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1. Which of the following commands is used in global configuration mode to enable AAA?

Explanation

The command "aaa new-model" is used in global configuration mode to enable AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) services on a Cisco device. AAA provides a framework for controlling access to network resources and managing user privileges. By enabling AAA with this command, the device will be able to authenticate users, authorize their access to specific resources, and track their activities for accounting purposes.

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CCNA Security Quizzes & Trivia

CCNA Security for certification practice. Take this quiz and learn more about ​CCNA routing and switching.

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2. What type of hacker attempts to hack telephony systems?

Explanation

A phreaker is a type of hacker who attempts to hack telephony systems. Phreakers are mainly interested in manipulating or exploiting telephone networks and services. They may engage in activities such as making free calls, bypassing billing systems, or gaining unauthorized access to voicemail boxes. Unlike other types of hackers, phreakers focus specifically on telephony systems and their vulnerabilities.

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3. What Cisco IOS feature provides a graphical user interface for configuring a wide variety of features on an IOS router and also provides multiple "smart wizards" and configuration tutorials?

Explanation

SDM stands for Security Device Manager, which is a Cisco IOS feature that provides a graphical user interface for configuring a wide variety of features on an IOS router. It also offers multiple "smart wizards" and configuration tutorials, making it easier for users to configure and manage their routers.

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4. What are the three primary goals of network security?

Explanation

The three primary goals of network security are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals can access and view sensitive information. Integrity ensures that data remains unaltered and trustworthy during transmission and storage. Availability ensures that network resources and services are accessible and usable to authorized users when needed. These goals collectively aim to protect the privacy, reliability, and accessibility of network data and resources.

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5. Which of the following is a weakness in an information system that an attacker might leverage to gain unauthorized access to the system or data on the system?

Explanation

A vulnerability refers to a weakness in an information system that can be exploited by an attacker to gain unauthorized access to the system or the data it holds. It represents a security flaw or loophole that can be targeted by an attacker to compromise the system's integrity, confidentiality, or availability. By understanding and exploiting vulnerabilities, attackers can bypass security measures and gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or control over the system. Therefore, vulnerability is the correct answer as it represents a potential weakness that attackers can leverage to compromise an information system.

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6. What security design philosophy uses a layered approach to eliminate single points of failure and provide overlapping protection?

Explanation

Defense in Depth is a security design philosophy that uses a layered approach to eliminate single points of failure and provide overlapping protection. This means that multiple layers of security measures are implemented to protect against potential threats. By having multiple layers, even if one layer fails, there are still other layers in place to provide protection. This approach helps to enhance the overall security of a system or network by making it more difficult for attackers to penetrate and exploit vulnerabilities.

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7. Which of the following best describes a smurf attack?

Explanation

A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack where the attacker sends a ping request to a subnet, called a smurf amplifier, with the source IP address spoofed to be the target system. The devices on the subnet then send ping replies to the target system, overwhelming it with a flood of responses. This type of attack can cause a denial of service by consuming the target's network bandwidth and resources, making it inaccessible to legitimate users.

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8. Which of the following is a method of gaining access to a system that bypasses normal security measures?

Explanation

Creating a back door is a method of gaining access to a system that bypasses normal security measures. This involves creating a secret entry point or vulnerability in the system that allows unauthorized access without triggering any security alarms or measures. It provides a way for attackers to enter the system undetected and carry out malicious activities without being detected by traditional security mechanisms. This method is often used by hackers to gain persistent access to a system and maintain control over it for an extended period of time.

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9. Which of the following offers a variety of security solutions including firewall, IPS, VPN, Antispyware, Antivirus and Antiphising features?

Explanation

The Cisco ASA 5500 series security appliance offers a variety of security solutions including firewall, IPS (Intrusion Prevention System), VPN (Virtual Private Network), Antispyware, Antivirus, and Antiphishing features. This appliance is designed to provide comprehensive security for networks, protecting against various threats such as unauthorized access, malware, and phishing attacks. It is a versatile solution that combines multiple security features into a single device, making it an ideal choice for organizations looking for a comprehensive security solution.

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10. An IOS router's privileged mode, which you can access by entering the enable command followed by the appropriate password, has which privilege level?

Explanation

In an IOS router, the privileged mode is accessed by entering the enable command followed by the appropriate password. This mode has a privilege level of 15. This level allows users to access all router commands and make configuration changes. It is the highest privilege level in IOS routers, granting full administrative control over the device.

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11. In the banner motd # command, what does # represent?

Explanation

The correct answer is a delimiter indicating the beginning and the end of a message of the day. In the banner motd command, the # symbol is used to mark the start and end of the message of the day. It helps to separate the message from the rest of the configuration and makes it easier to identify and modify the MOTD.

