CCNA Security V2.0 Final Exam

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1. What is algorithm-type to protect the data in transit?

Explanation

A hashing algorithm is not used to protect data in transit. Instead, it is used to ensure data integrity by generating a unique hash value for a given input. This hash value can be used to verify that the transmitted data has not been tampered with during transit. To protect data in transit, encryption algorithms such as SSL/TLS are commonly used. Therefore, the given answer is incorrect.

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About This Quiz
CCNA Security V2.0 Final Exam - Quiz

The CCNA Security v2.0 Final Exam assesses advanced knowledge in network security, focusing on control plane protection, authentication methods, and security tools like Nmap. This quiz is essential... see morefor learners aiming to master security protocols and configurations in Cisco networks. see less

2. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB but is unable to gain Telnet access to the router by using the password cisco123. What is a possible cause of the problem?

Explanation

The possible cause of the problem is that the password "cisco123" is wrong. This means that the administrator is entering an incorrect password when trying to gain Telnet access to RouterB.

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3. What is negotiated in the establishment of an IPsec tunnel between two IPsec hosts during IKE Phase 1?

Explanation

During IKE Phase 1, the ISAKMP SA (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol Security Association) policy is negotiated in the establishment of an IPsec tunnel between two IPsec hosts. The ISAKMP SA policy defines the parameters and settings for the secure communication between the hosts, including authentication methods, encryption algorithms, and key exchange protocols. This negotiation ensures that both hosts agree on the security parameters before establishing the IPsec tunnel for secure communication.

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4. Which security policy outlines the overall security goals for managers and technical personnel within an organization and includes the consequences of noncompliance with the policy?

Explanation

The governing policy outlines the overall security goals for managers and technical personnel within an organization. It is a high-level policy that sets the direction and framework for all other security policies. It includes the consequences of noncompliance with the policy, ensuring that managers and technical personnel understand the importance of adhering to the security goals and the potential repercussions if they fail to comply.

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5. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

Explanation

The most secure configuration option for remote access to a network device is to configure SSH. SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol that provides secure communication over an insecure network. It uses encryption to protect the connection and authentication methods to ensure that only authorized users can access the device remotely. This makes SSH a more secure choice compared to Telnet, which sends data in plain text, and configuring an ACL (Access Control List) alone, which may not provide encryption for the remote access connection.

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6. Match the network security testing technique with how it is used to test network security. (Not all options are used
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7. An administrator workstation connects to a switch that connects to the Fa0/0 port of RouterA. RouterA connects to RouterB through serial interfaces labeled S0/0/1 on both routers. The following configuration is applied to RouterB.
RouterB(config)# enable secret class123
RouterB(config)# username admin secret Cisco123
RouterB(config)# aaa new-model
RouterB(config)# aaa authentication login default local-case line enable none
RouterB(config)# aaa authentication login telnet local-case
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config)# login authentication telnet
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface of RouterB but is unable to gain Telnet access to the router by using the password cisco123. What is a possible cause of the problem?

Explanation

The possible cause of the problem is that the administrator has used the wrong password. This can be inferred from the given configuration on RouterB, where the username "admin" is set with the secret "Cisco123". However, in the question, it is mentioned that the administrator is unable to gain Telnet access using the password "cisco123". Therefore, it can be concluded that the password used by the administrator is incorrect.

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8. A user successfully logs in to a corporate network via a VPN connection. Which part of the AAA process records that a certain user performed a specific operation at a particular date and time?

Explanation

The accounting part of the AAA process records the details of a user's specific operation, such as logging in to a corporate network via a VPN connection, at a particular date and time. This includes keeping track of the user's activities, usage, and any resources accessed during the session. Accounting helps in auditing and monitoring user actions, ensuring accountability and providing valuable information for billing, security, and compliance purposes.

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9. What determines which switch becomes the STP root bridge for a given VLAN?

Explanation

The STP root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID. The bridge ID is a combination of the bridge priority and the bridge MAC address. The bridge with the lowest bridge ID becomes the root bridge. The bridge priority can be manually configured, but by default, it is set to a value of 32768. The MAC address is unique to each bridge and is used as a tiebreaker if multiple bridges have the same priority. Therefore, the bridge with the lowest bridge ID, which is a combination of the lowest priority and lowest MAC address, becomes the STP root bridge.

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10. Why are DES keys considered weak keys?

Explanation

The reason DES keys are considered weak keys is because they produce identical subkeys. This means that certain keys in the DES algorithm result in the same subkeys being generated, which can lead to vulnerabilities and make it easier for attackers to exploit the encryption. Identical subkeys reduce the effective key length and weaken the overall security of the encryption algorithm.

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11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on R1. The administrator then tests the configuration by telneting to R1. The ACS servers are configured and running. What will happen if the authentication fails?

Explanation

If the authentication fails, the authentication process will stop. This means that the user will not be able to access the device or perform any further actions until a successful authentication is completed. The enable secret password or any other credentials will not be used in the next login attempt.

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12. What type of algorithms require sender and receiver to exchange a secret key that is used to ensure the confidentiality of messages?

Explanation

Symmetric algorithms require the sender and receiver to exchange a secret key that is used to ensure the confidentiality of messages. In symmetric encryption, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that both the sender and receiver need to have the same key in order to encrypt and decrypt the messages. By exchanging the secret key, the sender and receiver can securely communicate and ensure that only they can understand the encrypted messages.

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13. What are two tasks that can be accomplished with the Nmap and Zenmap network tools? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Nmap and Zenmap are network tools that can be used for identifying Layer 3 protocol support on hosts. This means that they can help in determining which network protocols are supported by different hosts on a network. Additionally, these tools can also perform TCP and UDP port scanning, which involves checking open ports on a network host to identify potential vulnerabilities or services running on those ports. These tasks are important for network administrators to assess network security and ensure proper configuration.

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14. What Layer 2 attack is mitigated by disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol?

