CCNA Security Part 2 Quiz

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| By Mich1212
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Mich1212
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 463
Questions: 77 | Attempts: 217

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CCNA Security Part 2 Quiz - Quiz

CCNA Routing & Switching courses and prepares you for Cisco Security certification, Let's begin this quiz now!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?

    • A.

      Aaa new-model global configuration command.

    • B.

      Change to the configuration register.

    • C.

      Password encryption service.

    • D.

      Ability to access ROMmon.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ability to access ROMmon.
    Explanation
    The "no service password-recovery" command disables the ability to access ROMmon. ROMmon is a special mode in Cisco devices that allows users to recover passwords or perform other troubleshooting tasks. By disabling this command, users will no longer be able to access ROMmon, limiting their ability to recover passwords or perform any other tasks that require ROMmon access.

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  • 2. 

    What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?

    • A.

      All vty ports are automatically configured for SSH to provide secure management.

    • B.

      The general-purpose key size must be specified for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general-keys mo command.

    • C.

      The generated keys can be used by SSH.

    Correct Answer
    C. The generated keys can be used by SSH.
    Explanation
    After RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router, the generated keys can be used by SSH. This means that the SSH protocol can utilize the generated RSA keys for secure device management. The keys are used for authentication and encryption purposes, ensuring secure communication between the router and the management device.

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  • 3. 

    Which action best describe a MAC address spoofing attack?

    • A.

      Altering the MAC address of an attacking host to match that of a legitimate host.

    • B.

      Bombarding a switch with fake source MAC addresses.

    • C.

      Forcing the election of a rogue root bridge

    • D.

      Flooding the LAN with excessive traffic

    Correct Answer
    A. Altering the MAC address of an attacking host to match that of a legitimate host.
  • 4. 

    What functionality is provided by Cisco SPAN in a switched network?    

    • A.

      It mitigates MAC address overflow attacks.

    • B.

      It mirrors traffic that passes through a switch port or VLAN to another port for traffic analysis.

    • C.

      It protects the switched network from receiving BPDUs on ports that should not be receiving them.

    • D.

      It copies traffic that passes through a switch interface and sends the data directly to a syslog or SNMP server for analysis.

    • E.

      It inspects voice protocols to ensure that SIP, SCCP, H.323, and MGCP requests conform to voice standards.

    Correct Answer
    B. It mirrors traffic that passes through a switch port or VLAN to another port for traffic analysis.
  • 5. 

    What precaution should be considered when the no service password–recovery command has been issued on an IOS device?    

    • A.

      The passwords in the configuration files are in clear text.

    • B.

      IOS recovery requires a new system flash with the IOS image.

    • C.

      When the password is lost, access to the device will be terminated.

    • D.

      The device must use simple password authentication and cannot have user authentication.

    Correct Answer
    B. IOS recovery requires a new system flash with the IOS image.
    Explanation
    When the "no service password-recovery" command is issued on an IOS device, it disables the ability to recover the device's password. This means that if the password is lost or forgotten, the only way to regain access to the device is by performing a recovery process that involves replacing the system flash with a new IOS image. This precaution is taken to ensure that unauthorized individuals cannot easily gain access to the device by recovering the password.

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  • 6. 

    A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth. What is the effect of this setting?  

    • A.

      Authenticates a packet using the SHA algorithm only.

    • B.

      Authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string.

    • C.

      Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method.

    • D.

      Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC MD5 or HMAC SHA algorithms and encrypts the packet using either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms.

    Correct Answer
    C. Authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method.
    Explanation
    Setting a security level of "auth" in SNMPv3 means that the packet will be authenticated using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method. This ensures that the packet is not tampered with during transmission and provides a level of security for the SNMP communication. The HMAC with MD5 and SHA methods are commonly used cryptographic algorithms for authentication in SNMPv3.

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  • 7. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which type of VPN is implemented?

    • A.

      Remote-access GRE VPN

    • B.

      Remote-access IPsec VPN

    • C.

      Remote-access SSL VPN

    • D.

      Site-to-site GRE VPN

    • E.

      Site-to-site IPsec VPN

    Correct Answer
    B. Remote-access IPsec VPN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is remote-access IPsec VPN. This can be determined by analyzing the exhibit, which provides information about the VPN implementation. The term "remote-access" suggests that the VPN is used to connect remote users to a private network. Additionally, the exhibit does not mention any specific protocol like SSL or GRE, but it does mention IPsec, which is a commonly used protocol for secure remote access VPNs. Therefore, the correct answer is remote-access IPsec VPN.

