.
What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

After RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router, the generated keys can be used by SSH. This means that the router can now use the generated keys for secure device management using SSH.

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6. What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?

Explanation

After RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router, the generated keys can be used by SSH. This means that the SSH protocol can utilize the generated RSA keys for secure device management. The keys are used for authentication and encryption purposes, ensuring secure communication between the router and the management device.

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7. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is implemented?

Explanation

The correct answer is remote-access IPsec VPN. This can be determined by analyzing the exhibit, which provides information about the VPN implementation. The term "remote-access" suggests that the VPN is used to connect remote users to a private network. Additionally, the exhibit does not mention any specific protocol like SSL or GRE, but it does mention IPsec, which is a commonly used protocol for secure remote access VPNs. Therefore, the correct answer is remote-access IPsec VPN.

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8.
What login enhancement configuration command helps successive login DoS attacks?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The "login block-for" command helps prevent successive login Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. This command allows the system to block login attempts for a specified period of time after a certain number of failed login attempts have been made. This helps protect against brute-force attacks and limits the impact of DoS attacks by temporarily blocking the source of the attack.

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9.
What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

Securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature ensures that the image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command. This means that unauthorized users or attackers cannot easily access or tamper with the IOS image file. It adds an extra layer of security to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the IOS image.

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10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configureda standard ACL on R1 and applied it to interface serial 0/0/0 in the outbounddirection. What happens to traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 that does notmatch the configured ACL statements?

Explanation

If the traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 does not match the configured ACL statements, the resulting action is that the traffic is dropped. This means that the traffic will not be forwarded or routed to its destination, and it will be discarded or ignored by the device.

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11.
What functionality is provided by Cisco SPAN in a switched network?  
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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12.
  What precaution should be considered when the no service password–recovery command has been issued on an IOS device?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

When the "no service password-recovery" command is issued on an IOS device, it disables the ability to recover the device's password. This means that if the password is lost or forgotten, the only way to regain access to the device is by performing a recovery process that involves replacing the system flash with a new IOS image. This precaution is taken to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot easily gain access to the device by recovering the password.

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13.
14. Which mitigation technique can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

Switchport security is a mitigation technique that can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks. Switchport security allows the network administrator to limit the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a switch port. By setting a maximum limit, the switch can prevent an attacker from flooding the switch with fake MAC addresses, which can lead to a MAC table overflow attack. This technique ensures that only authorized devices are allowed to connect to the network, reducing the risk of MAC table overflow attacks.

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14. R1(config)# logging host 10.1.1.17 R1(config)# logging trap errors R1(config)# logging source-interface loopback 0 R1(config)# logging on Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the commands that are shown on router R1. At what trap level is the logging function set?

Explanation

The logging function on router R1 is set at trap level 3. This is indicated by the command "logging trap errors" which sets the logging level to errors.

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15.
. Which type of Layer 2 attack makes a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN?  
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

STP manipulation is the correct answer because it refers to the act of manipulating the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to make a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN. By doing this, the host can gain control over the network and potentially intercept or manipulate network traffic. This type of Layer 2 attack can be used to bypass network security measures and gain unauthorized access to network resources.

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16.
An organization has mobile workers who usecorporate-owned laptops at customer sites to view inventory and place orders.Which type of VPN allows these workers to securely access all of theclient/server applications of the organization?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

A remote-access IPsec VPN allows mobile workers to securely access all of the client/server applications of the organization. This type of VPN creates a secure tunnel between the mobile worker's laptop and the organization's network, allowing them to securely access resources and applications. It provides encryption and authentication to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted.

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17.
Which component of AAA is used to determine which resources a user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform?
   
   
   
   

Explanation

Authorization is the component of AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) that is used to determine which resources a user can access and which operations the user is allowed to perform. It involves granting or denying access rights to users based on their identity, roles, and privileges. Authorization ensures that only authorized users can access specific resources and perform certain actions, maintaining the security and integrity of the system.