Explanation

Disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) helps mitigate VLAN hopping. VLAN hopping is a Layer 2 attack where an attacker gains unauthorized access to different VLANs on a network by exploiting the trunking features of switches. By disabling DTP, which is used to negotiate trunking between switches, the attacker's ability to manipulate VLANs and gain unauthorized access is significantly reduced.

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15. What is a feature of a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall?

Explanation

A feature of a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall is that a router interface can belong to only one zone at a time. This means that each interface on the router can be assigned to a specific zone, and traffic between zones can be controlled and monitored based on the policies defined for each zone. This helps in enhancing network security by allowing administrators to enforce different security policies for different zones.

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16. What is a benefit of using a next-generation firewall rather than a stateful firewall?

Explanation

A benefit of using a next-generation firewall rather than a stateful firewall is the granularity control within applications. Next-generation firewalls have the ability to inspect and control traffic at the application level, allowing for more specific and fine-tuned control over the applications being used. This can help prevent unauthorized access or usage of specific applications, providing a higher level of security and control compared to stateful firewalls which primarily focus on network-level filtering.

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17. Why is hashing cryptographically stronger compared to a cyclical redundancy check (CRC)?

Explanation

Hashing is cryptographically stronger compared to a cyclical redundancy check (CRC) because it is virtually impossible for two different sets of data to calculate the same hash output. This property is known as collision resistance and ensures that even a small change in the input data will produce a completely different hash value. In contrast, with a CRC, it is relatively easy to generate data with the same CRC, making it less secure for cryptographic purposes. Additionally, hashing always uses a fixed-length digest (such as 128-bit), while a CRC can have variable length, further enhancing the strength of hashing.

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18. What is indicated by the use of the local-case keyword in a local AAA authentication configuration command sequence?

Explanation

The use of the local-case keyword in a local AAA authentication configuration command sequence indicates that passwords and usernames are case-sensitive. This means that when users enter their passwords or usernames, they must use the correct capitalization in order to authenticate successfully.

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19. What algorithm is used to provide data integrity of a message through the use of a calculated hash value?

Explanation

HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code) is the algorithm used to provide data integrity of a message through the use of a calculated hash value. It involves a cryptographic hash function along with a secret key, which is used to generate the hash value. This hash value is then appended to the message, allowing the recipient to verify the integrity of the message by recalculating the hash value using the same key and comparing it to the received hash value.

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20. What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature?

Explanation

The Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature ensures that the Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output of the show flash command. This means that even if someone gains access to the router's flash memory, they will not be able to see the IOS image file. This adds an extra layer of security to the device, as it prevents potential attackers from easily identifying and analyzing the IOS image.

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21. The corporate security policy dictates that the traffic from the remote-access VPN clients must be separated between trusted traffic that is destined for the corporate subnets and untrusted traffic destined for the public Internet. Which VPN solution should be implemented to ensure compliance with the corporate policy?

Explanation

Split tunneling should be implemented to ensure compliance with the corporate policy. Split tunneling allows remote-access VPN clients to access both the corporate subnets and the public Internet simultaneously. This means that the client's traffic can be separated, with trusted traffic being directed to the corporate subnets and untrusted traffic being directed to the public Internet. By implementing split tunneling, the corporate security policy regarding traffic separation can be enforced.

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22. Refer to the exhibit. The ip verify source command is applied on untrusted interfaces. Which type of attack is mitigated by using this configuration?

Explanation

The "ip verify source" command is used to mitigate MAC and IP address spoofing attacks. MAC spoofing involves changing the Media Access Control (MAC) address of a device to impersonate another device on the network, while IP address spoofing involves forging the source IP address in network packets. By applying the "ip verify source" command on untrusted interfaces, the network can verify the source MAC and IP addresses of incoming packets, helping to prevent spoofing attacks.

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23. Which network security tool allows an administrator to test and detect weak passwords?

Explanation

L0phtcrack is a network security tool that is specifically designed to test and detect weak passwords. It is commonly used by administrators to assess the security of their network by identifying vulnerable passwords that could be easily exploited by attackers. L0phtcrack employs various techniques such as dictionary attacks, brute force attacks, and rainbow table attacks to crack passwords and provide insights into the strength of the network's password security.

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24. Refer to the exhibit. If a network administrator is using ASDM to configure a site-to-site VPN between the CCNAS-ASA and R3, which IP address would the administrator use for the peer IP address textbox on the ASA if data traffic is to be encrypted between the two remote LANs?

Explanation

The correct answer is 209.165.201.1. This IP address would be used as the peer IP address on the ASA because it represents the remote LAN that needs to be encrypted with the site-to-site VPN.

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25. On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?

Explanation

Enabling BPDU guard on all PortFast-enabled ports enhances STP stability because PortFast allows for rapid transition of a port from blocking to forwarding state, bypassing the usual listening and learning states. However, this can lead to the introduction of loops in the network if a switch is mistakenly connected to a PortFast-enabled port. By enabling BPDU guard on these ports, any incoming BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) will cause the port to be put into an error-disabled state, preventing the creation of loops and improving STP stability.

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26. A company deploys a hub-and-spoke VPN topology where the security appliance is the hub and the remote VPN networks are the spokes. Which VPN method should be used in order for one spoke to communicate with another spoke through the single public interface of the security appliance?

Explanation

Hairpinning is the correct answer because it refers to the process of allowing communication between two remote VPN networks through the single public interface of the security appliance. In this scenario, when one spoke wants to communicate with another spoke, the traffic is sent to the security appliance, which then redirects it back out through the same interface to the destination spoke. This allows the communication to occur without the need for additional VPN tunnels or external routing.

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27. Which two types of hackers are typically classified as grey hat hackers? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Grey hat hackers are individuals who operate between the boundaries of legal and illegal activities. They do not have malicious intent but still engage in hacking activities without proper authorization. Vulnerability brokers are grey hat hackers who discover and sell software vulnerabilities to interested parties, including both ethical and unethical actors. Hacktivists are also considered grey hat hackers as they use hacking techniques to promote political or social causes, often without explicit authorization. Therefore, vulnerability brokers and hacktivists are the two types of hackers typically classified as grey hat hackers.