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12. What management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?

Explanation

The management topology that keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic is OOB (Out-of-Band). OOB refers to a separate network or channel that is dedicated solely to managing and monitoring network devices. By using a separate network, management traffic can be kept isolated from production traffic, reducing the risk of interference or unauthorized access. This allows for more secure and efficient management of network devices.

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13. Where do most attacks on an organization's computer resources originate?

Explanation

Most attacks on an organization's computer resources originate from the inside network. This means that the attacks are carried out by individuals who have authorized access to the organization's network or systems. These attackers may be disgruntled employees, contractors, or other insiders with malicious intent. Insider attacks can be particularly damaging as the attackers often have knowledge of the organization's systems and may be able to bypass security measures more easily. It is important for organizations to have strong security protocols in place to detect and prevent insider attacks.

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14. What line configuration mode command would you enter to prevent a line (such as a console, aux, or vty line) connection from timing out because of inactivity?

Explanation

The correct answer is "exec-timeout 0 0". This command sets the timeout for the line to 0 minutes and 0 seconds, effectively disabling the timeout due to inactivity.

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15. What STP protection mechanism disables a switch port if the port receives a BPDU?

Explanation

BPDU Guard is the correct answer because it is a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) protection mechanism that is used to prevent the receipt of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) on a switch port. When BPDU Guard is enabled on a port, if the port receives a BPDU, it will be automatically disabled, effectively shutting down the port. This helps to prevent loops and ensure the stability of the STP network.

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16. To protect a routers image and configuration against a attackers attemp to erase those files, the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature keeps a secure copy of these files.  What are these files called?

Explanation

The files that are kept secure by the Cisco IOS Resilient Configuration feature to protect a router's image and configuration against attackers attempting to erase them are called the Bootset.

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17. Information about a managed device's resources and activity is defined by a series of objects.  What defines the structure of these management objects?

Explanation

The structure of the management objects that define the information about a managed device's resources and activity is defined by MIB (Management Information Base). MIB is a database that stores and organizes the information needed for network management and monitoring. It provides a hierarchical structure and a set of rules for accessing and managing the data related to the device's resources and activity.

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18. The enable secret password appears as an M5 hash in a router's configuration file,  whereas the enable password is not hashed.  Why does Cisco still support the use of both enable secret and enable passwords in a routers configuration?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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19. When SSH is configured, what is the Cisco minimumrecomended modulus value?

Explanation

The Cisco minimum recommended modulus value for SSH configuration is 1024. This refers to the size of the encryption key used for secure communication. A larger modulus value provides stronger encryption and better security. Cisco recommends using a minimum modulus value of 1024 to ensure sufficient security for SSH connections.

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20. If you click the configure button along the top of Ciscos SDM's GUI, which Tasks button allows you to configure such features as SSH, NTP, SNMP and syslog?

Explanation

The "Additional Tasks" button allows you to configure features such as SSH, NTP, SNMP, and syslog. This button provides additional configuration options beyond the basic tasks available in Cisco SDM's GUI.

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21. The U.S government places classified data into which classes?

Explanation

The U.S government places classified data into different classes, namely SBU (Sensitive But Unclassified), Confidential, Secret, and Top Secret. SBU refers to data that is sensitive but not classified. Confidential data is considered private and its unauthorized disclosure could cause damage to national security. Secret data is more sensitive than confidential data, and its unauthorized disclosure could cause serious damage to national security. Top Secret data is the highest level of classification, and its unauthorized disclosure could cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.

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22. How do you define the authentication methos that will be used with AAA?

Explanation

The authentication method used with AAA is defined with a method list. This list includes the specific authentication methods that will be used for authentication. Each method in the list is applied in a specific order until a successful authentication is achieved.

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23. A Cisco Catalyst switch stores port MAC address assignments in what type of table?

Explanation

A Cisco Catalyst switch stores port MAC address assignments in a CAM (Content Addressable Memory) table. This table is used to map MAC addresses to specific switch ports, allowing the switch to efficiently forward network traffic based on the destination MAC address. The CAM table is updated dynamically as devices send traffic through the switch, and it is essential for the switch to make accurate forwarding decisions.

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24. What kind of MAC address is dynamicly learned by a switch port and then added to the switches's running configuration?

Explanation

A sticky secure MAC address is dynamically learned by a switch port and then added to the switch's running configuration. This type of MAC address is learned dynamically when a device sends traffic through the switch port, and it is then added to the switch's MAC address table. The switch will continue to forward traffic to this MAC address even if the device is temporarily disconnected, ensuring that the device can easily reconnect without causing disruption. This feature is commonly used in environments where network security is a concern, as it allows for secure and efficient network access.