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  • 8. 

    Router(config)# ntp authenticate Router(config)# ntp authentication-key 42 md5 aNiceKey Router(config)# ntp trusted-key 2 Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the commands that are shown on R1?

    • A.

      Authentication with the NTP master will be successful, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master.

    • B.

      Authentication with the NTP master will be successful, but R1 will not get the time from the NTP master.

    • C.

      Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master.

    • D.

      Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will not get the time from the NTP master.

    Correct Answer
    C. Authentication with the NTP master will fail, and R1 will get the time from the NTP master.
    Explanation
    The given commands configure NTP authentication on the router. The "ntp authenticate" command enables NTP authentication, while the "ntp authentication-key" command configures the authentication key with ID 42 and MD5 encryption. The "ntp trusted-key" command specifies the trusted key ID as 2. However, the exhibit does not show any NTP server configuration, so the router will not be able to authenticate with any NTP master. Therefore, authentication with the NTP master will fail, but R1 will still be able to get the time from the NTP master.

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  • 9. 

    What login enhancement configuration command helps successive login DoS attacks?

    • A.

      Exec-timeout

    • B.

      Login block-for

    • C.

      Privilege exec level

    • D.

      Service password-encryption

    Correct Answer
    B. Login block-for
    Explanation
    The "login block-for" command helps prevent successive login Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. This command allows the system to block login attempts for a specified period of time after a certain number of failed login attempts have been made. This helps protect against brute-force attacks and limits the impact of DoS attacks by temporarily blocking the source of the attack.

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  • 10. 

    What are access attacks?

    • A.

      Attacks that prevent users from accessing network services

    • B.

      Attacks that modify or corrupt traffic as that traffic travels across the network

    • C.

      Attacks that exploit vulnerabilities to gain access to sensitive information

    • D.

      Attacks that involve the unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, and vulnerability

    Correct Answer
    C. Attacks that exploit vulnerabilities to gain access to sensitive information
  • 11. 

    Nov 30 11:00:24 EST: %SYS-5-CONFIG-I: Configured from console by vty0 (10.64.2.2) Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

    • A.

      This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition

    • B.

      This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed

    • C.

      This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

    • D.

      This is an error message indicating the system is unusable

    Correct Answer
    A. This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition
    Explanation
    The message indicates that the configuration was changed from the console by a virtual terminal (vty0) with the IP address 10.64.2.2. This is a normal but significant event as it shows that a configuration change was made. It does not indicate any immediate action needed, warning conditions, or that the system is unusable. Therefore, the correct answer is that this is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

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  • 12. 

    Which three major subpolicies should comprise a comprehensive security policy that meets the security needs of a typical enterprise? (Choose three)

    • A.

      End-user policies

    • B.

      Departmental policies

    • C.

      Governing policies

    • D.

      Human resource policies

    • E.

      Organizational policies

    • F.

      Technical policies

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. End-user policies
    C. Governing policies
    F. Technical policies
    Explanation
    A comprehensive security policy for a typical enterprise should include end-user policies, governing policies, and technical policies. End-user policies outline the acceptable use of technology and systems by employees, ensuring that they understand their responsibilities in maintaining security. Governing policies establish the rules and procedures for managing and enforcing security measures across the organization. Technical policies focus on the specific technical controls and configurations that are necessary to protect the organization's assets and data. By incorporating these three subpolicies, an enterprise can address both the human and technical aspects of security, ensuring a well-rounded and comprehensive approach.

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  • 13. 

    R1(config)# logging host 10.1.1.17 R1(config)# logging trap errors R1(config)# logging source-interface loopback 0 R1(config)# logging on Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the commands that are shown on router R1. At what trap level is the logging function set?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    The logging function on router R1 is set at trap level 3. This is indicated by the command "logging trap errors" which sets the logging level to errors.

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  • 14. 

    14. Which mitigation technique can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks?

    • A.

      Root guard

    • B.

      BPDU guard

    • C.

      Storm control

    • D.

      Switchport security

    Correct Answer
    D. Switchport security
    Explanation
    Switchport security is a mitigation technique that can help prevent MAC table overflow attacks. Switchport security allows the network administrator to limit the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a switch port. By setting a maximum limit, the switch can prevent an attacker from flooding the switch with fake MAC addresses, which can lead to a MAC table overflow attack. This technique ensures that only authorized devices are allowed to connect to the network, reducing the risk of MAC table overflow attacks.