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18.
A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth. What is the effect of this setting?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

Setting a security level of "auth" in SNMPv3 means that the packet will be authenticated using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method. This ensures that the packet is not tampered with during transmission and provides a level of security for the SNMP communication. The HMAC with MD5 and SHA methods are commonly used cryptographic algorithms for authentication in SNMPv3.

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19.
Which statement describes a factor to be considered when configuring a zone-based policy firewall?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

When configuring a zone-based policy firewall, a factor to be considered is that a zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command. This means that before assigning interfaces to a specific zone, the zone itself must be defined using the zone security global command. Only then can the zone be used in the zone-member security command to assign interfaces to the zone.

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20.
Which access list statement permits HTTP traffic that is sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 4300 and destined to host 192.168.30.10?  
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The correct answer is "access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www". This statement allows TCP traffic from the source IP address 10.1.129.100 with a source port of 4300 to the destination IP address 192.168.30.10. The source IP address range is 10.1.128.0 to 10.1.129.255, and the destination IP address range is 192.168.30.0 to 192.168.30.15. The destination port is specified as www, which is port 80.

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21.
Which device supports the use of SPAN to enable monitoring of malicious activity?
 
 
 
 

Explanation

A Cisco Catalyst switch supports the use of SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) to enable monitoring of malicious activity. SPAN allows the switch to copy network traffic from one or more ports and send it to another port for analysis. By configuring SPAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch, network administrators can monitor network traffic for any signs of malicious activity, such as unauthorized access attempts or suspicious behavior. This helps in detecting and responding to security threats in real-time, making the Cisco Catalyst switch an ideal device for monitoring and securing the network.

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22.
Which type of SDM rule is created to govern the traffic that can enter and leave the network based on protocol and port number?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

An access rule is created to govern the traffic that can enter and leave the network based on protocol and port number. This rule allows or denies access to specific network resources based on predefined conditions, such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and port number. It helps in controlling and managing network traffic by enforcing security policies and ensuring that only authorized traffic is allowed to pass through the network.

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23.
Anadministrator needs to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. Which privilege command is used to create this custom account?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The privilege exec level 2 command is used to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. This command sets the privilege level for the user account to 2, which allows the user to access a wide range of commands and functions on the device.

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24. When configuring a class map for zone-based policy firewall, how are thematch criteria applied when using the match-all parameter?

Explanation

When configuring a class map for zone-based policy firewall, if the match-all parameter is used, it means that traffic must match all of the match criteria specified in the statement. In other words, all the conditions mentioned in the class map must be met for the traffic to be considered a match.

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25. Router(config)# ntp authenticate Router(config)# ntp authentication-key 42 md5 aNiceKey Router(config)# ntp trusted-key 2 Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the commands that are shown on R1?      
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The given commands configure NTP authentication on the router. The "ntp authenticate" command enables NTP authentication, while the "ntp authentication-key" command configures the authentication key with ID 42 and MD5 encryption. The "ntp trusted-key" command specifies the trusted key ID as 2. However, the exhibit does not show any NTP server configuration, so the router will not be able to authenticate with any NTP master. Therefore, authentication with the NTP master will fail, but R1 will still be able to get the time from the NTP master.

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26.
Which Cisco IOS configuration option instructs the IPS to compile a signature category named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The correct answer is R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false. This answer is correct because it shows the correct command sequence to configure the IPS to compile a signature category named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic.

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27.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured router R1 as indicated. However, SDEE messages fail to log. Which solution corrects this problem?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The problem is that SDEE messages are not logging. To enable the logging of SDEE messages, the "ip ips notify sdee" command needs to be issued in global configuration. This command enables the router to send SDEE notifications to the configured IP address.

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28.
What is a feature of the TACACS+ protocol?
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The feature of the TACACS+ protocol is that it encrypts the entire body of the packet for more secure communications. This means that the information being transmitted is protected and cannot be easily intercepted or accessed by unauthorized individuals. Encryption adds an extra layer of security to the protocol, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted.

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29. Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco IOS security feature is implemented on router R2?

Explanation

The correct answer is CBAC firewall. CBAC (Context-Based Access Control) firewall is a Cisco IOS security feature that allows the router to inspect and filter traffic based on application layer protocol sessions. It dynamically creates temporary access control entries (ACEs) to permit returning traffic for outbound sessions initiated from inside the network. This helps prevent unauthorized access and protects the network against certain types of attacks.

