CCNA Security Final Exam Quiz

31. A network administrator configures the alert generation of an IPS device in such a way that when multiple attack packets that match the same signature are detected, a single alert for the first packet is generated and the remaining duplicate alarms are counted, but not sent, for a specific time period. When the specified time period is reached, an alert is sent that indicates the number of alarms that occurred during the time interval. What kind of alert generation pattern is configured?

• Composite alerts

• Composite alerts

• Summary alerts

• Advanced alerts

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB but is unable to gain Telnet access to the router by using the password cisco123. What is a possible cause of the problem?

• The Telnet connection between RouterA and RouterB is not working correctly.

• The enable password and the Telnet password need to be the same.

• The password cisco123 is wrong.

• The administrator does not have enough rights on the PC that is being used.

80. Place the system development cycle (SDLC) phases in the order they occur (Not all options are used) 1st -> Initiation2nd -> Acqusition and Development3rd -> Implementation4th -> Operations and Maintenance5th -> Disposition

• True

• False

81. Fill in the blank.When role-based CLI is used, only the _____________ view has the ability to add or remove commands from existing views.

11. What is a type of SSL VPN that provides access to a network without requiring VPN software or a Java applet on the client?

• Clientless mode

• Cisco VPN client mode

• Full client mode

• Thin client mode

22. How would a network security professional mitigate a DoS attack?

• Implement a strong password policy.

• Deploy antisniffer software.

• Include a firewall and IPS in the network security design.

• Design the network by using the principle of minimum trust.

2. With the Cisco AnyConnect VPN wizard, which two protocols can be used for tunnel group configuration? (Choose two.)

• MPLS

• SSH

• PPTP

• ESP

• IPsec

27. What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?

• Aaa new-model global configuration command

• Changes to the configuration register

• Ability to access ROMMON

• Password encryption service

48. Which security feature would be commonly implemented as part of a large enterprise wireless policy but would not typically be used in a small office/home office network?

• Not broadcasting the SSID

• Using WPA2

• Not allowing personal wireless devices

• Using an authentication server

39. Which security policy component would contain procedures for handling an issue where someone followed a network administrator into the server room without the administrator noticing and the person removed some storage drives?

• Information preservation policy

• Security policy

• Operations and maintenance document

• Security initiation document

49. Which two commands are needed on every IPv6 ACL to allow IPv6 neighbor discovery? (Choose two.)

• Permit ipv6 any any fragments

• Permit icmp any any nd-ns

• Permit icmp any any echo-reply

• Permit icmp any any nd-na

• Permit tcp any any ack

• Permit ipv6 any any routing

13. What is the main difference between the implementation of IDS and IPS devices?

• An IDS uses signature-based technology to detect malicious packets, whereas an IPS uses profile-based technology.

• An IDS would allow malicious traffic to pass before it is addressed, whereas an IPS stops it immediately.

• An IDS can negatively impact the packet flow, whereas an IPS can not.

• An IDS needs to be deployed together with a firewall device, whereas an IPS can replace a firewall.

18. What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?

• Use ISL encapsulation on all trunk links.

• Disable STP on all nontrunk ports.

• Disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access ports.

• Use VLAN 1 as the native VLAN on trunk ports.

55. Two devices that are connected to the same switch need to be totally isolated from one another. Which Cisco switch security feature will provide this isolation?

• DTP

• BPDU guard

• PVLAN Edge

• SPAN

9. What is an advantage of using SSL VPNs compared to IPsec VPNs on an ASA?

• SSL VPNs provide support for more applications.

• SSL VPNs do not require any pre-installed client software.

• SSL VPNs provide superior authentication.

• SSL VPNs provide stronger encryption as a remote-access solution.

17. What is a difference between ASA IPv4 ACLs and IOS IPv4 ACLs?

• ASA ACLs use the subnet mask in defining a network, whereas IOS ACLs use the wildcard mask.

• ASA ACLs do not have an implicit deny all at the end, whereas IOS ACLs do.

• ASA ACLs use forward and drop ACEs, whereas IOS ACLs use permit and deny ACEs.

