CCNA Security Final Exam Quiz

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1. 58. What are two protocols that are used by AAA to authenticate users against a central database of usernames and password? (Choose two.)

Explanation

TACACS+ and RADIUS are two protocols used by AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) to authenticate users against a central database of usernames and passwords. TACACS+ provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting functions, while RADIUS combines authentication and authorization. These protocols ensure secure access to network resources by verifying user credentials against a central database, preventing unauthorized access.

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About This Quiz
CCNA Security Final Exam Quiz - Quiz

It’s quite possibly the most important thing you could know about when studying the topic of networking – security is vital for any network that’s passing information and... see moredata from one location to another, to make sure it reaches its destination untouched by any outside source. What can you tell us about it in this final exam?
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2. 31. A network administrator configures the alert generation of an IPS device in such a way that when multiple attack packets that match the same signature are detected, a single alert for the first packet is generated and the remaining duplicate alarms are counted, but not sent, for a specific time period. When the specified time period is reached, an alert is sent that indicates the number of alarms that occurred during the time interval. What kind of alert generation pattern is configured?

Explanation

The network administrator has configured the alert generation of the IPS device to generate a single alert for the first packet that matches a specific signature. Any subsequent packets that match the same signature are not sent as individual alerts, but are instead counted. After a specified time period, an alert is sent indicating the number of alarms that occurred during that time interval. This configuration is known as "summary alerts," where multiple alarms are summarized and reported as a single alert.

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3. 80. Place the system development cycle (SDLC) phases in the order they occur (Not all options are used) 1st -> Initiation2nd -> Acqusition and Development3rd -> Implementation4th -> Operations and Maintenance5th -> Disposition

Explanation

The correct order of the system development cycle (SDLC) phases is as follows: initiation, acquisition and development, implementation, operations and maintenance, and disposition. This means that the phases occur in the order of initiation, followed by acquisition and development, implementation, operations and maintenance, and finally disposition.

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4. 81. Fill in the blank.
When role-based CLI is used, only the _____________ view has the ability to add or remove commands from existing views.

Explanation

When role-based CLI is used, only the "Root" view has the ability to add or remove commands from existing views. This means that only the highest level of access, which is the root level, has the authority to modify the commands available in other views. Other roles or views may have limited permissions and restrictions, but the root view holds the ultimate control over the commands in the CLI.

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5. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB but is unable to gain Telnet access to the router by using the password cisco123. What is a possible cause of the problem?

Explanation

The possible cause of the problem is that the password cisco123 is wrong. This means that the administrator is using an incorrect password to gain Telnet access to RouterB.

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6. 11. What is a type of SSL VPN that provides access to a network without requiring VPN software or a Java applet on the client?

Explanation

Clientless mode is a type of SSL VPN that allows users to access a network without the need for VPN software or a Java applet on the client device. In this mode, users can connect to the network using only a web browser, eliminating the need for additional software installations. This provides a convenient and streamlined approach to VPN access, as users can securely connect to the network from any device with a web browser, without the need for specific VPN client software.

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7. 22. How would a network security professional mitigate a DoS attack?

Explanation

A network security professional would mitigate a DoS (Denial of Service) attack by including a firewall and IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) in the network security design. A firewall acts as a barrier between the internal network and external threats, filtering and blocking unauthorized access. An IPS monitors network traffic, detects and prevents malicious activities, including DoS attacks. By implementing these measures, the network security professional can effectively prevent and mitigate the impact of a DoS attack on the network.

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8. 2. With the Cisco AnyConnect VPN wizard, which two protocols can be used for tunnel group configuration? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The Cisco AnyConnect VPN wizard allows the use of SSH and IPsec protocols for tunnel group configuration. SSH (Secure Shell) provides a secure remote login and command execution, making it suitable for secure access to network devices. IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a suite of protocols that provide secure communication over IP networks, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, and authentication of data. These protocols are commonly used in VPN configurations to establish secure connections between remote users and the network.

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9. 27. What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?

Explanation

The "no service password-recovery" command disables the ability to access ROMMON. ROMMON (ROM Monitor) is a low-level software that runs on Cisco devices, allowing users to recover passwords or perform other troubleshooting tasks. By disabling this command, users will no longer be able to access ROMMON, limiting their ability to recover passwords or perform any other actions that require ROMMON access.

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10. 48. Which security feature would be commonly implemented as part of a large enterprise wireless policy but would not typically be used in a small office/home office network?

Explanation

Using an authentication server would be commonly implemented as part of a large enterprise wireless policy but would not typically be used in a small office/home office network. An authentication server is used to centrally manage and control user access to the wireless network, providing a higher level of security and control. In a large enterprise, where there are multiple users and devices accessing the network, it is important to have a centralized authentication mechanism. However, in a small office/home office network, where the number of users and devices is limited, using an authentication server may not be necessary or cost-effective.