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25. Which of the following is a continually changing document that dictates a set of guidelines for network use?

Explanation

A security policy is a continually changing document that dictates a set of guidelines for network use. It outlines the rules and procedures that need to be followed to ensure the security and integrity of the network. This document is regularly updated to address new threats and vulnerabilities, as well as to adapt to changes in technology and business requirements. It serves as a reference for employees and network administrators to understand their responsibilities and the measures they need to take to protect the network and its resources.

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26. Which of the following makes the end-user community concious of security issues without necessarily giving any in-depth procedural instruction?

Explanation

Awareness is the correct answer because it refers to the act of making the end-user community conscious of security issues. Unlike education or training, which involve providing in-depth procedural instructions, awareness focuses on raising general knowledge and understanding about security issues without going into specific details. It aims to make individuals aware of potential risks and threats, encouraging them to be vigilant and take necessary precautions without providing step-by-step instructions on how to address each issue. Remediation, on the other hand, refers to the process of fixing or resolving security issues, which is not related to making the end-user community conscious of these issues.

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27. How is a CLI view different from a privilege level?

Explanation

A CLI view is a specific configuration that allows a user to access and execute only the commands that are configured for that particular view. On the other hand, a privilege level allows a user to access and execute commands available to that level and all the lower levels. This means that a user with a higher privilege level can access and execute a wider range of commands compared to a user with a CLI view, who is restricted to only the commands configured for that specific view.

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28. Each Cisco ACL ends with which of the following?

Explanation

Each Cisco Access Control List (ACL) is a set of rules that determines what traffic is allowed or denied in a network. At the end of every ACL, there is an implicit deny all statement. This means that if a packet does not match any of the rules in the ACL, it will be denied by default. Therefore, the correct answer is "an implicit deny all."

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29. What are 2 types of IP spoffing attacks?

Explanation

Nonblind spoofing and blind spoofing are two types of IP spoofing attacks. In nonblind spoofing, the attacker sends packets to a target system with a spoofed source IP address, pretending to be a trusted entity. This allows the attacker to bypass security measures that rely on IP addresses for authentication. On the other hand, blind spoofing involves the attacker sending packets to a target system without receiving any response. This type of attack is more challenging as the attacker has to guess the sequence numbers of the packets to establish a successful connection.

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30. When you configure Cisco IOS login enhancements for virtual connections, what is the "quiet period"?

Explanation

The "quiet period" refers to the period of time in which virtual login attempts are blocked, following repeated failed login attempts. This is a security measure to prevent unauthorized access by blocking further login attempts for a certain duration after multiple failed attempts. During this quiet period, the system restricts any further login attempts from the same source to protect against potential brute-force attacks or unauthorized access.

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31. Which of the following best describes vishing?

Explanation

Vishing refers to the act of influencing users to provide personal information over a phone. This is typically done through phone calls where the attacker pretends to be a legitimate entity, such as a bank or a government agency, in order to trick the victim into revealing sensitive information like passwords, credit card numbers, or social security numbers. Vishing attacks rely on social engineering techniques to manipulate and deceive individuals into disclosing their personal information, which can then be used for fraudulent purposes.

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32. What Cisco Catalyst switch feature can isolate ports from one another, even though those ports belong to the same VLAN?

Explanation

Private VLAN is a Cisco Catalyst switch feature that can isolate ports from one another, even though those ports belong to the same VLAN. Private VLANs provide an additional layer of security by allowing ports within the same VLAN to be segregated into separate subnets or communities. This prevents communication between ports within the same VLAN, enhancing network security and preventing unauthorized access or data leakage.

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33. Which security policy component contains mandatory practices ( as opposed to recommendations or step-by-step instructions)?

Explanation

Standards are a security policy component that contains mandatory practices. Unlike guidelines, which are recommendations, or procedures, which are step-by-step instructions, standards are a set of mandatory requirements that must be followed. Tenets, on the other hand, refer to the principles or beliefs that guide the development and implementation of security policies, but they do not necessarily contain specific practices. Therefore, the correct answer is standards.

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34. Which of the following are authentication methods that may be used with AAA?

Explanation

Authentication methods that may be used with AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) include Local, TACACS+, and RADIUS. The Local method refers to authenticating users locally on the device itself. TACACS+ and RADIUS are both remote authentication methods, allowing users to authenticate against a central server. TACACS+ provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting services, while RADIUS combines these functions into a single protocol. IPSec, on the other hand, is not an authentication method but a security protocol used for encrypting and authenticating IP packets.

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35. Which of the following router services can best help administrators correlate events appearing in a log file?