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30.
Which consideration is important when implementing syslog in a network?
 
 
 
 

Explanation

Synchronizing clocks on all network devices with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol is important when implementing syslog in a network because it ensures that the timestamps of log messages are accurate and consistent across all devices. This is crucial for troubleshooting and analyzing events in the network as it allows for accurate correlation of log entries from different devices.

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31. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the configuration on switch S1? (Choose two

Explanation

The given correct answer states that on switch S1, storm control for broadcasts will be activated on port Fa0/5 if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth. Additionally, storm control for multicasts will be activated on port Fa0/6 if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second. This means that the switch has been configured to monitor the traffic on these specific ports and activate storm control measures if the defined thresholds are exceeded. Storm control helps prevent network congestion and performance issues by limiting the amount of broadcast and multicast traffic on the network.

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32.
Which statement describes configuring ACLs to controlTelnet traffic destined to the router itself?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The correct answer states that the ACL should be applied to all vty lines in the in direction to prevent an unwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port. This means that the ACL should be configured to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself, specifically on the virtual terminal lines (vty lines). By applying the ACL in the in direction on all vty lines, any Telnet traffic coming into the router will be filtered and unwanted users will be prevented from accessing the router through an unsecured port.

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33. Which three switch security commands are required to enable port security on a portso that it will dynamically learn a single MAC address and disable the port if a host with any other MAC address is connected? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The first command, "switchport mode access," is required to configure the port as an access port, which means it will only accept traffic from a single VLAN. This is necessary for port security to work properly.

The second command, "switchportport-security," is required to enable port security on the port. This command allows the switch to monitor the MAC addresses of devices connected to the port.

The third command, "switchportport-security mac-address sticky," is required to enable sticky MAC address learning on the port. This means that the switch will dynamically learn the MAC address of the first device connected to the port and only allow that MAC address to communicate through the port. If any other device with a different MAC address is connected, the port will be disabled.

These three commands together enable port security on the port, allowing it to dynamically learn a single MAC address and disable the port if any other MAC address is connected.

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34.
Which three commands are required to configure SSH ona Cisco router? (Choose three.)    
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

To configure SSH on a Cisco router, the following three commands are required:

1. "ip domain-name name" in global configuration mode: This command sets the domain name used for generating the RSA key for SSH encryption.

2. "transport input ssh" on a vty line: This command enables SSH as the transport protocol for remote management access.

3. "crypto key generate rsa" in global configuration mode: This command generates the RSA key pair used for SSH encryption.

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35. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be obtained from the AAAconfiguration statements?

Explanation

The AAA configuration statements provide information about the authentication method list used for Telnet, which is named ACCESS. This suggests that when users attempt to access the router through Telnet, their authentication will be checked against the ACCESS method list.

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36.
Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levelsfor assigning command authorization? (Choose three.)
 
 
 
 
 
 

Explanation

The first limitation is that there is no access control to specific interfaces on a router, meaning that users with a certain privilege level have access to all interfaces on the router. The second limitation is that commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users, restricting their access to certain commands. The third limitation is that creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process, indicating that it is difficult to customize command authorization for specific users.

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37. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM NTP Server Details screen, which two conclusions can be drawn from the information entered and check boxes checked? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Based on the information provided in the exhibit, we can conclude that the IP address of the NTP server is 10.1.1.2 because it is entered in the corresponding field. Additionally, we can conclude that NTP messages will be sent and received on interface Serial0/0/0 for this router because the checkbox for that interface is checked.

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38. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IPS configuration that is provided, which statement is true?

Explanation

Based on the provided IPS configuration, only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS. This means that the IPS will only utilize the signatures that belong to the ios_ips basic category, while the signatures in other categories will not be used and will be retired.

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39. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided configuration, which traffic will be examined by the IPS that is configured on router R1?

Explanation

The IPS on router R1 will only examine http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1. This means that any http traffic originating from LAN 1 will be inspected by the IPS for any potential threats or vulnerabilities. The IPS will not inspect any other types of traffic or traffic from other sources, such as LAN 2 or return traffic from the web server.