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11. 49. Which two commands are needed on every IPv6 ACL to allow IPv6 neighbor discovery? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct answer is "permit icmp any any nd-ns" and "permit icmp any any nd-na". These two commands allow ICMP Neighbor Discovery Neighbor Solicitation (nd-ns) and Neighbor Advertisement (nd-na) messages to pass through the IPv6 ACL. Neighbor Discovery is an essential protocol in IPv6 that allows devices to discover and communicate with other devices on the same network. By permitting these ICMP messages, the ACL ensures that neighbor discovery functions properly in the IPv6 network.

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12. 39. Which security policy component would contain procedures for handling an issue where someone followed a network administrator into the server room without the administrator noticing and the person removed some storage drives?

Explanation

The correct answer is security policy. A security policy is a document that outlines the guidelines and procedures for ensuring the security of an organization's assets, including physical security. It would contain procedures for handling security incidents such as unauthorized access to the server room and the removal of storage drives. This policy would help establish protocols for preventing and responding to such incidents to protect sensitive information and maintain the integrity of the network.

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13. 18. What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?

Explanation

The best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack is to disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access ports. By doing this, the network administrator can ensure that only authorized devices can access the VLANs. Trunk negotiation should be disabled to prevent unauthorized devices from negotiating a trunk connection and gaining access to multiple VLANs. Statically setting nontrunk ports as access ports ensures that these ports can only access a single VLAN, further preventing unauthorized access.

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14. 55. Two devices that are connected to the same switch need to be totally isolated from one another. Which Cisco switch security feature will provide this isolation?

Explanation

PVLAN Edge is a Cisco switch security feature that provides isolation between two devices connected to the same switch. PVLAN Edge allows the switch to treat each device as if it is connected to a separate switch, preventing communication between the two devices. This feature ensures that the devices are completely isolated from each other, enhancing network security and preventing unauthorized access or communication.

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15. 17. What is a difference between ASA IPv4 ACLs and IOS IPv4 ACLs?

Explanation

ASA ACLs use the subnet mask in defining a network, whereas IOS ACLs use the wildcard mask. Subnet masks are used to determine the network portion of an IP address, while wildcard masks are used to specify which bits in the IP address should be matched. This means that ASA ACLs are more specific in defining the network, as they require an exact match of the subnet mask. On the other hand, IOS ACLs provide more flexibility by allowing the use of wildcard masks, which can match multiple subnets or ranges of IP addresses.

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16. 24. Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to use in establishing an IPsec VPN?

Explanation

DH (Diffie-Hellman) algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to use in establishing an IPsec VPN. DES (Data Encryption Standard), 3DES (Triple Data Encryption Standard), ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload), AH (Authentication Header), and SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) are all encryption protocols or algorithms, but they are not specifically used for generating shared secrets in IPsec VPNs.

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17. 13. What is the main difference between the implementation of IDS and IPS devices?

Explanation

The main difference between the implementation of IDS and IPS devices is that an IDS would allow malicious traffic to pass before it is addressed, whereas an IPS stops it immediately. This means that an IDS is more passive in nature, detecting and alerting about malicious activity but not taking immediate action to prevent it. On the other hand, an IPS actively blocks and prevents malicious traffic from entering the network, providing a higher level of security.

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18. 19. Why have corporations been shifting remote access security policies to include support for ASA SSL VPNs?

Explanation

Corporations have been shifting remote access security policies to include support for ASA SSL VPNs in order to support secure access for users on a multitude of devices. This is because ASA SSL VPNs provide a secure and encrypted connection for users accessing the corporate network remotely, regardless of the device they are using. By implementing ASA SSL VPNs, corporations can ensure that employees can securely access company resources from various devices, such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets, without compromising the security of the network.

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19. 9. What is an advantage of using SSL VPNs compared to IPsec VPNs on an ASA?

Explanation

SSL VPNs do not require any pre-installed client software, which is an advantage compared to IPsec VPNs on an ASA. This means that users can access the VPN without having to install any additional software on their devices, making it more convenient and user-friendly. It also reduces the complexity and potential compatibility issues that may arise from requiring client software installations.

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20. 32. Which STP port type is permitted to forward traffic, but is not the port closest to the root bridge?

Explanation

A designated port is a port on a non-root bridge that is selected to forward traffic towards the root bridge. While the root port is the port on a non-root bridge that is closest to the root bridge and is responsible for forwarding traffic towards it, the designated port is also permitted to forward traffic but may not be the closest port to the root bridge. Therefore, the designated port is the correct answer.

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21. 6. When configuring router security, which statement describes the most effective way to use ACLs to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself?

Explanation

The most effective way to use ACLs to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself is to apply the ACL to all vty lines in the in direction. This prevents unwanted users from connecting to an unsecured port and ensures that only authorized users can access the router through Telnet. Applying the ACL to the vty lines without the in or out option, as mentioned in the first option, is incorrect because it does not specify the direction of traffic. Applying the ACL to the Telnet port with the ip access-group command, as mentioned in the second option, is also incorrect because the ACL needs to be applied to the vty lines, not the specific port. Applying the ACL to each vty line individually, as mentioned in the third option, is not necessary because applying it to all vty lines in the in direction achieves the desired control.