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  • 15. 

    15. An organization requires that individual users be authorized to issue specific Cisco IOS commands. Which AAA protocols support this requirement?  

    • A.

      TACACS+ because it separates authentication and authorization, allowing for more customization.

    • B.

      RADIUS because it supports multiple protocols, including ARA and NetBEUI.

    • C.

      TACACS+ because it supports extensive accounting on a per-user or per-group basis.

    • D.

      RADIUS because it implements authentication and authorization as one process.

    Correct Answer
    D. RADIUS because it implements authentication and authorization as one process.
    Explanation
    RADIUS is the correct answer because it implements authentication and authorization as one process. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization steps, allowing for a streamlined and efficient process. This protocol is commonly used in network environments to control access to resources and ensure that individual users are authorized to issue specific commands.

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  • 16. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IPS configuration that is provided, which statement is true?

    • A.

      The signatures in all categories will be retired and not be used by the IPS.

    • B.

      The signatures in all categories will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.

    • C.

      Only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.

    • D.

      The signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be retired and the remaining signatures will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.

    Correct Answer
    C. Only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS.
    Explanation
    Based on the provided IPS configuration, only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory and used by the IPS. This means that the IPS will only utilize the signatures that belong to the ios_ips basic category, while the signatures in other categories will not be used and will be retired.

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  • 17. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the provided configuration, which traffic will be examined by the IPS that is configured on router R1?

    • A.

      Traffic that is initiated from LAN 1 and LAN 2

    • B.

      Http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1

    • C.

      Return traffic from the web server

    • D.

      Traffic that is destined to LAN 1 and LAN 2

    • E.

      No traffic will be inspected

    Correct Answer
    B. Http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1
    Explanation
    The IPS on router R1 will only examine http traffic that is initiated from LAN 1. This means that any http traffic originating from LAN 1 will be inspected by the IPS for any potential threats or vulnerabilities. The IPS will not inspect any other types of traffic or traffic from other sources, such as LAN 2 or return traffic from the web server.

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  • 18. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring ZPF using the SDM Basic Firewall Configuration wizard. Which command is generated after the administrator selects the Finish button?

    • A.

      Zone security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0

    • B.

      Zone security Out-zone on interface S0/0/0

    • C.

      Zone member security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0

    • D.

      Zone member security Out-zone on interface s0/0/0

    Correct Answer
    C. Zone member security Out-zone on interface Fa0/0
  • 19. 

    Which two statements describe appropriate general guidelines for configuring and applying ACLs? (Choose two)

    • A.

      Multiple ACLs per protocol and per direction can be applied to an interface.

    • B.

      If an ACL contains no permit statements, all traffic is denied by default.

    • C.

      The most specific ACL statements should be entered first because of the top-down sequential nature of ACLs.

    • D.

      Standard ACLs are placed closest to the source, whereas Extended ACLs are placed closest to the destination.

    • E.

      If a single ACL is to be applied to multiple interfaces, it must be configured with a unique number for each interface.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. If an ACL contains no permit statements, all traffic is denied by default.
    C. The most specific ACL statements should be entered first because of the top-down sequential nature of ACLs.
    Explanation
    The first statement explains that if an Access Control List (ACL) does not have any permit statements, it will deny all traffic by default. This means that unless explicitly allowed by a permit statement, all traffic will be blocked.

    The second statement states that the most specific ACL statements should be entered first. This is because ACLs are evaluated in a top-down sequential manner, and the first matching statement will be applied. By entering the most specific statements first, it ensures that they are evaluated before more general statements, allowing for more precise control over traffic filtering.

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  • 20. 

    Choose three) Which three statements are characteristics of the IPsec protocol?

    • A.

      IPsec is a framework of open standards.

    • B.

      IPsec is implemented at Layer 4 of the OSI model.

    • C.

      IPsec ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm.

    • D.

      IPsec uses digital certificates to guarantee confidentiality

    • E.

      IPsec is bound to specific encryption algorithms, such as 3DES and AES.

    • F.

      IPsec authenticates users and devices that communicate independently.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. IPsec is a framework of open standards.
    C. IPsec ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm.
    E. IPsec is bound to specific encryption algorithms, such as 3DES and AES.
    Explanation
    The given answer states that IPsec is a framework of open standards, which means it is not tied to any specific vendor or technology. IPsec ensures data integrity by using a hash algorithm, which means it verifies that the data has not been tampered with during transmission. IPsec is also bound to specific encryption algorithms, such as 3DES and AES, which means it uses these algorithms to encrypt the data for secure transmission. These three statements accurately describe the characteristics of the IPsec protocol.