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28. Which statement describes the use of certificate classes in the PKI?

Explanation

Certificate classes in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) are used to indicate the level of trust and assurance associated with a certificate. In this context, the statement "A class 5 certificate is more trustworthy than a class 4 certificate" correctly describes the use of certificate classes. The higher the class number, the greater the level of trust and assurance provided by the certificate. Therefore, a class 5 certificate is considered more trustworthy than a class 4 certificate in the PKI.

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29. What is a characteristic of most modern viruses?

Explanation

Most modern viruses are characterized by being email viruses, which means they are commonly spread through email attachments or links. This type of virus is prevalent due to the widespread use of email for communication and the ease with which viruses can be disguised as harmless files or links. Email viruses can cause significant damage by infecting a user's computer or network and spreading to other contacts. Therefore, being the most common type of virus, email viruses pose a significant threat to internet security.

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30. What mechanism is used by an ASA 5505 device to allow inspected outbound traffic to return to the originating sender who is on an inside network?

Explanation

Stateful packet inspection is the mechanism used by an ASA 5505 device to allow inspected outbound traffic to return to the originating sender who is on an inside network. This mechanism keeps track of the state of network connections and ensures that only legitimate traffic is allowed back in. It examines the complete context of each packet, including the source and destination IP addresses, ports, and sequence numbers. By maintaining this state information, the ASA device can accurately determine which inbound packets are part of established connections and allow them to pass through while blocking unauthorized traffic.

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31. What type of ACL is designed for use in the configuration of an ASA to support filtering for clientless SSL VPN's?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Webtype" because this type of ACL is specifically designed for use in the configuration of an ASA (Adaptive Security Appliance) to support filtering for clientless SSL VPN's. The "Webtype" ACL allows the ASA to control the traffic flow for clientless SSL VPN connections, allowing or denying access to specific resources or networks based on defined rules.

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32. A security technician is evaluating a new operations security proposal designed to limit access to all servers. What is an advantage of using network security testing to evaluate the new proposal?

Explanation

Network security testing is an advantage for evaluating the new operations security proposal because it allows for proactive evaluation of the proposal's effectiveness before any real threat occurs. By conducting security testing, potential vulnerabilities and weaknesses can be identified and addressed, ensuring that the proposal is robust and capable of protecting the servers from potential threats. This approach helps to enhance the overall security posture of the organization and minimizes the risk of successful attacks or breaches.

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33. Which three actions can the Cisco IOS Firewall IPS feature be configured to take when an intrusion activity is detected? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The Cisco IOS Firewall IPS feature can be configured to take three actions when an intrusion activity is detected: reset TCP connection, alert, and drop. When a TCP connection is reset, the firewall terminates the connection to prevent any further communication. Alerts are generated to notify administrators about the detected intrusion activity. The drop action discards the packets associated with the intrusion, effectively blocking them from reaching their destination.

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34. Which interface option could be set through ASDM for a Cisco ASA?

Explanation

VLAN ID is an interface option that can be set through ASDM for a Cisco ASA. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) are used to logically divide a network into smaller segments, allowing for better network management and security. By setting the VLAN ID through ASDM, administrators can assign specific VLANs to different interfaces on the Cisco ASA, ensuring that traffic is properly segregated and controlled within the network.

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35. A network analyst wants to monitor the activity of all new interns. Which type of security testing would track when the interns sign on and sign off the network?

Explanation

An integrity checker is a type of security testing that would track when the interns sign on and sign off the network. It is designed to monitor and verify the integrity of system files and configurations. By comparing the current state of the system with a known baseline, an integrity checker can detect any unauthorized changes or modifications, including login and logout activities. This would allow the network analyst to monitor the activity of the new interns and ensure the security and integrity of the network.

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36. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered from the generated message? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The two pieces of information that can be gathered from the generated message are:
1. This message is a level five notification message - This indicates the severity or importance level of the message. Level five typically represents a notification or informational message.
2. This message indicates that service timestamps have been globally enabled - This suggests that a feature called "service timestamps" has been enabled on a global scale, possibly for logging or troubleshooting purposes.

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37. In an AAA-enabled network, a user issues the configure terminal command from the privileged executive mode of operation. What AAA function is at work if this command is rejected?

Explanation

If the "configure terminal" command is rejected in an AAA-enabled network, the AAA function at work is authorization. Authorization determines whether a user has the necessary privileges to perform a specific action or access certain resources. In this case, the rejection of the command indicates that the user does not have the authorization to enter the configuration mode.

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38. What is an advantage in using a packet filtering firewall versus a high-end firewall appliance?

Explanation

An advantage of using a packet filtering firewall versus a high-end firewall appliance is that packet filters can perform most of the tasks of a high-end firewall but at a much lower cost. This means that organizations can achieve a high level of security without having to invest in expensive hardware or software. Packet filters are a cost-effective solution for providing an initial degree of security at the data-link and network layer, making them a favorable option for many businesses.

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39. What provides both secure segmentation and threat defense in a Secure Data Center solution?

Explanation

The Adaptive Security Appliance (ASA) provides both secure segmentation and threat defense in a Secure Data Center solution. ASA is a firewall and security device that offers advanced security features such as intrusion prevention, virtual private network (VPN) capabilities, and secure segmentation through the use of firewall rules and policies. It helps protect the data center from external threats and ensures that different segments within the data center are isolated and secure from each other.

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40. If a network administrator wants to track the usage of FTP services, which keyword or keywords should be added to the aaa accounting command?

Explanation

The keyword "exec" should be added to the aaa accounting command in order to track the usage of FTP services. This keyword specifically tracks the execution of commands on the device, which would include any FTP commands that are executed. By adding this keyword to the aaa accounting command, the network administrator will be able to monitor and track the usage of FTP services on the network.

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41. Which security implementation will provide control plane protection for a network device?