Explanation

NTP (Network Time Protocol) can best help administrators correlate events appearing in a log file. NTP is a protocol used to synchronize the time of network devices. By ensuring that all devices have the same accurate time, administrators can easily compare events from different devices and correlate them accurately. This is essential for troubleshooting and identifying the sequence of events in a network.

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36. If a switch is running in the fail-open mode, what happens when  the switches CAM table fills to capacity and a new frame arrives?

Explanation

When a switch is running in fail-open mode and its CAM table fills to capacity, a new frame that arrives will be copied and forwarded out to all switch ports except the port it was received on. This allows the switch to still forward the frame to its intended destination, even though the CAM table is full. By sending the frame out all ports, the switch increases the chances of reaching the correct destination, even if it means broadcasting the frame to all connected devices.

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37. What are 3 potential responses of a switch port to a security violation?

Explanation

When a security violation occurs on a switch port, there are three potential responses. "Protect" refers to the action of allowing the traffic to continue but logging the violation. "Restrict" means that the switch port will only allow specific authorized traffic while blocking all other traffic. "Shut down" is the most severe response, as it completely disables the switch port, cutting off all traffic. These responses help to prevent unauthorized access and protect the network from potential threats.

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38. Which 3 individuals are most likely to be intimately involved with the creation of a security policy?

Explanation

The three individuals most likely to be intimately involved with the creation of a security policy are the Chief Security Officer (CSO), Chief Information Officer (CIO), and Chief Information Security Officer (CISO). The CSO is responsible for overseeing and implementing security measures within an organization, making them a key player in policy creation. The CIO is responsible for managing the organization's information technology systems and infrastructure, and their involvement ensures that security policies align with the overall IT strategy. The CISO is specifically focused on information security and is responsible for developing and implementing security policies and procedures. Together, these three individuals bring the necessary expertise and authority to create an effective security policy.

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39. What are 2 automated approaches for hardening the security of a Cisco IOS Router?

Explanation

AutoSecure and Cisco SDM's One-Step Lockdown are two automated approaches for hardening the security of a Cisco IOS Router. AutoSecure is a feature that automatically applies security recommendations and best practices to the router configuration, helping to protect against common vulnerabilities. Cisco SDM's One-Step Lockdown is a tool that simplifies the process of securing the router by providing a step-by-step guide and automatically applying security settings based on the selected security level. Both approaches aim to enhance the security of the Cisco IOS Router by automating the implementation of security measures.

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40. Which of the following is the basisof all major SAN transport technologies?

Explanation

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is the correct answer because it is the basis for all major Storage Area Network (SAN) transport technologies. SCSI is a set of standards for physically connecting and transferring data between computers and storage devices. It allows for high-speed data transfer and supports multiple devices on the same bus. Other options like ATA, IDE, and EIDE are not specific to SAN transport technologies and are commonly used for connecting storage devices to individual computers.

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41. All of the following are common elements of a network design.  Which one is the most important?

Explanation

The most important element of a network design is understanding the business needs. This is because the design should align with the goals and objectives of the organization. By considering the business needs, the network design can be tailored to support the specific requirements of the company, such as scalability, performance, and cost-effectiveness. Without understanding the business needs, the network design may not adequately meet the requirements of the organization, leading to inefficiencies and potential issues in the network infrastructure.

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42. What are  two options for running Cisco SDM?

Explanation

SDM (Security Device Manager) is a Cisco tool used for configuring and managing Cisco routers. It can be run from two different options. The first option is running SDM from a router flash, which means accessing and running the SDM software directly from the flash memory of the router. The second option is running SDM from a PC, which involves installing the SDM software on a computer and accessing the router's configuration through a web browser. These two options provide flexibility for users to choose the most convenient method for running SDM based on their specific needs and preferences.

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43. Which of the following ports are used with RADIUS authentication and authorization?

Explanation

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol used for authentication, authorization, and accounting of remote network users. It operates over both UDP and TCP protocols. UDP port 1645 is used for authentication, while UDP port 1812 is used for accounting. TCP port 49 is used for RADIUS accounting, not authentication or authorization. Therefore, the correct answer is UDP port 1645 and UDP port 1812.

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44. The great majority of software vulnerabilities that have been discovered are which of the following?

Explanation

Buffer overflows are the correct answer because they are the most common type of software vulnerability that has been discovered. A buffer overflow occurs when a program tries to write more data into a buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overflow into adjacent memory locations. This can lead to the corruption of data, execution of arbitrary code, and potential security breaches. As a result, buffer overflows have been a major concern for software developers and security experts, and numerous efforts have been made to mitigate and prevent them.

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45. What term refers to the electromagnetic interference (EMI) that can radiate from network cables?