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22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

Explanation

The message in the syslog server indicates a normal but significant condition. It is not an alert message that requires immediate action, nor is it an error message indicating that the system is unusable. Additionally, there is no mention of warning conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is that this is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

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23. 14. What information must an IPS track in order to detect attacks matching a composite signature?

Explanation

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) must track the state of packets related to the attack in order to detect attacks matching a composite signature. By monitoring the state of packets, the IPS can analyze the behavior and characteristics of the attack. This includes tracking the sequence of packets, their source and destination, payload content, and any anomalies or patterns that indicate a potential attack. By understanding the state of packets, the IPS can effectively detect and prevent attacks that match a composite signature.

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24. 47. Why does a worm pose a greater threat than a virus poses?

Explanation

Worms are more network-based than viruses because they are designed to spread quickly across computer networks, infecting multiple devices and systems. Unlike viruses, which typically require user interaction or the execution of a program to spread, worms can self-replicate and spread automatically without any user intervention. This makes worms a greater threat as they can rapidly infect a large number of devices and cause widespread damage to network infrastructure.

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25. 75. In a corporate network where SAN is deployed, what happens if the SAN fabric is compromised?

Explanation

If the SAN fabric in a corporate network is compromised, it means that unauthorized individuals or entities have gained access to the storage area network. This can lead to the compromise of sensitive data stored within the SAN. The attackers may be able to access, modify, or steal the data, potentially causing significant damage to the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is that data is compromised.

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26. 64. Fill in the blank.In a syslog implementation, a router that generates and forwards syslog messages is known as a syslog ______

Explanation

In a syslog implementation, a router that generates and forwards syslog messages is known as a syslog client.

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27. 15. What method is used to authenticate SNMPv2 messages between the manager and the agent?

Explanation

Community strings are used to authenticate SNMPv2 messages between the manager and the agent. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a widely used protocol for managing and monitoring network devices. The community string acts as a password or shared secret between the manager and the agent. When a manager sends a request to an agent, it includes the community string. The agent checks if the received community string matches the one configured on its side. If there is a match, the agent accepts the request and responds accordingly. This helps ensure that only authorized managers can access and control the SNMP agent.

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28. 59. Which security organization updates the training material that helps prepare for the Global Information Assurance Certification (GIAC)?

Explanation

SANS is the correct answer because it is a well-known security organization that regularly updates training material for the Global Information Assurance Certification (GIAC). SANS offers a wide range of cybersecurity courses and certifications, and their training material is highly regarded in the industry. They provide up-to-date information and resources to help individuals prepare for the GIAC certification, ensuring that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to excel in the field of information security.

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29. Refer to the exhibit. Which pair of crypto isakmp key commands would correctly configure PSK on the two routers?

Explanation

The correct answer is the pair of commands:

R1# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.227
R2# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.226

This is because the "crypto isakmp key" command is used to configure a pre-shared key (PSK) for IPsec VPN authentication. In this case, the PSK is "ciscopass". The first command configures the PSK on R1 with the IP address of R2 (209.165.200.227), and the second command configures the PSK on R2 with the IP address of R1 (209.165.200.226). This ensures that both routers have the correct PSK configured for authentication when establishing an IPsec VPN tunnel.

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30. 25. What type of security key is generated by the local user software when a user is connecting to a Cisco ASA through a remote-access SSL VPN?

Explanation

When a user is connecting to a Cisco ASA through a remote-access SSL VPN, the local user software generates a shared-secret key. This key is used for authentication and encryption purposes between the user's device and the Cisco ASA. It is called a shared-secret key because it is shared between the user's software and the ASA, allowing them to establish a secure connection.

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31. 74. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator creates three zones (A, B, and C) in an ASA that filters traffic. Traffic originating from Zone A going to Zone C is denied, and traffic originating from Zone B going to Zone C is denied. What is a possible scenario for Zones A, B, and C

Explanation

In this scenario, Zone A is the DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), which typically contains servers or services that are accessible from the internet but separated from the internal network. Zone B is the Outside, which refers to the internet or any external network. Zone C is the Inside, which represents the internal network of an organization. By denying traffic originating from Zone A to Zone C and from Zone B to Zone C, the administrator is ensuring that communication between the DMZ and the Inside network is restricted, providing an additional layer of security.

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32. 35. What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?

Explanation

3DES, also known as Triple Data Encryption Standard, uses the method of encrypting the data, then decrypting it, and finally encrypting it again using three different keys. This process provides a higher level of security compared to regular DES encryption. By applying multiple rounds of encryption and decryption, 3DES enhances the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transmitted or stored.

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33. 16. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?

Explanation

Packet-filtering firewalls typically operate at the network layer of the OSI model, allowing them to filter based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols. They can examine individual packets and make decisions based on this information. On the other hand, stateful firewalls operate at a higher layer, typically the session layer. They can keep track of the state of connections and make decisions based on the context of the entire session. This allows stateful firewalls to have more advanced filtering capabilities compared to packet-filtering firewalls.