Explanation

Routing protocol authentication is a security implementation that provides control plane protection for a network device. It ensures that only authorized routers can participate in the routing process by verifying the authenticity of routing updates. This prevents unauthorized devices from injecting false routing information and helps in protecting the network against attacks such as route poisoning or route hijacking. By authenticating the routing protocol, the control plane of the network device is protected, enhancing the overall security of the network.

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42. Which security policy characteristic defines the purpose of standards?

Explanation

The security policy characteristic that defines the purpose of standards is the required steps to ensure consistent configuration of all company switches. Standards provide a set of guidelines and procedures that must be followed in order to achieve a consistent and secure configuration across all switches. By enforcing these required steps, organizations can ensure that all switches are configured in a uniform and secure manner, reducing the risk of vulnerabilities and ensuring compliance with security policies.

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43. Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be made from the show crypto map command output that is shown on R1?

Explanation

The exhibit shows the output of the "show crypto map" command on R1. Based on this output, it can be concluded that the crypto map has not yet been applied to an interface. This means that the VPN configuration has been created but has not been activated on any specific interface for the traffic to be encrypted or decrypted.

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44. A company deploys a Cisco ASA with the Cisco CWS connector enabled as the firewall on the border of corporate network. An employee on the internal network is accessing a public website. What should the employee do in order to make sure the web traffic is protected by the Cisco CWS?

Explanation

The employee should use a web browser to visit the destination website. This is because the Cisco ASA with the Cisco CWS connector enabled acts as the firewall on the corporate network's border. By using a web browser to visit the destination website, the web traffic will pass through the Cisco ASA and be protected by the Cisco CWS.

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45. A network technician is attempting to resolve problems with the NAT configuration on anASA. The technician generates a ping from an inside host to an outside host. Whichcommand verifies that addresses are being translated on the ASA?

Explanation

The correct answer is "show xlate" because this command is used to display the translations that are currently active in the NAT table of the ASA. It will show the inside local IP addresses and corresponding outside global IP addresses that have been translated. This command helps the technician verify if the NAT configuration is working correctly and if addresses are being translated as expected.

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46. What is a characteristic of a role-based CLI view of router configuration?

Explanation

In a role-based CLI view of router configuration, a single CLI view can be shared within multiple superviews. This means that multiple users with different roles or privileges can have access to the same CLI view and make configuration changes accordingly. This allows for better collaboration and flexibility in managing the router configuration.

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47. Which statement describes a characteristic of the IKE protocol?

Explanation

IKE (Internet Key Exchange) is a protocol used for establishing a secure communication channel between two security gateways. One of the characteristics of the IKE protocol is that it uses UDP port 500 for exchanging IKE information between the gateways. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that allows for fast and efficient communication. By using UDP port 500, IKE ensures that the exchange of information between the gateways is secure and reliable.

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48. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator issues these IOS login enhancement commands to increase the security for login connections. What can be concluded about them?

Explanation

The given commands indicate that the hosts identified in the ACL will have access to the device. These commands are used to increase the security for login connections, but they do not provide any information about a login delay or the number of login attempts permitted before being stopped. Additionally, it is not mentioned whether these enhancements apply to all types of login connections or not.

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49. What is required for auto detection and negotiation of NAT when establishing a VPN link?

Explanation

For auto detection and negotiation of NAT when establishing a VPN link, both VPN end devices must be NAT-T (Network Address Translation - Traversal) capable. NAT-T is a mechanism that allows VPN traffic to pass through NAT devices, which are commonly used in many networks. It encapsulates the VPN traffic within UDP packets, enabling it to traverse NAT devices without being blocked. Therefore, for successful VPN connection establishment, both VPN end devices must support NAT-T to ensure seamless communication across NAT boundaries.

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50. What is an advantage of logging packets that are seen by an IPS device?

Explanation

By logging packets that are seen by an IPS device, administrators can review the logged information to make informed decisions about future actions. This allows them to analyze the network traffic, identify potential threats, and determine appropriate measures to be taken to enhance security. Logging provides a valuable source of data that can be used for troubleshooting, forensic analysis, and improving the overall network security posture. It allows administrators to understand the nature of the packets and make informed decisions on how to handle them effectively in order to mitigate any potential risks or attacks.

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51. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration that is shown, which statement is true about the IPS signature category?

Explanation

Based on the configuration shown, only the signatures in the ios_ips basic category will be compiled into memory for scanning. This means that only the signatures within this category will be used for scanning purposes, while signatures in other categories will not be included in the scanning process.

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52. What is the purpose of a local username database if multiple ACS servers are configured to provide authentication services?

Explanation

A local username database provides redundancy if ACS servers become unreachable. This means that if the ACS servers are not available for authentication, the local username database can still be used to authenticate local clients. This ensures that authentication services can still be provided even in the event of server failure or unavailability.

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53. In a server-based AAA implementation, which protocol will allow the router to successfully communicate with the AAA server?

Explanation

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol commonly used in server-based AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) implementations. It allows routers and other network devices to communicate with the AAA server for user authentication and authorization. RADIUS provides a centralized authentication and authorization mechanism, allowing the router to verify user credentials and grant or deny access based on the information received from the AAA server. Therefore, RADIUS is the correct protocol for successful communication between the router and the AAA server in a server-based AAA implementation.

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54. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the security levels of the interfaces on the ASA, what statement correctly describes the flow of traffic allowed on the interfaces?

Explanation

The security levels of the interfaces on the ASA determine the flow of traffic. In this scenario, the LAN and DMZ have higher security levels compared to the Internet. According to the answer, traffic sent from the DMZ and the LAN to the Internet is considered outbound. This means that traffic originating from the protected networks (LAN and DMZ) and going towards the less secure network (Internet) is allowed.

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55. Which IDS/IPS signature alarm will look for packets that are destined to or from a particular port?

Explanation

Signature-based IDS/IPS alarms are designed to detect specific patterns or signatures in network traffic. In this case, the alarm will look for packets that are destined to or from a particular port. It will compare the network traffic against a database of known signatures or patterns associated with malicious activity, and if a match is found, it will trigger an alarm. This method is effective for detecting known threats and attacks, but it may not be as effective against new or unknown threats.