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40. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring SSH on a router using SDM from the Configure menu, which two steps are required? (Choose two.)

Explanation

To configure SSH on a router using SDM, the first step is to generate the RSA keys by choosing Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH. This step is necessary to enable secure communication between the router and the SSH client. The second step is to specify SSH as the input and output protocol for the VTY lines by choosing Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY. This step ensures that SSH is used for remote management access to the router.

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41.
Which three OSI layers can be filtered by a stateful firewall? (Choose three.)  
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

A stateful firewall is able to filter traffic based on the information in the TCP and UDP headers, which are part of Layer 4 of the OSI model. It can also filter based on the IP addresses, which are part of Layer 3. Layer 5, the session layer, is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications, so it is also possible for a stateful firewall to filter at this layer. Therefore, the correct answer is Layer 3, Layer 4, and Layer 5.

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42.
Which three types of views are available when configuring the Role-BasedCLI Access feature? (Choose three.)
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The Role-Based CLI Access feature offers three types of views for configuration: root view, superview, and CLI view. The root view provides full administrative access and control over the system. The superview allows for configuration and management of specific features and functions. The CLI view provides access to the command-line interface for executing commands and configuring the system. These three views offer different levels of access and control based on the user's role and responsibilities.

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43.
What is an important difference between network-based and host-basedintrusion prevention?
 
 
 
 
 

Explanation

Network-based IPS can provide protection to hosts without the need of installing specialized software on each one. This means that network-based IPS can monitor and protect multiple hosts on a network without the need for individual installations on each host. This makes it more efficient and easier to manage, especially in large networks with numerous hosts. Host-based IPS, on the other hand, requires installation and configuration on each individual host, making it less scalable and more time-consuming to implement.

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44.
15. An organization requires that individual users be authorized to issue specific Cisco IOS commands. Which AAA protocols support this requirement?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

RADIUS is the correct answer because it implements authentication and authorization as one process. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization steps, allowing for a streamlined and efficient process. This protocol is commonly used in network environments to control access to resources and ensure that individual users are authorized to issue specific commands.

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45.
Which two protocols allow SDM to gather IPS alertsfrom a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.)
  FTP
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

SDM (Security Device Manager) is a Cisco tool used for managing security features on Cisco ISR routers. SDEE (Security Device Event Exchange) and SYSLOG are two protocols that allow SDM to gather IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) alerts from a Cisco ISR router. SDEE is a protocol that allows the exchange of security events between security devices, while SYSLOG is a standard protocol used for logging and transmitting event messages. By using these protocols, SDM can collect IPS alerts from the router and provide effective security management.

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46.
Which Cisco IOS privileged EXEC command can be used to verify that the Cisco IOS image and configuration files have been properly backed up and secured?
 
 
 
 

Explanation

The command "show secure bootset" can be used to verify that the Cisco IOS image and configuration files have been properly backed up and secured. This command displays information about the bootset, which includes the location and status of the IOS image and configuration files. By checking this information, administrators can ensure that the files have been properly backed up and secured.

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47.
What are access attacks?  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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48. Refer to the exhibit.Which AAA function and protocol is in use in the network?

Explanation

The given exhibit indicates that the client is using the TACACS+ protocol for authentication. This can be inferred from the statement "The client is authenticating using the TACACS+ protocol." Therefore, the correct answer is that the client is authenticating using the TACACS+ protocol.

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49.
The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is anexample of which of the five IPsec building blocks?
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The use of 3DES within the IPsec framework is an example of the confidentiality building block of IPsec. 3DES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that provides confidentiality by encrypting the data being transmitted. IPsec uses various building blocks to ensure secure communication, and confidentiality is one of them. By using 3DES, IPsec ensures that the data is protected from unauthorized access and can only be decrypted by the intended recipient.

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50.
Which statement describes a MAC address table overflow attack?
 