• Multiple ASA ACLs can be applied on an interface in the ingress direction, whereas only one IOS ACL can be applied.

• ASA ACLs are always named, whereas IOS ACLs can be named or numbered.

19. Why have corporations been shifting remote access security policies to include support for ASA SSL VPNs?

• To have stronger encryption options

• To support secure access for users on a multitude of devices

• To have stronger authentication options

• To provide stronger overall security

24. Which algorithm is used to automatically generate a shared secret for two systems to use in establishing an IPsec VPN?

• DES

• DH

• 3DES

• ESP

• AH

• SSL

32. Which STP port type is permitted to forward traffic, but is not the port closest to the root bridge?

• Root port

• Designated port

• Backup port

• Alternate port

6. When configuring router security, which statement describes the most effective way to use ACLs to control Telnet traffic that is destined to the router itself?

• Apply the ACL to the vty lines without the in or out option required when applying ACLs to interfaces.

• The ACL is applied to the Telnet port with the ip access-group command.

• The ACL must be applied to each vty line individually.

• The ACL should be applied to all vty lines in the in direction to prevent an unwanted user from connecting to an unsecured port.

14. What information must an IPS track in order to detect attacks matching a composite signature?

• The state of packets related to the attack

• The total number of packets in the attack

• The network bandwidth consumed by all packets

• The attacking period used by the attacker

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

• This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

• This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

• This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

• This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

15. What method is used to authenticate SNMPv2 messages between the manager and the agent?

• RSA keys

• Trusted keys

• Encrypted passwords

• Community strings

47. Why does a worm pose a greater threat than a virus poses?

• Worms are not detected by antivirus programs.

• Worms run within a host program.

• Worms are more network-based than viruses are.

• Worms directly attack the network devices.

64. Fill in the blank.In a syslog implementation, a router that generates and forwards syslog messages is known as a syslog ______

Refer to the exhibit. Which pair of crypto isakmp key commands would correctly configure PSK on the two routers?

• R1# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.226 R2# crypto isakmp key secure address 209.165.200.227

• R1# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.227 R2# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.226

• R1# crypto isakmp key ciscopass hostname R1 R2# crypto isakmp key ciscopass hostname R2

• R1# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.226 R2# crypto isakmp key ciscopass address 209.165.200.227

59. Which security organization updates the training material that helps prepare for the Global Information Assurance Certification (GIAC)?

• WARP

• Phoenix Labs

• SANS

• Global Trust Center

75. In a corporate network where SAN is deployed, what happens if the SAN fabric is compromised?

• Data is compromised.

• Server CPUs become overloaded.

• Configurations can be changed or lost.

• End devices become infected.

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface configuration completes the classic firewall configuration on the firewall?

• FW(config)# interface g0/1 FW(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in FW(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE out

• FW(config)# interface g0/1 FW(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in FW(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE in

• FW(config)# interface g0/0 FW(config-if)# ip inspect OUTBOUND in FW(config-if)# ip access-group INSIDE in

• W(config)# interface g0/0 FW(config-if)# ip inspect INSIDE in FW(config-if)# ip access-group OUTBOUND in

16. Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?

• A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.

• Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.

• A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection, whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a connection.

• A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer.

25. What type of security key is generated by the local user software when a user is connecting to a Cisco ASA through a remote-access SSL VPN?

• Asymmetric key

• Digitally signed private key

• Shared-secret key

• Digitally signed public key

35. What is the basic method used by 3DES to encrypt plaintext?

• The data is divided into three blocks of equal length for encryption.

• The data is encrypted using a key length that is three times longer than the key used for DES.

• The data is encrypted three times with three different keys.

• The data is encrypted, decrypted, and encrypted using three different keys.

74. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator creates three zones (A, B, and C) in an ASA that filters traffic. Traffic originating from Zone A going to Zone C is denied, and traffic originating from Zone B going to Zone C is denied. What is a possible scenario for Zones A, B, and C

• A – DMZ, B – Inside, C – Outside

• A – DMZ, B – Outside, C – Inside

• A – Inside, B – DMZ, C – Outside

• A – Outside, B – Inside, C – DMZ

79. A user complains about not being able to gain access to the network. What command would be used by the network administrator to determine which AAA method list is being used for this particular user as the user logs on?