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56. What are two reasons to enable OSPF routing protocol authentication on a network? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Enabling OSPF routing protocol authentication on a network helps to prevent data traffic from being redirected and then discarded. This is because authentication ensures that only trusted routers are allowed to participate in the OSPF routing process, preventing unauthorized redirection of traffic. Additionally, enabling authentication helps to prevent redirection of data traffic to an insecure link, as only authenticated routers are allowed to exchange routing information. By implementing authentication, the network can ensure the integrity and security of the routing process, minimizing the risk of data traffic being redirected or compromised.

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57. On which port should Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) be configured on a switch?

Explanation

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) should be configured on an uplink port to another switch. This is because DAI is a security feature that validates ARP packets and prevents ARP spoofing attacks. By configuring DAI on the uplink port, the switch can inspect and verify ARP packets coming from other switches before forwarding them to the network. This helps ensure the integrity of the ARP process and protects against malicious activities. Configuring DAI on other types of ports, such as access ports or untrusted ports, may not provide the same level of protection.

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58. What is the default preconfigured interface for the outside network on a Cisco ASA 5505?

Explanation

The default preconfigured interface for the outside network on a Cisco ASA 5505 is VLAN 2.

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59. What is a feature of the TACACS+ protocol?

Explanation

The TACACS+ protocol encrypts the entire body of the packet, ensuring more secure communication. This encryption helps protect sensitive information from unauthorized access or interception. By encrypting the entire packet, TACACS+ provides an additional layer of security, making it harder for attackers to decipher the contents of the communication. This feature enhances the overall security of the protocol and helps safeguard the integrity and confidentiality of the transmitted data.

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60. What is the benefit of the network-based IPS (NIPS) over host-based IPS (HIPS) deployment models?

Explanation

The benefit of the network-based IPS (NIPS) over host-based IPS (HIPS) deployment models is that NIPS monitors network segments. Unlike HIPS, which focuses on individual host protection, NIPS is designed to monitor and analyze network traffic across multiple hosts and devices within a network segment. This allows NIPS to detect and prevent network-based attacks, such as unauthorized access attempts, malware infections, and data breaches, at a broader level, providing a more comprehensive and efficient security solution for the entire network.

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61. Which Cisco IOS subcommand is used to compile an IPS signature into memory

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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62. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the security levels of the interfaces on ASA1, what traffic will be allowed on the interfaces?

Explanation

Based on the security levels of the interfaces on ASA1, the traffic that will be allowed is traffic from the LAN and DMZ accessing the Internet. This is because the security levels are set in a way that allows traffic to flow from higher security levels to lower security levels. The LAN and DMZ have lower security levels than the Internet, so traffic from these interfaces can access the Internet. However, traffic from the Internet and LAN cannot access the DMZ, and traffic from the Internet and DMZ cannot access the LAN.

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63. What represents a best practice concerning discovery protocols such as CDP and LLDP on network devices?

Explanation

A best practice concerning discovery protocols such as CDP and LLDP on network devices is to disable both protocols on all interfaces where they are not required. This helps to minimize unnecessary network traffic and potential security risks. By disabling these protocols on unused interfaces, network administrators can ensure that only necessary devices are participating in the discovery process, improving overall network efficiency and security.

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64. What is the function of a policy map configuration when an ASA firewall is being configured?

Explanation

The function of a policy map configuration when an ASA firewall is being configured is to bind class maps with actions. A policy map is used to define the actions that should be taken on specific classes of traffic. Class maps are used to identify specific types of traffic based on criteria such as protocol, source or destination IP address, or port number. By binding class maps with actions in a policy map, the firewall can apply specific actions, such as prioritizing or dropping traffic, based on the identified classes of traffic.

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65. Which two features should be configured on end-user ports in order to prevent STP manipulation attacks( Choose two.)?

Explanation

BPDU guard and PortFast should be configured on end-user ports in order to prevent STP manipulation attacks. BPDU guard is used to prevent unauthorized devices from sending BPDUs, which can be used to manipulate the STP topology. PortFast allows the port to transition immediately to the forwarding state, bypassing the listening and learning states, which reduces the window of opportunity for an attacker to manipulate the STP. By enabling both features, the network can protect against STP manipulation attacks and maintain a secure and stable STP topology.

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66. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, which AAA command logs the use of EXEC session commands?

Explanation

The correct answer is "aaa accounting exec start-stop group tacacs+". This command enables accounting for EXEC session commands and logs their use. The "start-stop" option ensures that the start and stop times of each session are recorded. The "group tacacs+" specifies that the accounting information should be sent to a TACACS+ server for centralized logging and auditing.

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67. What is used to determine the root bridge when the priority of the switches are the same?

Explanation

When the priority of the switches is the same, the root bridge is determined based on the layer 2 address with the lowest hexadecimal value. Each switch has a unique layer 2 address, also known as a MAC address, which is used to identify it on the network. The switch with the lowest MAC address, when compared in hexadecimal format, is selected as the root bridge. This ensures that there is a consistent and deterministic method of selecting the root bridge in cases where the switch priorities are equal.

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68. What are two benefits of using a ZPF rather than a Classic Firewall? (Choose two.)

Explanation

ZPF allows interfaces to be placed into zones for IP inspection, which provides better control and visibility over network traffic. The ZPF is not dependent on ACLs, eliminating the need for complex access control configurations and simplifying the firewall setup. ZPF policies are easy to read and troubleshoot, making it easier for administrators to understand and maintain the firewall rules.

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69. The following authentication configuration is applied to a router. aaa authentication login default tacacs+ local enable none Several days later the TACACS+ server goes off-line. Which method will be used to authenticate users?

Explanation

When the TACACS+ server goes offline, the router will not be able to authenticate users using TACACS+. However, since the "none" keyword is specified in the authentication configuration, the router will not fall back to any other authentication method. Therefore, users will not be able to authenticate and access the router until the TACACS+ server comes back online or an alternative authentication method is configured.

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70. Which type of traffic is subject to filtering on an ASA 5505 device?