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34. 79. A user complains about not being able to gain access to the network. What command would be used by the network administrator to determine which AAA method list is being used for this particular user as the user logs on?

Explanation

The correct answer is "debug aaa authentication". This command would be used by the network administrator to determine which AAA method list is being used for this particular user as they log on. By enabling the "debug aaa authentication" command, the administrator can view the authentication process in real-time, including the AAA method list being used for the user. This can help in troubleshooting and identifying any issues with the authentication process that may be preventing the user from gaining access to the network.

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35. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the classic firewall configuration on the firewall?

Explanation

The correct answer is FW(config)# interface g0/1. This completes the classic firewall configuration by configuring the interface g0/1 with the "ip inspect OUTBOUND in" command to enable outbound traffic inspection and the "ip access-group INSIDE in" command to apply the access group INSIDE to inbound traffic on the interface. This ensures that outbound traffic is inspected and inbound traffic is filtered according to the rules defined in the access group.

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36. 61. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured an ASA 5505 as indicated but is still unable to ping the inside interface from an inside host. What is the cause of this problem?

Explanation

The cause of the problem is that the "no shutdown" command should be entered on interface Ethernet 0/1. This command is used to enable the interface and bring it up. Without this command, the interface will remain in a shutdown state and will not be able to receive or send any traffic. By entering the "no shutdown" command on interface Ethernet 0/1, the interface will be activated and the inside host will be able to ping the inside interface of the ASA 5505.

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37. 40. What question is answered by the risk analysis component of security policy development?

Explanation

The risk analysis component of security policy development answers the question of what is the cost versus benefit analysis of implementing various security technologies. This component evaluates the potential risks and threats faced by the organization and assesses the effectiveness and cost-effectiveness of different security technologies in mitigating those risks. It helps in determining the appropriate allocation of resources and investment in security measures based on the potential benefits and costs associated with each technology.

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38. 78. What is an example of toll fraud?

Explanation

An example of toll fraud is the use of a telephony system to make unauthorized long distance calls. This refers to the act of using someone else's telephony system without permission to make long distance calls, resulting in the unauthorized use of resources and costs for the owner of the system.

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39. 29. What is one benefit of implementing a secure email service by using the Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA)?

Explanation

By implementing a secure email service using the Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA), one benefit is that it obtains real-time updates from the Cisco SIO. This means that the ESA can stay up to date with the latest information and intelligence about potential threats and vulnerabilities. This allows the ESA to effectively protect against new and emerging threats, ensuring that the email service remains secure and protected.

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40. 70. What is one way to prevent attackers from eavesdropping on VoIP conversations?

Explanation

Implementing separate voice VLANs is one way to prevent attackers from eavesdropping on VoIP conversations. By separating voice traffic from other network traffic, voice VLANs ensure that only authorized devices have access to the VoIP conversations. This helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the conversations by preventing unauthorized users from intercepting the traffic.

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41. 46. In deploying an IPS in a corporate network, system operators first create a profile of normal network operation by monitoring network activities in normal network uses. After the profile is incorporated into the IPS triggering mechanism, alarms will be generated when the IPS detects excessive activity that is beyond the scope of the profile. Which signature detection mechanism is deployed?

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is anomaly-based detection. Anomaly-based detection involves creating a profile of normal network behavior by monitoring network activities during typical network usage. This profile is then used by the IPS triggering mechanism to identify any excessive activity that deviates from the normal pattern. When such activity is detected, alarms are generated to alert the system operators. This approach is effective in identifying unknown or new types of attacks that may not have a specific signature or pattern associated with them.

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42. 50. A network technician has been asked to design a virtual private network between two branch routers. Which type of cryptographic key should be used in this scenario?

Explanation

In this scenario, a symmetric key should be used to design a virtual private network between two branch routers. A symmetric key is a single shared key that is used for both encryption and decryption of data. Since the two routers are within the same network, using a symmetric key will provide a more efficient and faster encryption process compared to asymmetric keys. Asymmetric keys involve a pair of keys, one for encryption and another for decryption, which can be more complex and resource-intensive. Therefore, a symmetric key is the most suitable choice for this scenario.

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43. 38. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)

Explanation

A port scan attack aims to achieve three goals. First, it is used to determine potential vulnerabilities in a system by identifying open ports that could be exploited. Second, it helps in identifying the operating system running on the target system, which can provide valuable information for further attacks. Lastly, a port scan is used to identify active services running on the target system, which can help an attacker understand the network infrastructure and potential entry points.

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44. 57. Which security feature helps protect a VoIP system from SPIT attacks?

Explanation

Authenticated TLS helps protect a VoIP system from SPIT (Spam over Internet Telephony) attacks. SPIT attacks involve the flooding of unwanted and unsolicited messages or calls in a VoIP system. Authenticated TLS (Transport Layer Security) ensures secure communication by encrypting data and providing authentication between the parties involved. This prevents unauthorized access, tampering, and eavesdropping, thereby safeguarding the VoIP system from SPIT attacks.