Explanation

Emanations refer to the electromagnetic interference (EMI) that can radiate from network cables. EMI can be generated by the electrical signals transmitted through the cables and can interfere with other electronic devices or systems nearby. This interference can cause disruptions or distortions in the signals being transmitted, leading to communication errors or reduced network performance. Therefore, it is important to properly shield and manage network cables to minimize the emanations and ensure reliable and efficient communication.

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46. What are 3 characteristics of a Cisco Self-Defending Network?

Explanation

A Cisco Self-Defending Network has three key characteristics: integrated, collaborative, and adaptive. "Integrated" means that the network components work together seamlessly, sharing information and coordinating their actions to provide comprehensive security. "Collaborative" refers to the network's ability to communicate and cooperate with other security systems and devices, enhancing overall protection. "Adaptive" means that the network can dynamically adjust its security measures based on real-time threats and changing conditions, ensuring continuous defense. These characteristics enable a Cisco Self-Defending Network to effectively detect, prevent, and respond to security threats, making it a robust and reliable solution.

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47. When is a Cisco Catalyst switch port placed in a restricted VLAN?

Explanation

A Cisco Catalyst switch port is placed in a restricted VLAN when a connected client fails to authenticate after a certain number of attempts. This means that if the client fails to provide the correct credentials or authentication information within a specified number of tries, the switch will automatically place the port in a restricted VLAN. This is a security measure to prevent unauthorized access to the network.

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48. Which of the following attacks against VoIP network attemps to deplete the resources available on a server?

Explanation

Launching a DoS (Denial of Service) attack is a type of attack that aims to overwhelm a server or network with a flood of traffic or requests, causing it to become unavailable or slow down significantly. By launching a DoS attack against a VoIP network, the attacker attempts to deplete the resources available on the server, making it unable to handle legitimate user requests or causing call quality degradation. This can disrupt communication and render the VoIP service unusable for legitimate users.

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49. VoIP spam is also known by which of the following acronyms?

Explanation

SPIT stands for "Spam over Internet Telephony" and refers to unwanted or unsolicited messages, advertisements, or calls that are sent over Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) systems. This form of spamming is similar to email spam but occurs through voice communication channels. SPIT is a significant issue in the telecommunications industry, as it disrupts legitimate communication and can lead to privacy and security concerns.

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50. What kind of intergrity attack is a collection of small attacks the result in a larger attack when combined?

Explanation

A salami attack is a type of integrity attack where small, often unnoticed, slices of data or money are taken or manipulated over a period of time. These small attacks may seem insignificant on their own, but when combined, they can result in a significant loss or impact. This type of attack is often used in financial fraud, where small amounts of money are deducted from multiple accounts, eventually leading to a substantial sum. It is called a salami attack because it is similar to slicing off small pieces of salami, which individually may not be noticeable, but collectively can make a significant impact.

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51. To configure accounting in AAA, from which mode should the aaa accounting command be issued?

Explanation

The aaa accounting command should be issued from the Global configuration mode in order to configure accounting in AAA. This mode allows the user to make changes to the global configuration of the device, including enabling and configuring AAA accounting. By issuing the command in this mode, the user can specify the accounting parameters and settings that will be applied to all users and services on the device.

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52. If you need to use SNMP on your network, what version does Cisco recommend?

Explanation

Cisco recommends using SNMP version 3 for network management. SNMP version 3 provides enhanced security features such as authentication, encryption, and access control, which makes it more secure compared to previous versions. It also offers improved performance and scalability, making it the preferred choice for managing Cisco networks.

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53. Which of the following is not a phase in a worm attack?

Explanation

The correct answer is Eradicate. In a worm attack, the phases typically involve Paralyze, Propagate, and Persist. Paralyze refers to the initial stage where the worm compromises the target system. Propagate involves the worm spreading to other systems. Persist refers to the worm establishing a foothold on the compromised system to ensure longevity. Eradicate, on the other hand, does not typically occur in a worm attack as the goal is usually to maintain control and continue spreading rather than eliminating the worm.

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54. Which of the following is not a reasonfor an organization to incorperate a SAN in its enterprise infrastructure?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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55. Which of the following VoIP components can permit or deny a call attemp based on a networks available bandwidth?

Explanation

A gatekeeper in VoIP is responsible for controlling and managing the communication between endpoints. It can permit or deny a call attempt based on the available bandwidth of the network. The gatekeeper analyzes the network's capacity and determines if it can handle the call, ensuring that the call quality is not compromised by insufficient bandwidth. Therefore, the gatekeeper is the correct answer as it has the capability to permit or deny a call attempt based on the network's available bandwidth.