Explanation

On an ASA 5505 device, the traffic that is subject to filtering is "inside to DMZ". This means that any traffic originating from the internal network (inside) and going towards the demilitarized zone (DMZ) will be filtered and inspected by the ASA 5505 device. This allows for greater control and security measures to be applied to the traffic flowing between these two zones, ensuring that any potential threats or unauthorized access attempts are detected and blocked.

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71. What two new features are offered by Cisco ASA 5500-X with FirePOWER service when compared with the original ASA 5500 series? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The Cisco ASA 5500-X with FirePOWER service offers two new features when compared with the original ASA 5500 series: advanced malware protection and application control and URL filtering. Advanced malware protection helps to detect and block sophisticated malware threats, providing an additional layer of security. Application control and URL filtering allow administrators to control and manage the applications and websites that can be accessed through the firewall, enhancing network security and preventing unauthorized access and data breaches.

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72. Which two protocols can be selected using the Cisco AnyConnect VPN Wizard to protect the traffic inside a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Wizard allows users to select SSL and IPsec protocols to protect the traffic inside a VPN tunnel. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a widely used protocol that provides secure communication over the internet, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of data. IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a suite of protocols that authenticates and encrypts IP packets, providing secure communication between network devices. Both SSL and IPsec protocols are commonly used in VPNs to ensure secure and private communication between remote users and the corporate network.

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73. Which two end points can be on the other side of an ASA site-to-site VPN configured using ASDM? (Choose two.)

Explanation

An ASA site-to-site VPN can be configured using ASDM to connect two different networks securely. The VPN can be established between two ASA devices or between an ASA device and an ISR router. Therefore, the two end points that can be on the other side of an ASA site-to-site VPN configured using ASDM are an ISR router and another ASA device.

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74. What two assurances does digital signing provide about code that is downloaded from the Internet? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Digital signing provides two assurances about code downloaded from the internet: the code has not been modified since it left the software publisher, and the code is authentic and actually sourced by the publisher. Digital signing uses cryptographic techniques to create a unique signature for the code, which can be verified by the recipient. This ensures that the code has not been tampered with and that it originates from the trusted publisher. It does not guarantee that the code is error-free or virus-free, nor does it involve encryption with private and public keys.

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75. Which security measure is best used to limit the success of a reconnaissance attack from within a campus area network?

Explanation

Implementing encryption for sensitive traffic is the best security measure to limit the success of a reconnaissance attack from within a campus area network. Encryption ensures that the data being transmitted is secure and cannot be easily intercepted or understood by unauthorized individuals. By encrypting sensitive traffic, even if an attacker gains access to the network, they will not be able to decipher the encrypted data, thereby protecting the confidentiality and integrity of the information. This measure is particularly important when dealing with sensitive data such as personal information, financial transactions, or confidential business communications.

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76. What is a function of the GRE protocol?

Explanation

The GRE protocol is used to encapsulate multiple OSI Layer 3 protocol packet types inside an IP tunnel. This means that it allows different types of network protocols to be transmitted over an IP network. By encapsulating these packets, the GRE protocol enables the transmission of diverse protocols such as IP, IPX, and AppleTalk over an IP network infrastructure.

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77. In which two instances will traffic be denied as it crosses the ASA 5505 device? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The ASA 5505 device will deny traffic in two instances: when traffic originates from the DMZ network and is going to the inside network, and when traffic originates from the outside network and is going to the inside network. This means that any traffic coming from the DMZ network and any traffic coming from the outside network and trying to reach the inside network will be blocked by the ASA 5505 device.

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78. Which feature is specific to the Security Plus upgrade license of an ASA 5505 and provides increased availability?

Explanation

The Security Plus upgrade license of an ASA 5505 provides the feature of redundant ISP connections, which allows for increased availability. This means that the ASA 5505 can have multiple internet service providers (ISPs) connected to it, ensuring that if one ISP goes down or experiences issues, the ASA can automatically switch to the backup ISP without any interruption in connectivity. This redundancy feature helps to ensure that the network remains accessible and available even in the event of an ISP failure.

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79. A security awareness session is best suited for which topic?

Explanation

A security awareness session is best suited for the topic of "how to install and maintain virus protection" because it focuses on educating individuals about the necessary steps to protect their systems from viruses. This topic is crucial in promoting awareness and providing practical knowledge on virus protection, which is a fundamental aspect of maintaining security in any organization or personal computer.

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80. What are two drawbacks in assigning user privilege levels on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The first drawback is that assigning a command with multiple keywords allows access to all commands using those keywords. This means that if a user is granted access to a command with multiple keywords, they will have access to all commands associated with those keywords, even if they were not explicitly granted access to them. This can lead to potential security risks if sensitive commands are inadvertently made accessible.

The second drawback is that commands from a lower privilege level are always executable at a higher level. This means that if a user has a lower privilege level and is granted access to a specific command, they can still execute that command at a higher privilege level. This can result in unauthorized access to sensitive commands or configurations.

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81. What function is provided by the Tripwire network security tool?

Explanation

The Tripwire network security tool provides the function of security policy compliance. This means that it helps ensure that an organization's systems and networks are in adherence to the established security policies and standards. It helps detect any unauthorized changes or modifications in the system configuration and alerts the administrators, enabling them to take necessary actions to maintain compliance and prevent potential security breaches.

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82. What are three components of a technical security policy? (Choose three.)

Explanation

A technical security policy is a set of guidelines and procedures that outline the measures to be taken to protect an organization's technical infrastructure. The three components of a technical security policy mentioned in the answer are:

1. Acceptable Use Policy: This policy defines the acceptable and unacceptable use of an organization's technology resources by its employees. It helps in ensuring that employees understand their responsibilities and obligations when using company resources.

2. Remote Access Policy: This policy governs the secure remote access to an organization's network and systems. It establishes guidelines for accessing the network remotely, including authentication requirements, encryption standards, and acceptable use of remote access tools.

3. Network Access Policy: This policy outlines the rules and procedures for granting and managing access to an organization's network. It includes guidelines for network authentication, access control, and monitoring to protect against unauthorized access and ensure network security.