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  • 21. 

    Which three additional precautions should be taken when remote access is required in addition to local access of networking devices? (Choose three)

    • A.

      A legal notice should not be displayed when access is obtained.

    • B.

      All activity to the specified ports that are required for access should be unrestricted.

    • C.

      All configuration activities should required the use of SSH or HTTPS.

    • D.

      All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network.

    • E.

      The number of failed login attempts should not be limited, but the time between attempts should.

    • F.

      Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain access.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. All configuration activities should required the use of SSH or HTTPS.
    D. All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network.
    F. Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain access.
    Explanation
    The three additional precautions that should be taken when remote access is required are:
    1) All configuration activities should require the use of SSH or HTTPS, which are secure protocols that encrypt data during transmission.
    2) All administrative traffic should be dedicated to the management network, ensuring that it is separate from regular user traffic and reducing the risk of unauthorized access.
    3) Packet filtering should be required so that only identified administration hosts and protocols can gain access, adding an extra layer of security by limiting access to trusted sources and specific protocols.

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  • 22. 

    Which statement describes a factor to be considered when configuring a zone-based policy firewall?

    • A.

      An interface can belong to multiple zones.

    • B.

      The router always filters the traffic between interfaces in the same zone.

    • C.

      The router always filters the traffic between interfaces in the same zone.

    • D.

      A zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command.

    Correct Answer
    D. A zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command.
    Explanation
    When configuring a zone-based policy firewall, a factor to be considered is that a zone must be configured with the zone security global command before it can be used in the zone-member security command. This means that before assigning interfaces to a specific zone, the zone itself must be defined using the zone security global command. Only then can the zone be used in the zone-member security command to assign interfaces to the zone.

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  • 23. 

    What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?

    • A.

      The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command.

    • B.

      The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.

    • C.

      The Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM.

    • D.

      When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secure FTP location

    Correct Answer
    A. The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command.
    Explanation
    Securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature ensures that the image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command. This means that unauthorized users or attackers cannot easily access or tamper with the IOS image file. It adds an extra layer of security to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the IOS image.

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  • 24. 

    What are three common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three)

    • A.

      Authenticating administrator access to the router console port, and vty ports

    • B.

      Authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections

    • C.

      Implementing public key infrastructure to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using digital certificates

    • D.

      Implementing command authorization with TACACS+

    • E.

      Securing the router by locking down all unused services

    • F.

      Tracking Cisco Netflow accounting statistics

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Authenticating administrator access to the router console port, and vty ports
    B. Authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections
    D. Implementing command authorization with TACACS+
    Explanation
    The correct answer is authenticating administrator access to the router console port and vty ports, authenticating remote users accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections, and implementing command authorization with TACACS+. These are common examples of AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) implementation on Cisco routers. AAA provides a centralized method for managing and controlling access to network resources. By authenticating administrators and remote users, and implementing command authorization, the router ensures that only authorized individuals can access and make changes to the network. This helps enhance security and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information.

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  • 25. 

    When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded?

    • A.

      The violation mode for the port is set to restrict.

    • B.

      The MAC address table is cleared, and the new MAC address is entered into the table.

    • C.

      The port remains enabled, but the bandwidth is throttled until the old MAC addresses are aged out.

    • D.

      The port is shut down.

    Correct Answer
    D. The port is shut down.
    Explanation
    When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch and the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses is exceeded, the default action is to shut down the port. This means that any device connected to the port will lose network connectivity until the issue is resolved. Shutting down the port helps to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network and ensures network security.

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  • 26. 

    Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework? (Choose three)

    • A.

      AH uses IP protocol 51.

    • B.

      AH provides encryption and integrity.

    • C.

      AH provides integrity and authentication.

    • D.

      ESP uses UDP protocol 50.

    • E.

      ESP requires both authentication and encryption.

    • F.

      ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. AH uses IP protocol 51.
    C. AH provides integrity and authentication.
    F. ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AH uses IP protocol 51, AH provides integrity and authentication, and ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity. The IPsec protocol framework consists of two main protocols: AH (Authentication Header) and ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload). AH uses IP protocol 51 to provide integrity and authentication for IP packets. ESP, on the other hand, provides encryption, authentication, and integrity for IP packets and uses UDP protocol 50. Therefore, the correct statements are AH uses IP protocol 51, AH provides integrity and authentication, and ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.