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56. What type of firewall is required to open appropiate UDP ports required for RTP streams?

Explanation

A stateful firewall is required to open appropriate UDP ports required for RTP streams. A stateful firewall keeps track of the state of network connections and can make decisions based on the context of the traffic. In the case of RTP streams, which use UDP for real-time communication, the stateful firewall can dynamically open and close the necessary UDP ports based on the ongoing session. This allows the firewall to selectively allow the RTP traffic while still providing security by monitoring the state of the connections.

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57. Which of the following are Cisco best practice recommendations for securing a network?

Explanation

The answer suggests three best practice recommendations for securing a network: routinely applying patches to operating systems and applications, disabling unneeded services and ports on hosts, and requiring strong passwords with password expiration enabled. These practices help to ensure that the network is protected against potential vulnerabilities, such as outdated software, unnecessary services that could be exploited, and weak passwords. By regularly applying patches, disabling unneeded services and ports, and enforcing strong passwords, the network can be better protected against potential security threats.

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58. What Cisco Catalyst switch feature can be used in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) solution to cause the switchto send a copy of traffic for analysis by an IDS sensor?

Explanation

SPAN stands for Switch Port Analyzer. It is a Cisco Catalyst switch feature that can be used in an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) solution to send a copy of network traffic to an IDS sensor for analysis. By configuring SPAN on the switch, it allows the IDS sensor to monitor and analyze network traffic without impacting the normal flow of data. This feature is commonly used for network troubleshooting, monitoring, and security analysis purposes.

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59. Some ISRs include a USB port, into which a flash drive can connect.  What are three common uses for the flash drive?

Explanation

A flash drive can be used to store configuration files, digital certificates, and copies of the IOS image. Storing configuration files on a flash drive allows for easy backup and transfer of device configurations. Storing digital certificates on a flash drive is useful for secure authentication and encryption purposes. Storing copies of the IOS image on a flash drive enables easy installation or recovery of the operating system on the device.

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60. What happens to a client that successfully authenticates with a Cisco Catalyst switch port using 802.1x but also creates a port security violation?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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61. Which type of law typically involves the enforcement of regulations by government agencies?

Explanation

Administrative law typically involves the enforcement of regulations by government agencies. This type of law governs the activities of administrative agencies, such as licensing, rule-making, and adjudication. It deals with the legal principles and procedures that govern the actions of these agencies, ensuring that they act within their authority and follow fair procedures. Administrative law plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance between the powers of the government and the rights of individuals affected by their actions.

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62. To enable AAA through the SDM, you choose which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Confugure>Additional Tasks>AAA". This option is chosen to enable AAA through the SDM. The other options listed do not specifically mention enabling AAA or are not related to the SDM.

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63. Litigators typicall require 3 of the following elements to present an effective argument when prosecuting information security violations?

Explanation

Litigators typically require motive, means, and opportunity to present an effective argument when prosecuting information security violations. Motive refers to the reason or intention behind the violation, means refers to the tools or methods used to commit the violation, and opportunity refers to the chance or circumstances that enabled the violation to occur. By establishing these three elements, litigators can build a strong case demonstrating the intent, capability, and opportunity of the defendant to commit the security violation.

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64. Which of the following attemps to ensure that no one employee becomes a pervasive security threat, that data can be recovered from backups and the information system changes do not compromise a sytem's security?

Explanation

Operations security is the correct answer because it focuses on ensuring that no one employee becomes a pervasive security threat by implementing access controls, monitoring systems, and security awareness training. It also includes measures to ensure that data can be recovered from backups and that information system changes do not compromise the security of the system. Strategic security planning involves developing security policies and objectives, while implementation security refers to the process of putting security measures into place. Disaster recovery focuses on the ability to recover from a disaster or system failure.

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65. What level syslog logging is associated with warnings?

Explanation

Level 4 syslog logging is associated with warnings. Syslog is a standard protocol used for message logging, and it categorizes log messages into different levels. Level 4 is known as the "Warning" level, which indicates that there is a potential issue or problem that needs attention. This level is typically used for non-critical warnings that may affect the system's functionality or performance.

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66. Which of the following Cisco Catalyst switch mechanisms can be used to prevent a man-in-the-middle attacklaunched against a SIP network?

Explanation

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is a Cisco Catalyst switch mechanism that can be used to prevent a man-in-the-middle attack launched against a SIP network. DAI inspects ARP packets and verifies the IP-to-MAC address binding to ensure that it is valid. If an ARP packet is found to be invalid or inconsistent, the switch can take actions such as dropping the packet or generating an alert. By verifying the authenticity of ARP packets, DAI helps to prevent attackers from spoofing IP addresses and performing man-in-the-middle attacks on the network.