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45. 73. What command must be issued to enable login enhancements on a Cisco router?

Explanation

The command "login block-for" must be issued to enable login enhancements on a Cisco router. This command is used to configure a login block timer, which prevents further login attempts for a specified period after a certain number of failed attempts. By using this command, the router can enhance security by blocking repeated login attempts and protecting against brute force attacks.

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46. 37. Which two security features can cause a switch port to become error-disabled? (Choose two.)

Explanation

PortFast with BPDU guard enabled can cause a switch port to become error-disabled because it detects the presence of a BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) on a PortFast enabled port, which indicates the connection of a switch or bridge. This is a security feature that prevents loops in the network.

Port security with the shutdown violation mode can also cause a switch port to become error-disabled. This feature is used to restrict the number of MAC addresses allowed on a port and if a violation occurs (e.g., when a new MAC address is detected), the port will be shut down to prevent unauthorized access.

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47. 71. A large company deploys several network-based IPS sensors for its headquarters network. Which network service configuration will help the process of correlating attack events happening simultaneously in different points of the network?

Explanation

A centralized NTP (Network Time Protocol) server will help the process of correlating attack events happening simultaneously in different points of the network. NTP ensures that all devices on the network have synchronized and accurate time, which is crucial for accurately correlating events. By having a centralized NTP server, all IPS sensors will be able to reference the same time source, allowing for better correlation and analysis of attack events.

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48. 77. Logging into a computer as the administrator just to surf the web is a violation of which security technique?

Explanation

Logging into a computer as the administrator just to surf the web is a violation of the security technique known as "least privilege." Least privilege principle states that users should only be given the minimum level of access necessary to perform their tasks. By logging in as the administrator, the user has access to all the privileges and resources on the computer, which is unnecessary and increases the risk of unauthorized access or malicious activities. This violates the principle of least privilege.

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49. 3. What are two disadvantages of using network IPS? (Choose two.)

Explanation

An explanation for the given correct answer is that network IPS is unable to examine encrypted traffic, which means that it cannot detect and prevent attacks that are hidden within encrypted data. Additionally, network IPS may have a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic, making it challenging to determine if an attack was successful or not. These two disadvantages highlight limitations in the effectiveness of network IPS in certain situations.

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50. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is implementing VPN support on an ASA 5505. What type of VPN support is being implemented?

Explanation

The correct answer is clientless SSL VPN. This is because a clientless SSL VPN allows users to remotely access a network resource using a web browser without the need to install any additional software. It provides secure access to web-based applications and resources. In this scenario, the administrator is implementing VPN support on an ASA 5505, and the fact that it is clientless means that users will be able to connect to the VPN using a web browser rather than a dedicated VPN client.

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51. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the object group-based ACL?

Explanation

The purpose of the object group-based ACL is to allow users on the 10.5.0.0/24 network to access remote devices on the 10.7.150.0/28, 10.7.151.0/28, 10.7.160.0/28, and 10.7.161.0/28 networks specifically through HTTPS. This means that only HTTPS traffic from the 10.5.0.0/24 network is permitted to reach the specified remote devices on the mentioned networks.

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52. 62. Refer to the exhibit. What will be displayed in the output of the show running-config object command after the exhibited configuration commands are entered on an ASA 5505?

Explanation

The output of the "show running-config object" command will display the configuration command "range 192.168.1.10 192.168.1.20". This indicates that a range of IP addresses from 192.168.1.10 to 192.168.1.20 has been configured.

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53. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a GRE VPN tunnel between R1 and R2. Assuming the R2 GRE configuration is correct and based on the running configuration of R1, what must the administrator do to fix the problem?

Explanation

Based on the running configuration of R1, the tunnel destination is currently set to 192.168.5.1. However, the correct tunnel destination should be 209.165.200.225. Therefore, the network administrator needs to change the tunnel destination to 209.165.200.225 in order to fix the problem with the GRE VPN tunnel between R1 and R2.

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54. 8. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth. What is the effect of this setting?

Explanation

Setting the security level of auth in SNMPv3 means that the packet will be authenticated using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method. This ensures that the packet's integrity and authenticity are verified before it is processed. The packet is not encrypted with this setting, as encryption is not included in the auth security level.

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55. 68. What is a CLI initiated script that locks down the control plane of a Cisco router in one step?

Explanation

Cisco AutoSecure is a CLI initiated script that locks down the control plane of a Cisco router in one step. It is a security feature provided by Cisco that automates the process of securing a router by applying a set of recommended security configurations. This script helps in protecting the control plane of the router by enabling various security features and applying necessary access control policies. By running Cisco AutoSecure, administrators can quickly and easily enhance the security of their Cisco routers without the need for manual configuration.

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56. 1. Which statement is true about the One-Step lockdown feature of the CCP Security Audit wizard?