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  • 27. 

    Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levels for assigning command authorization? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router.

    • B.

      The root user must be assigned to each privilege level defined.

    • C.

      Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users

    • D.

      Views are required to define the CLI commands that each user can access.

    • E.

      Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process

    • F.

      It is required that all 16 privilege levels be defined, whether they are used

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. There is no access control to specific interfaces on a router.
    C. Commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users
    E. Creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process
    Explanation
    The first statement explains that using privilege levels for assigning command authorization does not provide access control to specific interfaces on a router. The second statement states that commands set on a higher privilege level are not available for lower privileged users. The sixth statement mentions that creating a user account that needs access to most but not all commands can be a tedious process. These limitations highlight the drawbacks of using privilege levels for command authorization.

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  • 28. 

    Which Cisco IOS configuration option instructs the IPS to compile a signature category named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic?  

    • A.

      R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false

    • B.

      R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false

    • C.

      R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category all R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true

    • D.

      R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# enabled true

    Correct Answer
    B. R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false
    Explanation
    The correct answer is R1(config)# ip ips signature-category R1(config-ips-category)# category ios_ips basic R1(config-ips-category-action)# retired false. This answer is correct because it shows the correct command sequence to configure the IPS to compile a signature category named ios_ips into memory and use it to scan traffic.

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  • 29. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured router R1 as indicated. However, SDEE messages fail to log. Which solution corrects this problem?

    • A.

      Issue the logging on command in global configuration.

    • B.

      Issue the ip ips notify sdee command in global configuration.

    • C.

      Issue the ip audit notify log command in global configuration.

    • D.

      Issue the clear ip ips sdee events command to clear the SDEE buffer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Issue the ip ips notify sdee command in global configuration.
    Explanation
    The problem is that SDEE messages are not logging. To enable the logging of SDEE messages, the "ip ips notify sdee" command needs to be issued in global configuration. This command enables the router to send SDEE notifications to the configured IP address.

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  • 30. 

    Which three principles are enabled by a Cisco Self-Defending Network? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Adaptability

    • B.

      Collaboration

    • C.

      Insulation

    • D.

      Integration

    • E.

      Mitigation

    • F.

      Scalability

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Adaptability
    B. Collaboration
    D. Integration
    Explanation
    A Cisco Self-Defending Network enables three principles: adaptability, collaboration, and integration. Adaptability refers to the network's ability to quickly respond and adapt to changing threats and conditions. Collaboration involves the network's ability to work together with other security components to provide a comprehensive defense. Integration refers to the network's ability to seamlessly integrate security measures throughout the network infrastructure. These three principles work together to create a robust and effective defense against threats.

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  • 31. 

    What are two disadvantages of using network IPS?(Choose two.)

    • A.

      Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful.

    • B.

      Network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic.

    • C.

      Network IPS is operating system-dependent and must be customized for each platform.

    • D.

      Network IPS is unable to provide a clear indication of the extent to which the network is being attacked.

    • E.

      Network IPS sensors are difficult to deploy whennew networks are added.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful.
    B. Network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic.
    Explanation
    One disadvantage of using network IPS is that it has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful. This means that if an attacker sends fragmented packets, the network IPS may not be able to fully analyze and detect the attack. Another disadvantage is that network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic. This means that if an attacker encrypts their malicious traffic, the network IPS will not be able to inspect it and detect any potential threats.

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  • 32. 

    Which access list statement permits HTTP traffic that is sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 4300 and destined to host 192.168.30.10?

    • A.

      Access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 4300

    • B.

      Access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255

    • C.

      Access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.30.10 0.0.0.0 eq www

    • D.

      Access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www

    • E.

      Access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.168.30.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 4300

    Correct Answer
    D. Access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 4300 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.15 eq www". This statement allows TCP traffic from the source IP address 10.1.129.100 with a source port of 4300 to the destination IP address 192.168.30.10. The source IP address range is 10.1.128.0 to 10.1.129.255, and the destination IP address range is 192.168.30.0 to 192.168.30.15. The destination port is specified as www, which is port 80.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of SDM rule is created to govern the traffic that can enter and leave the network based on protocol and port number?

    • A.

      NAC rule

    • B.

      NAT rule

    • C.

      IPsec rule

    • D.