 
 
 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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51. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screen shown, which twoconclusions can be drawn about the IKE policy being configured? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Based on the SDM screen shown, two conclusions can be drawn about the IKE policy being configured. First, it will use a predefined key for authentication. This can be inferred from the "Authentication Method" field, which shows "Pre-Shared Key" selected. Second, it will use a very strong encryption algorithm. This can be inferred from the "Encryption Algorithm" field, which shows "AES-256" selected.

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52.
Which two statements describe appropriate general guidelines for configuring and applying ACLs? (Choose two)  
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The first statement explains that if an Access Control List (ACL) does not have any permit statements, it will deny all traffic by default. This means that unless explicitly allowed by a permit statement, all traffic will be blocked.

The second statement states that the most specific ACL statements should be entered first. This is because ACLs are evaluated in a top-down sequential manner, and the first matching statement will be applied. By entering the most specific statements first, it ensures that they are evaluated before more general statements, allowing for more precise control over traffic filtering.

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53.
What are two disadvantages of using network IPS?(Choose two.)    
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

One disadvantage of using network IPS is that it has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful. This means that if an attacker sends fragmented packets, the network IPS may not be able to fully analyze and detect the attack. Another disadvantage is that network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic. This means that if an attacker encrypts their malicious traffic, the network IPS will not be able to inspect it and detect any potential threats.

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54.
What are three common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three)  
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The correct answer is authenticating administrator access to the router console port and vty ports, authenticating remote users accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections, and implementing command authorization with TACACS+. These are common examples of AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) implementation on Cisco routers. AAA provides a centralized method for managing and controlling access to network resources. By authenticating administrators and remote users, and implementing command authorization, the router ensures that only authorized individuals can access and make changes to the network. This helps enhance security and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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55. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screenshown, which two actions will the signature take if an attack is detected?(Choose two.)

Explanation

Based on the SDM screenshot, the signature will generate an alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server because it is enabled in the "Action" column. Additionally, it will create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address because it is also enabled in the "Action" column.

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56.
Which element ofthe Cisco Threat Control and Containment solution defends against attempts toattack servers by exploiting application and operating system vulnerabilities?
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The correct answer is "threat control for infrastructure". This element of the Cisco Threat Control and Containment solution is responsible for defending against attempts to attack servers by exploiting application and operating system vulnerabilities. It focuses on protecting the infrastructure of the network and ensuring the security of servers and their associated applications and operating systems.

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57.
Whichstatement describes the SDM Security Audit wizard?
  .
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The correct answer explains that the SDM Security Audit wizard is based on the Cisco IOS AutoSecure feature. This means that the wizard utilizes the AutoSecure feature of Cisco IOS to identify and address security vulnerabilities.

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58.
Which three major subpolicies should comprise a comprehensive security policy that meets the security needs of a typical enterprise? (Choose three)  
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

A comprehensive security policy for a typical enterprise should include end-user policies, governing policies, and technical policies. End-user policies outline the acceptable use of technology and systems by employees, ensuring that they understand their responsibilities in maintaining security. Governing policies establish the rules and procedures for managing and enforcing security measures across the organization. Technical policies focus on the specific technical controls and configurations that are necessary to protect the organization's assets and data. By incorporating these three subpolicies, an enterprise can address both the human and technical aspects of security, ensuring a well-rounded and comprehensive approach.

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59. Which two statements match a type of attack with an appropriate example?(Choose two.)

Explanation

The first statement matches a type of attack called an access attack with an appropriate example. In this case, the attacker uses L0phtCrack, a password auditing and recovery tool, to obtain a Windows server password. This type of attack focuses on gaining unauthorized access to a system or network.

The fifth statement matches a type of attack called a DoS (Denial of Service) attack with an appropriate example. In this case, the attacker initiates a smurf attack by sending a large number of ICMP requests to directed broadcast addresses. This type of attack aims to overwhelm a target system or network with a flood of traffic, causing it to become unresponsive and denying access to legitimate users.

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60.
Which two guidelines relate to in-band networkmanagement? (Choose two.)  
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The first guideline suggests that in-band management should only be applied to devices that need to be managed on the production network. This means that not all devices on the network need to be managed in this way, only the ones that are necessary for production purposes. The second guideline recommends implementing separate network segments for the production network and the management network. This is to ensure that the management network is isolated and secure from the production network. The use of IPSec, SSH, or SSL is also recommended to enhance the security of the in-band management process.