Explanation

The One-Step lockdown feature of the CCP Security Audit wizard sets an access class ACL on VTY lines. This means that it allows the administrator to configure an access control list (ACL) on virtual terminal (VTY) lines, which control remote access to the device. By setting an access class ACL on VTY lines, the feature helps to enhance the security of the device by controlling who can access it remotely.

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57. 54. Which statement accurately describes Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall operation?

Explanation

The statement "The pass action works in only one direction" accurately describes Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall operation. This means that when a packet is allowed to pass through the firewall, it is only allowed in one direction and not in the opposite direction. This helps to control and secure network traffic by allowing specific types of traffic to flow in a controlled manner.

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58. 45. Which spanning-tree enhancement prevents the spanning-tree topology from changing by blocking a port that receives a superior BPDU?

Explanation

Root guard is a spanning-tree enhancement that prevents the spanning-tree topology from changing by blocking a port that receives a superior BPDU. When root guard is enabled on a port, it ensures that the port does not become a root port or an alternate port, even if it receives superior BPDUs. This feature is useful in preventing unauthorized switches from becoming the root bridge and disrupting the network's stability. By blocking the port that receives a superior BPDU, root guard helps maintain the integrity and stability of the spanning-tree topology.

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59. 26. What is one advantage of using a Cisco ASA for remote networking VPN deployment compared to a Cisco ISR?

Explanation

One advantage of using a Cisco ASA for remote networking VPN deployment compared to a Cisco ISR is its support for more concurrent user sessions. This means that the Cisco ASA can handle a larger number of simultaneous VPN connections, allowing for greater scalability and accommodating more users at the same time. This can be particularly beneficial in scenarios where there is a high demand for VPN access or when the network needs to support a large number of remote users.

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60. 28. In what two phases of the system development life cycle does risk assessment take place? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Risk assessment takes place in the initiation phase of the system development life cycle to identify potential risks and determine their impact on the project. It also takes place in the acquisition and development phase to assess risks associated with acquiring and developing the system, such as technical risks, resource risks, and schedule risks.

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61. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted inspect line?

Explanation

The highlighted "inspect" line in the exhibit indicates the action to be taken on the traffic from the 10.10.10.0/24 network. This suggests that the firewall will inspect and analyze the traffic from this specific network, potentially applying security measures or allowing specific types of traffic based on predefined rules or policies.

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62. 56. Why is a reflexive ACL harder to spoof compared to an extended ACL that uses the established keyword?

Explanation

A reflexive ACL provides more detailed filter criteria to match an incoming packet before allowing it through. This means that it is able to inspect and analyze the packet more thoroughly, making it harder to spoof or manipulate. On the other hand, an extended ACL that uses the established keyword only checks if the packet is part of an established session, which may not provide as robust protection against spoofing.

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63. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the security level for the ASA. Which statement describes the default result if the administrator tries to assign the Inside interface with the same security level as the DMZ interface?

Explanation

If the network administrator tries to assign the Inside interface with the same security level as the DMZ interface, the ASA will not allow traffic in either direction between the Inside interface and the DMZ. This is because when two interfaces have the same security level, the ASA considers them to be in the same security zone and applies stricter security policies, effectively blocking all traffic between them.

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64. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the ACLs?

Explanation

The purpose of the ACLs in this scenario is to restrict inbound IPv6 and SSH traffic, allowing it only if it originates from within the organization. This means that any external sources attempting to access the network via IPv6 or SSH will be denied, while internal sources will be allowed. This helps to enhance security by only permitting trusted connections from within the organization.

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65. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on R1. The administrator then tests the configuration by telneting to R1. The ACS servers are configured and running. What will happen if the authentication fails?

Explanation

If the authentication fails, the router will fall back to using the username and password of the local user database for the next login attempt. This means that the router will check its own local user database for a valid username and password combination to authenticate the user. This is the default behavior when AAA authentication fails.

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66. 51. A company is designing its strategy of deploying Cisco Secure ACS to manage user access. The company is currently using a Windows server for the internal authentication service. The network administrator needs to configure the ACS to contact the Windows server when it cannot find the user in its local database. Which option of external user database setup should be configured on ACS?

Explanation

The correct answer is "by unknown user policy". This option should be configured on ACS to contact the Windows server when it cannot find the user in its local database. This means that if a user is not found in the ACS's local database, it will automatically search for the user in the Windows server for authentication. This ensures that all users can be authenticated, even if they are not present in the ACS's local database.

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67. 67. What is an advantage of using CCP rather than the CLI to configure an ACL?

Explanation

CCP provides default rules, which means that when using CCP to configure an ACL, there are pre-configured rules already in place. These default rules can help to simplify the configuration process and ensure that basic traffic filtering is already implemented. This can be advantageous as it saves time and effort compared to manually configuring each rule from scratch. Additionally, the default rules can serve as a starting point and be modified as needed, providing flexibility in customizing the ACL to specific requirements.