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67. The following formula can be used to calculate annualized loss expectancy:

ALE= AV*EF*ARO

Which componenet of the formula represents the percentage of loss of an asset that is experience if an anticipated threat occurs?

Explanation

The component of the formula that represents the percentage of loss of an asset that is experienced if an anticipated threat occurs is EF. EF stands for Exposure Factor, which is a measure of the percentage of loss that would occur if a specific threat is realized. It represents the extent to which an asset is vulnerable to a particular threat.

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68. What type of threat combines worm, virus and trojan horse characteristics?

Explanation

A blended threat is a type of threat that combines the characteristics of a worm, virus, and trojan horse. This means that it has the ability to spread like a worm, infect and damage files like a virus, and deceive users like a trojan horse. Blended threats are particularly dangerous because they can exploit multiple vulnerabilities and use different attack vectors to compromise systems and networks. They often use social engineering techniques to trick users into executing malicious code, making them difficult to detect and mitigate.

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69. What is an IOS router's default response to multiple failed login attempts after the "security authentication failure" command has been issued?

Explanation

After the "security authentication failure" command has been issued, an IOS router's default response to multiple failed login attempts is to suspend the login process for 15 seconds after 10 unsuccessful login attempts.

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70. A RADIUS server acts as which component in a 802.1x deployment?

Explanation

In a 802.1x deployment, a RADIUS server acts as the authentication server. It is responsible for authenticating users and granting or denying access to the network based on the credentials provided by the supplicant. The RADIUS server verifies the user's identity and communicates with the authenticator to allow or block access. The authenticator is the network device that interacts with the supplicant and the RADIUS server, while the method list is a collection of authentication methods used by the server.

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71. Spoofing represents an attack against data ______?

Explanation

Spoofing represents an attack against data confidentiality. Spoofing occurs when an attacker impersonates a legitimate user or system to gain unauthorized access to sensitive information. By pretending to be someone or something they are not, the attacker can bypass security measures and gain access to confidential data. This attack compromises the confidentiality of the data, as the attacker can view, modify, or steal sensitive information without detection.

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72. A static packet-filtering firewall does which of the following?

Explanation

A static packet-filtering firewall analyzes network traffic at the network and transport protocol layers. This means that it examines the headers of packets to determine the source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols. It then uses this information to make decisions on whether to allow or block the packets based on predetermined rules. This type of firewall does not evaluate packets at the application layer or keep track of the communication process through a state table.

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73. During the probe phase of a worm attack, which of the following might be used?

Explanation

During the probe phase of a worm attack, ping scans might be used. Ping scans involve sending ICMP echo requests to multiple IP addresses in order to determine which hosts are online and can be potential targets for the attack. This allows the attacker to identify vulnerable systems and plan the next steps of the attack accordingly.

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74. What are 3 phases of disaster recovery?

Explanation

The correct answer includes three phases of disaster recovery: the emergency response phase, the return to normal operations phase, and the recovery phase. In the emergency response phase, immediate actions are taken to ensure the safety of individuals and minimize further damage. The return to normal operations phase involves restoring essential functions and resuming normal operations. Lastly, the recovery phase focuses on long-term restoration and rebuilding efforts to fully recover from the disaster.

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75. In an IEEE 802.1x deployment, EAPOL messages typically are sent between which 2 devices?

Explanation

EAPOL messages are typically sent between the supplicant and the authenticator in an IEEE 802.1x deployment. The supplicant is the client device that wants to access the network, and the authenticator is the network device (such as a switch or access point) that controls access to the network. The EAPOL messages are used to establish and authenticate the connection between the supplicant and the authenticator, ensuring secure network access.

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76. Which RADIUS message type contains AV pairs for username and password?

Explanation

The correct answer is Access-Request. In RADIUS authentication, the Access-Request message type is used to request access to a network resource. This message type contains AV (Attribute-Value) pairs that include the username and password for authentication. The RADIUS server will process this request and respond with an Access-Accept or Access-Reject message depending on the authentication outcome. Access-Allow is not a valid RADIUS message type.

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77. What type of message might an attacker send to a host to convince the host that the attacker's MAC address is the host's next-hop MAC address?

Explanation

GARP stands for Gratuitous ARP, which is a type of message that an attacker might send to a host to convince it that the attacker's MAC address is the host's next-hop MAC address. GARP messages are unsolicited ARP replies that are used to update or announce the MAC address of a device. By sending a GARP message with the attacker's MAC address, the attacker can trick the host into believing that their MAC address is the legitimate next-hop MAC address, allowing them to intercept or manipulate network traffic.