      Access rule

    Correct Answer
    D. Access rule
    Explanation
    An access rule is created to govern the traffic that can enter and leave the network based on protocol and port number. This rule allows or denies access to specific network resources based on predefined conditions, such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and port number. It helps in controlling and managing network traffic by enforcing security policies and ensuring that only authorized traffic is allowed to pass through the network.

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  • 34. 

    Refer to the exhibit. When configuring SSH on a router using SDM from the Configure menu, which two steps are required? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH to generate the RSA keys.

    • B.

      Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY to specify SSH as the input and output protocol.

    • C.

      Choose Additional Tasks > Router Properties > Netflow to generate the RSA keys.

    • D.

      Choose Additional Tasks > Router Properties > Logging to specify SSH as the input and output protocol.

    • E.

      Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > AAA to generate the RSA keys.

    • F.

      Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > Management Access to specify SSH as the input and output protocol

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH to generate the RSA keys.
    B. Choose Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY to specify SSH as the input and output protocol.
    Explanation
    To configure SSH on a router using SDM, the first step is to generate the RSA keys by choosing Additional Tasks > Router Access > SSH. This step is necessary to enable secure communication between the router and the SSH client. The second step is to specify SSH as the input and output protocol for the VTY lines by choosing Additional Tasks > Router Access > VTY. This step ensures that SSH is used for remote management access to the router.

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  • 35. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct regarding the configuration on switch S1? (Choose two

    • A.

      Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth.

    • B.

      Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts and broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.

    • C.

      Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.

    • D.

      Port Fa0/5 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth.

    • E.

      Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts and multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of 2,000,000 packets per second.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Port Fa0/5 storm control for broadcasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth.
    C. Port Fa0/6 storm control for multicasts will be activated if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer states that on switch S1, storm control for broadcasts will be activated on port Fa0/5 if traffic exceeds 80.1 percent of the total bandwidth. Additionally, storm control for multicasts will be activated on port Fa0/6 if traffic exceeds 2,000,000 packets per second. This means that the switch has been configured to monitor the traffic on these specific ports and activate storm control measures if the defined thresholds are exceeded. Storm control helps prevent network congestion and performance issues by limiting the amount of broadcast and multicast traffic on the network.

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  • 36. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which three things occur if a user attempts to log in four times within 10 seconds using an incorrect password? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Subsequent virtual login attempts from the user are blocked for 60 seconds.

    • B.

      During the quiet mode, an administrator can virtually log in from any host on network 172.16.1.0/24.

    • C.

      Subsequent console login attempts are blocked for 60 seconds.

    • D.

      A message is generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user.

    • E.

      During the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.

    • F.

      No user can log in virtually from any host for 60 seconds.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Subsequent virtual login attempts from the user are blocked for 60 seconds.
    D. A message is generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user.
    E. During the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.
    Explanation
    If a user attempts to log in four times within 10 seconds using an incorrect password, three things will occur. First, subsequent virtual login attempts from the user will be blocked for 60 seconds. Second, a message will be generated indicating the username and source IP address of the user. Finally, during the quiet mode, an administrator can log in from host 172.16.1.2.

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  • 37. 

    . Which type of Layer 2 attack makes a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN?

    • A.

      LAN storm

    • B.

      MAC address spoofing

    • C.

      MAC address table overflow

    • D.

      STP manipulation

    • E.

      VLAN attack

    Correct Answer
    D. STP manipulation
    Explanation
    STP manipulation is the correct answer because it refers to the act of manipulating the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to make a host appear as the root bridge for a LAN. By doing this, the host can gain control over the network and potentially intercept or manipulate network traffic. This type of Layer 2 attack can be used to bypass network security measures and gain unauthorized access to network resources.

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  • 38. 

    What occurs after RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router to prepare for secure device management?

    • A.

      All vty ports are automatically configured for SSH to provide secure management.

    • B.

      The general-purpose key size must be specified for authentication with the crypto key generate rsa general-keys mo command.

    • C.

      The keys must be zeroized to reset secure shell before configuring other parameters.

    • D.

      The generated keys can be used by SSH.

    Correct Answer
    D. The generated keys can be used by SSH.
    Explanation
    After RSA keys are generated on a Cisco router, the generated keys can be used by SSH. This means that the router can now use the generated keys for secure device management using SSH.

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  • 39. 

    An organization has mobile workers who usecorporate-owned laptops at customer sites to view inventory and place orders.Which type of VPN allows these workers to securely access all of theclient/server applications of the organization?

    • A.

      Clientless SSL VPN

    • B.

      Remote-access IPsec VPN

    • C.