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68. 60. Which three wizards are included in Cisco ASDM 6.4? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The correct answer is High Availability and Scalability wizard, Startup wizard, and VPN wizard. These three wizards are included in Cisco ASDM 6.4. The High Availability and Scalability wizard helps in configuring redundant and scalable network setups. The Startup wizard assists in configuring basic settings for the device. The VPN wizard is used to configure virtual private network connections. The other options, ADSL Connection wizard and Security Audit wizard, are not included in Cisco ASDM 6.4.

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69. 53. Which two options are offered through the Cisco TrustSec Solution for enterprise networks? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The Cisco TrustSec Solution for enterprise networks offers two options: 802.1X-Based Infrastructure solution and NAC Appliance-Based Overlay solution. The 802.1X-Based Infrastructure solution provides secure access control by authenticating and authorizing devices connecting to the network. The NAC Appliance-Based Overlay solution allows for network access control by overlaying network devices with additional security measures. These two options together provide a comprehensive solution for securing enterprise networks.

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70. 72. What is the role of the Cisco NAC Manager in implementing a secure networking infrastructure?

Explanation

The role of the Cisco NAC Manager is to define role-based user access and endpoint security policies. This means that it is responsible for determining the level of access that each user has within the network, based on their role or position in the organization. It also sets the security policies that need to be followed by endpoint devices, ensuring that they meet the necessary security requirements. By defining these policies, the Cisco NAC Manager plays a crucial role in implementing a secure networking infrastructure.

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71. 23. Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege levels for assigning command authorization? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The first statement is incorrect because privilege levels do not require the root user to be assigned to each level. The second statement is incorrect because it is not necessary to define all 16 privilege levels. The third statement is incorrect because views are not required to define CLI commands for each user. The fourth statement is correct because privilege levels do not provide access control to specific interfaces on a router. The fifth statement is correct because creating a user account with specific command access can be a tedious process. The sixth statement is correct because commands set at a higher privilege level are not available to lower privilege users.

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72. 12. What are two reasons for a company to migrate from a classic firewall to the ZPF model? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The ZPF model allows for more granular inspection of traffic, allowing the company to have different inspection policies for different types of traffic. This can improve security by allowing for more targeted and specific inspection. Additionally, the ZPF model reduces reliance on ACLs, which can be complex and difficult to manage. This can simplify firewall management and improve overall efficiency.

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73. 5. What are two benefits of an SSL VPN? (Choose two.)

Explanation

An SSL VPN offers two main benefits. First, it is compatible with various network technologies such as DMVPNs, Cisco IOS Firewall, IPsec, IPS, Cisco Easy VPN, and NAT. This compatibility allows for seamless integration and connectivity with different network infrastructures. Second, an SSL VPN has the option of only requiring an SSL-enabled web browser. This means that users can access the VPN securely without the need for additional downloads or software installations, making it more convenient and user-friendly.

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74. 41. What are two characteristics of an acceptable use policy? (Choose two.)

Explanation

An acceptable use policy should be as explicit as possible to avoid any misunderstandings or confusion regarding the rules and guidelines for network usage. This ensures that all users are aware of what is expected of them and what actions are prohibited. Additionally, the policy should clearly identify what network applications and usages are considered acceptable, helping to establish a standard for appropriate use of network resources. By specifying these two characteristics, the policy can effectively guide users in their behavior and protect the integrity and security of the network.

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75. 76. What three phases would be addressed as part of doing business continuity planning? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Business continuity planning involves preparing for and recovering from potential disruptions to ensure the continued operation of an organization. The three phases that would be addressed as part of this planning are: a recovery phase, where the organization focuses on restoring critical functions and processes after a disruption; an emergency response phase, where immediate actions are taken to mitigate the impact of the disruption; and a return to normal operation phase, where the organization transitions back to its regular operations and ensures long-term resilience. These three phases cover the key aspects of business continuity planning, from initial response to full recovery.

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76. 66. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the port security feature on switch SWC. The administrator issued the command show port-security interface fa 0/2 to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? (Choose two)

Explanation

From the output shown, it can be concluded that security violations will cause this port to shut down immediately. Additionally, there is no device currently connected to this port.

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77. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show secure bootset command on router R1, which three conclusions can be drawn about Cisco IOS Resilience? (Choose three.)

Explanation

Based on the output from the "show secure bootset" command on router R1, three conclusions can be drawn about Cisco IOS Resilience. Firstly, a copy of the router configuration file has been made. Secondly, the Cisco IOS image file is hidden and cannot be copied, modified, or deleted. Lastly, the secure boot-config command was issued on R1.

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78. 69. Which three statements should be considered when applying ACLs to a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The first statement is correct because if a generic ACL entry is placed at the top of the ACL, it will match and filter traffic before more specific entries. The second statement is correct because a maximum of three IP access lists can be assigned to an interface per direction. The third statement is correct because if an interface does not have a configured ACL, it allows all traffic to pass through.