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83. Which security implementation will provide management plane protection for a network device?

Explanation

Role-based access control (RBAC) is a security implementation that provides management plane protection for a network device. RBAC ensures that only authorized individuals with specific roles and responsibilities can access and manage the device. It assigns permissions and privileges based on the user's role, allowing them to perform only the necessary actions. This helps in preventing unauthorized access and potential security breaches, ensuring the integrity and confidentiality of the network device.

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84. What are two characteristics of a stateful firewall? (Choose two.)

Explanation

A stateful firewall uses connection information maintained in a state table to keep track of the state of network connections. This allows the firewall to make more informed decisions about allowing or blocking traffic. Additionally, a stateful firewall analyzes traffic at Layers 3, 4, and 5 of the OSI model, which includes the network, transport, and session layers. By inspecting traffic at these layers, the firewall can gain a deeper understanding of the data being transmitted and make more accurate decisions about whether to allow or block it.

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85. An organization has configured an IPS solution to use atomic alerts. What type of response will occur when a signature is detected?

Explanation

When an organization configures an IPS solution to use atomic alerts, an alert will be triggered each time a signature is detected. This means that whenever the IPS system identifies a specific pattern or behavior that matches a known threat, it will immediately generate an alert to notify the administrators or security personnel. This allows for a real-time response to potential security incidents, enabling prompt investigation and mitigation actions to be taken.

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86. Fill in the blank.? A stateful signature is also known as a ________ signature.

Explanation

A stateful signature is also known as a composite signature. This term is used to describe a signature that incorporates multiple components or elements, often representing different aspects or attributes of the signer. The composite signature can be used to provide a more comprehensive and detailed representation of the signer's identity or authorization. It may involve combining different types of signatures, such as digital signatures, biometric signatures, or cryptographic signatures, to create a more robust and secure authentication method.

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87. Which two practices are associated with securing the features and performance of router operating systems? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The two practices associated with securing the features and performance of router operating systems are keeping a secure copy of router operating system images and configuring the router with the maximum amount of memory possible. Keeping a secure copy of the operating system images ensures that in case of any issues or attacks, the router can be restored to a known, secure state. Configuring the router with maximum memory allows it to handle larger workloads and prevents performance degradation.

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88. What two algorithms can be part of an IPsec policy to provide encryption and hashing to protect interesting traffic? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The two algorithms that can be part of an IPsec policy to provide encryption and hashing to protect interesting traffic are AES and SHA. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that provides strong encryption for data confidentiality. SHA (Secure Hash Algorithm) is a hashing algorithm that ensures data integrity by generating a unique hash value for the transmitted data. Both AES and SHA are commonly used in IPsec to secure network communications.

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89. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Security Device Event Exchange (SDEE) feature supported by the Cisco IOS IPS?

Explanation

The correct answer states that SDEE notification is disabled by default, meaning that it does not receive and process events from the Cisco IOS IPS unless SDEE notification is enabled. This implies that the user must specifically enable SDEE notification in order to receive and process events from the Cisco IOS IPS.

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90. Which two conditions must be met in order for a network administrator to be able to remotely manage multiple ASAs with Cisco ASDM? (Choose two.)

Explanation

To remotely manage multiple ASAs with Cisco ASDM, two conditions must be met. First, all ASAs must be running the same version of ASDM. This ensures compatibility and allows for seamless management across the network. Second, ASDM must be run as a local application, meaning it should be installed and accessed from the administrator's local machine. This allows for remote access and control of the ASAs without physically being present at each device.

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91. What is the one major difference between local AAA authentication and using the login local command when configuring device access authentication?

Explanation

Local AAA authentication provides a way to configure backup methods of authentication, which means that if the primary authentication method fails, the device can fall back to a secondary method for authentication. On the other hand, the login local command does not provide this capability. It simply requires the administrator to manually configure the usernames and passwords on the device. Therefore, the major difference between local AAA authentication and using the login local command is that local AAA authentication allows for backup authentication methods, while login local does not.

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92. A network administrator enters the single-connection command. What effect does this command have on AAA operation?

Explanation

The correct answer states that the "single-connection" command allows a Cisco ACS server to minimize delay by establishing persistent TCP connections. This means that instead of establishing a new TCP session for every authorization request, the server maintains a single connection, reducing the overhead and delay associated with establishing multiple connections. This can improve the efficiency and performance of the AAA operation.

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93. What are three characteristics of SIEM? (Choose three.)

Explanation

SIEM can be implemented as software or as a service, allowing organizations to choose the deployment method that best suits their needs and infrastructure. It examines logs and events from systems and applications to detect security threats, helping to identify and respond to potential attacks. Additionally, SIEM consolidates duplicate event data to minimize the volume of gathered data, making it easier for security teams to analyze and prioritize security events.

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94. Which two ports can send and receive Layer 2 traffic from a community port on a PVLAN? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Promiscuous ports and community ports belonging to the same community can send and receive Layer 2 traffic from a community port on a PVLAN. Promiscuous ports are able to communicate with all ports within the PVLAN, including community ports. Community ports belonging to the same community can also communicate with each other within the PVLAN. Therefore, these two options are the correct choices for sending and receiving Layer 2 traffic from a community port on a PVLAN.

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95. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the port security feature on switch SWC. The administrator issued the command show port-security interface fa 0/2 to verify the configuration. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The output of the command "show port-security interface fa 0/2" indicates that the port is currently up and there is no device currently connected to this port. It also shows that security violations will cause this port to shut down immediately. Therefore, the correct conclusions from the output are: This port is currently up, security violations will cause this port to shut down immediately, and there is no device currently connected to this port.

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96. Which procedure is recommended to mitigate the chances of ARP spoofing?

Explanation

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is a security feature that can help mitigate the chances of ARP spoofing. ARP spoofing is a technique used by attackers to intercept network traffic and launch various attacks. DAI validates the ARP packets by verifying the IP-to-MAC address bindings in the DHCP snooping database, thus preventing ARP spoofing attacks. Enabling DAI on the management VLAN ensures that the ARP packets on the management VLAN are inspected and validated, reducing the chances of ARP spoofing and enhancing network security.