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61. Refer to the exhibit. Which AAA command logs the activity of a PPP session?
 
 
 
 
 
 

Explanation

The correct answer is "aaa accounting network start-stop group radius" because the "aaa accounting" command is used to enable accounting for different types of network activities, such as connections, executions, and networks. In this case, the "network" keyword indicates that accounting is being enabled for network-related activities, and the "start-stop" keyword specifies that the start and stop records should be logged. The "group radius" statement indicates that the accounting data should be sent to a RADIUS server for logging and analysis.

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62.
Which statement describes the operation of the IKE protocol?
   
   
   
   

Explanation

IKE (Internet Key Exchange) protocol calculates shared keys based on the exchange of a series of data packets. This means that during the communication process, both parties exchange data packets containing information that allows them to generate shared keys. These shared keys are then used for encrypting and decrypting the data being transmitted between the two parties. This method ensures secure communication by preventing unauthorized access to the shared keys and the data being transmitted.

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63. Choose three) Which three statements are characteristics of the IPsec protocol?      
 
 
 
 
 
 

Explanation

The given answer states that IPsec is a framework of open standards, which means it is not tied to any specific vendor or technology. IPsec ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm, which means it verifies that the data has not been tampered with during transmission. IPsec is also bound to specific encryption algorithms, such as 3DES and AES, which means it uses these algorithms to encrypt the data for secure transmission. These three statements accurately describe the characteristics of the IPsec protocol.

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64.
Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levels for assigning command authorization? (Choose three.)  
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The first statement explains that using privilege levels for assigning command authorization does not provide access control to specific interfaces on a router. The second statement states that commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users. The sixth statement mentions that creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process. These limitations highlight the drawbacks of using privilege levels for command authorization.

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65.
Which two Cisco IPSmanagement and monitoring tools are examples of GUI-based, centrally managedIPS solutions? (Choose two.)  
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

Cisco Security Manager and Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System are both examples of GUI-based, centrally managed IPS solutions. Cisco Security Manager provides a centralized platform for managing and configuring security policies across multiple devices, including IPS. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (Cisco Security MARS) is a comprehensive security information and event management (SIEM) solution that provides real-time monitoring, analysis, and reporting of security events from various sources, including IPS devices. Both tools offer a user-friendly graphical interface for managing and monitoring IPS solutions.

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66.
Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three)  
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The correct answer is AH uses IP protocol 51, AH provides integrity and authentication, and ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity. The IPsec protocol framework consists of two main protocols: AH (Authentication Header) and ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload). AH uses IP protocol 51 to provide integrity and authentication for IP packets. ESP, on the other hand, provides encryption, authentication, and integrity for IP packets and uses UDP protocol 50. Therefore, the correct statements are AH uses IP protocol 51, AH provides integrity and authentication, and ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.

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67.
Which three principles are enabled by a Cisco Self-Defending Network? (Choose three.)  
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

A Cisco Self-Defending Network enables three principles: adaptability, collaboration, and integration. Adaptability refers to the network's ability to quickly respond and adapt to changing threats and conditions. Collaboration involves the network's ability to work together with other security components to provide a comprehensive defense. Integration refers to the network's ability to seamlessly integrate security measures throughout the network infrastructure. These three principles work together to create a robust and effective defense against threats.

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68.
Which three statements should be considered when applying ACLs to aCisco router? (Choose three.)
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

When applying ACLs to a Cisco router, it is important to consider the following statements:

1. Place more specific ACL entries at the top of the ACL: This ensures that more specific rules are evaluated first before the generic ones, allowing for more precise filtering.

2. Router-generated packets pass through ACLs on the router without filtering: ACLs are not applied to packets generated by the router itself, so they are not filtered.

3. An access list applied to any interface without a configured ACL allows all traffic to pass: If an interface does not have an ACL applied to it, all traffic will be allowed to pass through.