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79. 65. Which three types of remote access VPNs are supported on ASA devices? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three types of remote access VPNs supported on ASA devices are SSL or IPsec (IKEv2) VPN using the Cisco AnyConnect Client, Clientless SSL VPN using a web browser, and IPsec (IKEv1) VPN using the Cisco VPN Client. These options allow users to establish secure connections to the ASA device using different protocols and clients. The Cisco AnyConnect Client supports both SSL and IPsec VPNs, while the web browser can be used for clientless SSL VPN. The Cisco VPN Client supports IPsec (IKEv1) VPN.

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80. 43. What are two features of Cisco Easy VPN Server? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The first feature of Cisco Easy VPN Server is that it enables an ASA firewall to act as the VPN head-end device in remote-access VPNs. This means that the ASA firewall can serve as the central point for establishing and managing VPN connections for remote users.

The second feature is that Cisco Easy VPN Server enables VPN client remote access to a company intranet through the creation of secure IPsec tunnels. This means that remote users can securely access the company's internal network using VPN client software and establish encrypted tunnels for data transmission.

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81. 63. Refer to the exhibit. According to the command output, which three statements are true about the DHCP options entered on the ASA 5505? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The correct statements about the DHCP options entered on the ASA 5505 are:
1. The dhcpd auto-config outside command was issued to enable the DHCP client.
2. The dhcpd enable inside command was issued to enable the DHCP server.
3. The dhcpd address [start-of-pool]-[end-of-pool] inside command was issued to enable the DHCP server.

These statements indicate that the ASA 5505 is configured to act as both a DHCP client and a DHCP server. The dhcpd auto-config outside command enables the ASA to obtain its IP address from an external DHCP server, while the dhcpd enable inside command enables the ASA to provide DHCP services to devices connected to its inside interface. The dhcpd address [start-of-pool]-[end-of-pool] inside command defines the range of IP addresses that can be assigned to clients by the ASA's DHCP server.

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58. What are two protocols that are used by AAA to authenticate users...
31. A network administrator configures the alert generation of an IPS...
80. Place the system development cycle (SDLC) phases in the order they...
81. Fill in the blank.When role-based CLI is used, only the...
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface...
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22. How would a network security professional mitigate a DoS attack?
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39. Which security policy component would contain procedures for...
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55. Two devices that are connected to the same switch need to be...
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24. Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret...
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19. Why have corporations been shifting remote access security...
9. What is an advantage of using SSL VPNs compared to IPsec VPNs on an...
32. Which STP port type is permitted to forward traffic, but is not...
6. When configuring router security, which statement describes the...
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a...
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47. Why does a worm pose a greater threat than a virus poses?
75. In a corporate network where SAN is deployed, what happens if the...
64. Fill in the blank.In a syslog implementation, a router that...
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59. Which security organization updates the training material that...
Refer to the exhibit. Which pair of crypto isakmp key commands would...
25. What type of security key is generated by the local user software...
74. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator creates three zones (A, B,...
35. What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?
16. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering...
79. A user complains about not being able to gain access to the...
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the...
61. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured an ASA 5505...
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78. What is an example of toll fraud?
29. What is one benefit of implementing a secure email service by...
70. What is one way to prevent attackers from eavesdropping on...
46. In deploying an IPS in a corporate network, system operators first...
50. A network technician has been asked to design a virtual private...
38. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)
57. Which security feature helps protect a VoIP system from SPIT...
73. What command must be issued to enable login enhancements on a...
37. Which two security features can cause a switch port to become...
71. A large company deploys several network-based IPS sensors for its...
77. Logging into a computer as the administrator just to surf the web...
3. What are two disadvantages of using network IPS? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is implementing VPN support on...
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the object group-based...
62. Refer to the exhibit. What will be displayed in the output of the...
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a GRE...
8. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security...
68. What is a CLI initiated script that locks down the control plane...
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45. Which spanning-tree enhancement prevents the spanning-tree...
26. What is one advantage of using a Cisco ASA for remote networking...
28. In what two phases of the system development life cycle does risk...
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted inspect...
56. Why is a reflexive ACL harder to spoof compared to an extended ACL...
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the...
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the ACLs?
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA...
51. A company is designing its strategy of deploying Cisco Secure ACS...
67. What is an advantage of using CCP rather than the CLI to configure...
60. Which three wizards are included in Cisco ASDM 6.4? (Choose...
53. Which two options are offered through the Cisco TrustSec Solution...
72. What is the role of the Cisco NAC Manager in implementing a secure...
23. Which three statements describe limitations in using privilege...
12. What are two reasons for a company to migrate from a classic...
5. What are two benefits of an SSL VPN? (Choose two.)
41. What are two characteristics of an acceptable use policy? (Choose...
76. What three phases would be addressed as part of doing business...
66. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the...
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show secure bootset...
69. Which three statements should be considered when applying ACLs to...
65. Which three types of remote access VPNs are supported on ASA...
43. What are two features of Cisco Easy VPN Server? (Choose two.)
63. Refer to the exhibit. According to the command output, which three...
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