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97. Which two statements describe the 8 Ethernet ports in the backplane of a Cisco ASA 5506-X device? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The two statements that describe the 8 Ethernet ports in the backplane of a Cisco ASA 5506-X device are:
1) These ports all require IP addresses - This means that each of the Ethernet ports needs to be assigned an IP address in order to function properly.
2) They are all routed ports - This indicates that all of the Ethernet ports are configured to operate in a routed mode, allowing them to forward traffic between different networks.

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98. An administrator assigned a level of router access to the user ADMIN using the commands below.? Router(config)# privilege exec level 14 show ip route Router(config)# enable algorithm-type scrypt secret level 14 cisco-level-10 Router(config)# username ADMIN privilege 14 algorithm-type scrypt secret cisco-level-10 Which two actions are permitted to the user ADMIN? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The user ADMIN is assigned privilege level 14, which allows them to issue the show version command. Additionally, the user can only execute the subcommands under the show ip route command. This means they have restricted access and can only view specific information related to routing.

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What is algorithm-type to protect the data in transit?
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator can ping the S0/0/1 interface...
What is negotiated in the establishment of an IPsec tunnel between two...
Which security policy outlines the overall security goals for managers...
What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network...
Match the network security testing technique with how it is used to...
An administrator workstation connects to a switch that connects to the...
A user successfully logs in to a corporate network via a VPN...
What determines which switch becomes the STP root bridge for a given...
Why are DES keys considered weak keys?
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA...
What type of algorithms require sender and receiver to exchange a...
What are two tasks that can be accomplished with the Nmap and Zenmap...
What Layer 2 attack is mitigated by disabling Dynamic Trunking...
What is a feature of a Cisco IOS Zone-Based Policy Firewall?
What is a benefit of using a next-generation firewall rather than a...
Why is hashing cryptographically stronger compared to a cyclical...
What is indicated by the use of the local-case keyword in a local AAA...
What algorithm is used to provide data integrity of a message through...
What is a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS...
The corporate security policy dictates that the traffic from the...
Refer to the exhibit. The ip verify source command is applied on...
Which network security tool allows an administrator to test and detect...
Refer to the exhibit. If a network administrator is using ASDM to...
On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP...
A company deploys a hub-and-spoke VPN topology where the security...
Which two types of hackers are typically classified as grey hat...
Which statement describes the use of certificate classes in the PKI?
What is a characteristic of most modern viruses?
What mechanism is used by an ASA 5505 device to allow inspected...
What type of ACL is designed for use in the configuration of an ASA to...
A security technician is evaluating a new operations security proposal...
Which three actions can the Cisco IOS Firewall IPS feature be...
Which interface option could be set through ASDM for a Cisco ASA?
A network analyst wants to monitor the activity of all new interns....
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be gathered...
In an AAA-enabled network, a user issues the configure terminal...
What is an advantage in using a packet filtering firewall versus a...
What provides both secure segmentation and threat defense in a Secure...
If a network administrator wants to track the usage of FTP services,...
Which security implementation will provide control plane protection...
Which security policy characteristic defines the purpose of standards?
Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be made from the show...
A company deploys a Cisco ASA with the Cisco CWS connector enabled as...
A network technician is attempting to resolve problems with the NAT...
What is a characteristic of a role-based CLI view of router...
Which statement describes a characteristic of the IKE protocol?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator issues these IOS login...
What is required for auto detection and negotiation of NAT when...
What is an advantage of logging packets that are seen by an IPS...
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration that is shown, which...
What is the purpose of a local username database if multiple ACS...
In a server-based AAA implementation, which protocol will allow the...
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the security levels of the interfaces...
Which IDS/IPS signature alarm will look for packets that are destined...
What are two reasons to enable OSPF routing protocol authentication on...
On which port should Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) be configured on a...
What is the default preconfigured interface for the outside network on...
What is a feature of the TACACS+ protocol?
What is the benefit of the network-based IPS (NIPS) over host-based...
Which Cisco IOS subcommand is used to compile an IPS signature into...
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the security levels of the interfaces...
What represents a best practice concerning discovery protocols such as...
What is the function of a policy map configuration when an ASA...
Which two features should be configured on end-user ports in order to...
Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, which AAA command...
What is used to determine the root bridge when the priority of the...
What are two benefits of using a ZPF rather than a Classic Firewall?...
The following authentication configuration is applied to a router. ...
Which type of traffic is subject to filtering on an ASA 5505 device?
What two new features are offered by Cisco ASA 5500-X with FirePOWER...
Which two protocols can be selected using the Cisco AnyConnect VPN...
Which two end points can be on the other side of an ASA site-to-site...
What two assurances does digital signing provide about code that is...
Which security measure is best used to limit the success of a...
What is a function of the GRE protocol?
In which two instances will traffic be denied as it crosses the ASA...
Which feature is specific to the Security Plus upgrade license of an...
A security awareness session is best suited for which topic?
What are two drawbacks in assigning user privilege levels on a Cisco...
What function is provided by the Tripwire network security tool?
What are three components of a technical security policy? (Choose...
Which security implementation will provide management plane protection...
What are two characteristics of a stateful firewall? (Choose two.)
An organization has configured an IPS solution to use atomic alerts....
Fill in the blank.? ...
Which two practices are associated with securing the features and...
What two algorithms can be part of an IPsec policy to provide...
Which statement describes a characteristic of the Security Device...
Which two conditions must be met in order for a network administrator...
What is the one major difference between local AAA authentication and...
A network administrator enters the single-connection command. What...
What are three characteristics of SIEM? (Choose three.)
Which two ports can send and receive Layer 2 traffic from a community...
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is configuring the...
Which procedure is recommended to mitigate the chances of ARP...
Which two statements describe the 8 Ethernet ports in the backplane of...
An administrator assigned a level of router access to the user ADMIN...
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