      Site-to-site IPsec VPN

    • D.

      HTTPS-enabled SSL VPN

    Correct Answer
    B. Remote-access IPsec VPN
    Explanation
    A remote-access IPsec VPN allows mobile workers to securely access all of the client/server applications of the organization. This type of VPN creates a secure tunnel between the mobile worker's laptop and the organization's network, allowing them to securely access resources and applications. It provides encryption and authentication to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted.

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  • 40. 

    Which two guidelines relate to in-band networkmanagement? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Apply in-band management only to devices that must be managed on the production network.

    • B.

      Implement separate network segments for the production network and the management network.

    • C.

      Attach all network devices to the same management network.

    • D.

      Use IPSec, SSH,or SSL

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Apply in-band management only to devices that must be managed on the production network.
    D. Use IPSec, SSH,or SSL
    Explanation
    The first guideline suggests that in-band management should only be applied to devices that need to be managed on the production network. This means that not all devices on the network need to be managed in this way, only the ones that are necessary for production purposes. The second guideline recommends implementing separate network segments for the production network and the management network. This is to ensure that the management network is isolated and secure from the production network. The use of IPSec, SSH, or SSL is also recommended to enhance the security of the in-band management process.

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  • 41. 

    Which three commands are required to configure SSH ona Cisco router? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Ip domain-name name in global configuration mode

    • B.

      Transport input ssh on a vty line

    • C.

      No ip domain-lookup in global configuration mode

    • D.

      Passwordpassword on a vty line

    • E.

      Service password-encryption in global configuration mode

    • F.

      Crypto keygenerate rsa in global configuration mode

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ip domain-name name in global configuration mode
    B. Transport input ssh on a vty line
    F. Crypto keygenerate rsa in global configuration mode
    Explanation
    To configure SSH on a Cisco router, the following three commands are required:

    1. "ip domain-name name" in global configuration mode: This command sets the domain name used for generating the RSA key for SSH encryption.

    2. "transport input ssh" on a vty line: This command enables SSH as the transport protocol for remote management access.

    3. "crypto key generate rsa" in global configuration mode: This command generates the RSA key pair used for SSH encryption.

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  • 42. 

    Anadministrator needs to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. Which privilege command is used to create this custom account?

    • A.

      Privilege exec level 0

    • B.

      Privilege exec level 1

    • C.

      Privilege exec level 2

    • D.

      Privilege exec level 15

    Correct Answer
    C. Privilege exec level 2
    Explanation
    The privilege exec level 2 command is used to create a user account with custom access to most privileged EXEC commands. This command sets the privilege level for the user account to 2, which allows the user to access a wide range of commands and functions on the device.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configureda standard ACL on R1 and applied it to interface serial 0/0/0 in the outbounddirection. What happens to traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 that does notmatch the configured ACL statements?

    • A.

      The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address.

    • B.

      The resulting action is determined by the destination IP address and portnumber.

    • C.

      The source IP address is checked and, if a match is not found, traffic isrouted out interface serial 0/0/1.

    • D.

      The traffic is dropped

    Correct Answer
    D. The traffic is dropped
    Explanation
    If the traffic leaving interface serial 0/0/0 does not match the configured ACL statements, the resulting action is that the traffic is dropped. This means that the traffic will not be forwarded or routed to its destination, and it will be discarded or ignored by the device.

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  • 44. 

    Which statement describes configuring ACLs to controlTelnet traffic destined to the router itself?

    • A.

      The ACL must be applied to each vty line individually.

    • B.

      The ACL is applied to the Telnet port with the ip access-group command.

    • C.

      Apply the ACL to the vty lines without thein orout option required when applying ACLs to interfaces.

    • D.

      The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in thein direction to prevent anunwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port.

    Correct Answer
    D. The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in thein direction to prevent anunwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the ACL should be applied to all vty lines in the in direction to prevent an unwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port. This means that the ACL should be configured to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself, specifically on the virtual terminal lines (vty lines). By applying the ACL in the in direction on all vty lines, any Telnet traffic coming into the router will be filtered and unwanted users will be prevented from accessing the router through an unsecured port.

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  • 45. 

    Which three statements describe SSL-based VPNs? (Choose three.)  

    • A.

      A symmetric algorithms are used for authentication and key exchange.

    • B.

      It is impossible to configure SSL and IPsec VPNs concurrently on the samerouter.

    • C.

      Special-purpose client software is required on the client machine.

    • D.