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69.
The use of which two options are required for IPsec operation? (Choosetwo.)
 
 
 
 
SHA for encryption

Explanation

The use of Diffie-Hellman is required to establish a shared-secret key, which is used for encryption in IPsec. IKE (Internet Key Exchange) is also required to negotiate the Security Association (SA), which defines the parameters of the IPsec connection. Therefore, both Diffie-Hellman and IKE are necessary for IPsec operation.

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70.
Which three statements describe SSL-based VPNs? (Choose three.)  
   
   
   
       
 
 
 
 

Explanation

SSL-based VPNs use symmetric algorithms for authentication and key exchange, which ensures secure communication between the client and server. These algorithms are also used for bulk encryption, providing confidentiality for the transmitted data. The authentication process in SSL-based VPNs involves the use of hashing technologies, which verify the identity of the client and server. Special-purpose client software is required on the client machine to establish a secure connection. SSL VPNs are not limited to hardware and can be implemented in software as well.

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71.
Which three security services are provided by digital signatures? (Choose three.)
 
 
 
 
 
 

Explanation

Digital signatures provide three security services:

1. Authentication of the source: Digital signatures verify the identity of the sender, ensuring that the message or data is indeed coming from the claimed source.

2. Guarantee of data integrity: Digital signatures ensure that the data has not been altered or tampered with during transmission. Any changes to the data will invalidate the signature.

3. Nonrepudiation of transactions: Digital signatures provide proof that a transaction or message has been sent and cannot be denied by the sender. This helps in resolving disputes and establishing accountability.

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72.
Which three additional precautions should be taken when remote access is required in addition to local access of networking devices? (Choose three)  
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The three additional precautions that should be taken when remote access is required are:
1) All configuration activities should require the use of SSH or HTTPS, which are secure protocols that encrypt data during transmission.
2) All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network, ensuring that it is separate from regular user traffic and reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
3) Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain access, adding an extra layer of security by limiting access to trusted sources and specific protocols.

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73. Refer to the exhibit. Which three things occur if a user attempts to log in four times within 10 seconds using an incorrect password? (Choose three.)

Explanation

If a user attempts to log in four times within 10 seconds using an incorrect password, three things will occur. First, subsequent virtual login attempts from the user will be blocked for 60 seconds. Second, a message will be generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user. Finally, during the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.

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74.
Which three statements describe zone-based policyfirewall rules that govern interface behavior and the traffic moving betweenzone member interfaces? (Choose three.)
   
   
   
   
   
   

Explanation

The first statement, "Pass, inspect, and drop options can only be applied between two zones," indicates that these options can only be used to control traffic between different zones. The second statement, "If traffic is to flow between all interfaces in a router, each interface must be a member of a zone," suggests that in order for traffic to flow between all interfaces, each interface must be assigned to a zone. The third statement, "To permit traffic to and from a zone member interface, a policy allowing or inspecting traffic must be configured between that zone and any other zone," explains that in order to allow or inspect traffic to and from a zone member interface, a policy must be configured between that zone and any other zone.

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75. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring ZPF using the SDM Basic Firewall Configuration wizard. Which command is generated after the administrator selects the Finish button?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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76. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show secure bootset command on router R1, which three conclusions can be drawn regarding Cisco IOS Resilience? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Based on the output from the show secure bootset command on router R1, three conclusions can be drawn regarding Cisco IOS Resilience. Firstly, a copy of the router configuration file has been made, indicating that a backup of the configuration has been created for resilience purposes. Secondly, the Cisco IOS image file is hidden and cannot be copied, modified, or deleted, which enhances the security and resilience of the router. Lastly, the secure boot-config command was issued on R1, suggesting that the router has been configured to enable secure booting, which further strengthens its resilience against unauthorized modifications or attacks.

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77. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the CBACconfiguration on router R1?

Explanation

The correct answer is R1(config)#interface fa0/1 R1(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in R1(config-if)#ip access-group INSIDE in. This is the correct configuration because it applies the CBAC configuration to the fa0/1 interface, specifies the OUTBOUND inspection rule, and applies the INSIDE access group to inbound traffic on that interface.

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  ...
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