• Debug aaa accounting

• Debug aaa authorization

• Debug aaa authentication

• Debug aaa protocol

40. What question is answered by the risk analysis component of security policy development?

• What is the cost versus benefit analysis of implementing various security technologies?

• What are the reliable, well-understood, and recommended security practices that similar organizations currently employ?

• What are the current procedures for incident response, monitoring, maintenance, and auditing of the system for compliance?

• What are the most likely types of threats given the purpose of the organization?

61. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured an ASA 5505 as indicated but is still unable to ping the inside interface from an inside host. What is the cause of this problem?

• An IP address should be configured on the Ethernet 0/0 and 0/1 interfaces.

• The no shutdown command should be entered on interface Ethernet 0/1.

• The security level of the inside interface should be 0 and the outside interface should be 100.

• VLAN 1 should be the outside interface and VLAN 2 should be the inside interface.

• VLAN 1 should be assigned to interface Ethernet 0/0 and VLAN 2 to Ethernet 0/1.

78. What is an example of toll fraud?

• The use of a telephony system to send unsolicited and unwanted bulk messages

• The use of a telephony system to make unauthorized long distance calls

• The use of a telephony system to get information, such as account details, directly from users

• The use of a telephony system to illegally intercept voice packets in order to listen in on a call

29. What is one benefit of implementing a secure email service by using the Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA)?

• ESA provides isolation between processes.

• It obtains real-time updates from the Cisco SIO.

• It uses the network infrastructure to enforce security policy compliance.

• It combines advanced threat defense and secure mobility for email.

38. What are three goals of a port scan attack? (Choose three.)

• To identify peripheral configurations

• To determine potential vulnerabilities

• To disable used ports and services

• To identify operating systems

• To identify active services

46. In deploying an IPS in a corporate network, system operators first create a profile of normal network operation by monitoring network activities in normal network uses. After the profile is incorporated into the IPS triggering mechanism, alarms will be generated when the IPS detects excessive activity that is beyond the scope of the profile. Which signature detection mechanism is deployed?

• Pattern-based detection

• Policy-based detection

• Honey pot-based detection

• Anomaly-based detection

50. A network technician has been asked to design a virtual private network between two branch routers. Which type of cryptographic key should be used in this scenario?

• Asymmetric key

• Hash key

• Symmetric key

• Digital signature

57. Which security feature helps protect a VoIP system from SPIT attacks?

• AES

• BPDU guard

• WPA2

• Authenticated TLS

70. What is one way to prevent attackers from eavesdropping on VoIP conversations?

• Use Forced Authorization Codes.

• Implement separate voice VLANs.

• Configure IP phones to use only signed firmware files.

• Create ACLs to allow only VoIP protocols.

73. What command must be issued to enable login enhancements on a Cisco router?

• Privilege exec level

• Banner motd

• Login delay

• Login block-for

37. Which two security features can cause a switch port to become error-disabled? (Choose two.)

• Storm control with the trap option

• PortFast with BPDU guard enabled

• Port security with the shutdown violation mode

• Root guard

• Protected ports

71. A large company deploys several network-based IPS sensors for its headquarters network. Which network service configuration will help the process of correlating attack events happening simultaneously in different points of the network?

• Multiple DNS servers with fault tolerance

• Distributed DHCP servers

• A syslog server for each IPS sensor

• A centralized NTP server

77. Logging into a computer as the administrator just to surf the web is a violation of which security technique?

• Process isolation

• Utilizing a reference monitor

• Access control to resources

• Least privilege

3. What are two disadvantages of using network IPS? (Choose two.)

• Network IPS is operating system-dependent and must be customized for each platform.

• Network IPS is incapable of examining encrypted traffic.

• Network IPS is unable to provide a clear indication of the extent to which the network is being attacked.

• Network IPS sensors are difficult to deploy when new networks are added.

• Network IPS has a difficult time reconstructing fragmented traffic to determine if an attack was successful.