      Symmetric algorithms are used for bulk encryption.

    • E.

      The authentication process uses hashing technologies.

    • F.

      The application programming interface is used to extensively modify the SSLclient software.

    • G.

      The primary restriction of SSL VPNs is that they are currently supported onlyin hardware.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A symmetric algorithms are used for authentication and key exchange.
    D. Symmetric algorithms are used for bulk encryption.
    E. The authentication process uses hashing technologies.
    Explanation
    SSL-based VPNs use symmetric algorithms for authentication and key exchange, which ensures secure communication between the client and server. These algorithms are also used for bulk encryption, providing confidentiality for the transmitted data. The authentication process in SSL-based VPNs involves the use of hashing technologies, which verify the identity of the client and server. Special-purpose client software is required on the client machine to establish a secure connection. SSL VPNs are not limited to hardware and can be implemented in software as well.

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  • 46. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What information can be obtained from the AAAconfiguration statements?

    • A.

      The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS.

    • B.

      The authentication method list used by the consoleport is named ACCESS.

    • C.

      The local database is checked first whenauthenticating console and Telnet access to the router.

    • D.

      If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, nousers can establish a Telnet session with the router.

    • E.

      If the TACACS+ AAA server is not available, consoleaccess to the router can be authenticated using the local database.

    Correct Answer
    A. The authentication method list used for Telnet is named ACCESS.
    Explanation
    The AAA configuration statements provide information about the authentication method list used for Telnet, which is named ACCESS. This suggests that when users attempt to access the router through Telnet, their authentication will be checked against the ACCESS method list.

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  • 47. 

    Which two Cisco IPSmanagement and monitoring tools are examples of GUI-based, centrally managedIPS solutions? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Cisco Adaptive Security Device Manager

    • B.

      Cisco IPS Device Manager

    • C.

      Cisco Router and Security Device Manager

    • D.

      Cisco Security Manager

    • E.

      Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System.

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Cisco Security Manager
    E. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System.
    Explanation
    Cisco Security Manager and Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System are both examples of GUI-based, centrally managed IPS solutions. Cisco Security Manager provides a centralized platform for managing and configuring security policies across multiple devices, including IPS. Cisco Security Monitoring, Analysis, and Response System (Cisco Security MARS) is a comprehensive security information and event management (SIEM) solution that provides real-time monitoring, analysis, and reporting of security events from various sources, including IPS devices. Both tools offer a user-friendly graphical interface for managing and monitoring IPS solutions.

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  • 48. 

    Refer to the exhibit.Which AAA function and protocol is in use in the network?

    • A.

      The client is authorizing commands using the TACACS+protocol.

    • B.

      The client is authorizing commands using the RADIUS protocol.

    • C.

      The client is authenticating using the RADIUS protocol.

    • D.

      The client is authenticating using the TACACS+protocol

    Correct Answer
    D. The client is authenticating using the TACACS+protocol
    Explanation
    The given exhibit indicates that the client is using the TACACS+ protocol for authentication. This can be inferred from the statement "The client is authenticating using the TACACS+ protocol." Therefore, the correct answer is that the client is authenticating using the TACACS+ protocol.

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  • 49. 

    Which three OSI layers can be filtered by a stateful firewall? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Layer 2

    • B.

      Layer 3

    • C.

      Layer 4

    • D.

      Layer 5

    • E.

      Layer 6

    • F.

      Layer 7

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Layer 3
    C. Layer 4
    D. Layer 5
    Explanation
    A stateful firewall is able to filter traffic based on the information in the TCP and UDP headers, which are part of Layer 4 of the OSI model. It can also filter based on the IP addresses, which are part of Layer 3. Layer 5, the session layer, is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between applications, so it is also possible for a stateful firewall to filter at this layer. Therefore, the correct answer is Layer 3, Layer 4, and Layer 5.

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  • 50. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the SDM screenshown, which two actions will the signature take if an attack is detected?(Choose two.)

    • A.

      Reset the TCP connection to terminate the TCP flow.

    • B.

      Drop the packet and all future packets from thisTCP flow.

    • C.

      Generatean alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server.

    • D.

      Drop the packet and permit remaining packets from this TCP flow.

    • E.

      Create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Generatean alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server.
    E. Create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address.
    Explanation
    Based on the SDM screenshot, the signature will generate an alarm message that can be sent to a syslog server because it is enabled in the "Action" column. Additionally, it will create an ACL that denies traffic from the attacker IP address because it is also enabled in the "Action" column.

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