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78. Which of the following is perceived as a drawback of implementing Fiber Channel Authentication Protocol (FCAP)

Explanation

The drawback of implementing Fiber Channel Authentication Protocol (FCAP) is that it relies on an underlying Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). This means that organizations implementing FCAP would need to have a PKI in place, which can be complex and costly to set up and maintain. PKI involves managing digital certificates, public and private keys, and certificate authorities, which can introduce additional administrative overhead and potential vulnerabilities if not properly implemented and managed.

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79. The Dynamic Vector Streaming (DVS) engine is a scanning technology that enables what?

Explanation

The Dynamic Vector Streaming (DVS) engine is a scanning technology that enables signature-based spyware filtering. This means that it is capable of identifying and blocking spyware based on known patterns or signatures. It helps to detect and prevent the installation or execution of spyware, which is a type of malicious software that collects information without the user's consent. By filtering out spyware signatures, the DVS engine enhances the security of the system and protects against potential privacy breaches.

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80. Which Cisco security agent Interceptor is responsible for intercepting all read/write requests to the rc files in UNIX?

Explanation

The Configuration interceptor is responsible for intercepting all read/write requests to the rc files in UNIX. These rc files contain configuration settings for various applications and services in the UNIX system. By intercepting these requests, the Configuration interceptor can ensure that any changes made to the configuration files are properly managed and controlled, helping to maintain the security and integrity of the system.

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81. Cisco defines 3 catagories of security controls: administrative, physical and technical.  Individual controls within these catagories can be further classifies as what 3 specific types of controls?

Explanation

The correct answer is preventive, deterrent, and detective. Cisco categorizes security controls into three categories: administrative, physical, and technical. Within these categories, controls can be further classified into preventive controls, which aim to prevent security incidents from occurring; deterrent controls, which discourage potential attackers; and detective controls, which identify and respond to security incidents after they have occurred. These three types of controls work together to provide a comprehensive security framework.

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82. Which command configures a Cisco Catalyst switch port to operate in multiple-host mode?

Explanation

The correct answer is "switch(config-if)#dot1x host-mode multi-host". This command is used to configure a Cisco Catalyst switch port to operate in multiple-host mode. By enabling dot1x host-mode multi-host, the switch port allows multiple devices to authenticate and connect to the network through that port. This is useful in scenarios where multiple devices need to connect to the network through a single switch port, such as in a conference room or a shared workspace.

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83. When creating an extended ACL, which of the following number ranges may be used?

Explanation

Extended ACLs are used to filter traffic based on various criteria such as source/destination IP addresses, protocols, and port numbers. When creating an extended ACL, the number ranges that may be used are 100 - 199 and 2000 - 2699. These number ranges are reserved for extended ACLs and are commonly used in network configurations. The other number ranges mentioned (1 - 99 and 1300 - 1999) are not typically used for extended ACLs.

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84. Which command should be used to enable AAA authetication to determine if a user can access the privilege command level?

Explanation

The command "aaa authentication enable default" should be used to enable AAA authentication to determine if a user can access the privilege command level. This command specifies the default authentication method to be used for enabling privileged commands. By using the "default" keyword, it ensures that the default authentication method is applied. The "local" keyword specifies that the authentication should be performed locally on the device.

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85. A Cisco IP phone can send traffic from an attached PC in a data VLAN while sending voice packets in a seperate VLAN.  What is the name given to this seperate voice VLAN?

Explanation

The separate voice VLAN in a Cisco IP phone is called the Auxiliary VLAN. This VLAN allows the IP phone to send voice packets while the attached PC can send data traffic in a different VLAN.

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86. Which of the following firewall best practices can help mitigate worm and other automated attacks?

Explanation

Setting connection limits on a firewall can help mitigate worm and other automated attacks by limiting the number of connections that can be established with the network. This prevents an attacker from overwhelming the firewall with a large number of connection requests, which can potentially disrupt the network or compromise its security. By setting connection limits, the firewall can effectively manage and control the number of connections, ensuring that only legitimate and necessary connections are allowed while blocking excessive or suspicious connections. This helps to minimize the risk of automated attacks and maintain the security of the network.

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87. What does the aaa authentication login console-in local command do?

Explanation

The correct answer is "It specifies the login authorization method list console-in using the local user database on the router." This command is used to configure the router to authenticate users attempting to log in to the console using the local user database. The "aaa authentication login" command is used to specify the authentication method, and in this case, it is set to "local" which means the router will use its own local user database for authentication. The "console-in" parameter specifies the method list to be used for console login.

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88. What are the 2 approaches for launching a VLAN hopping attack?

Explanation

The two approaches for launching a VLAN hopping attack are switch spoofing and double tagging. Switch spoofing involves sending frames with a fake source MAC address to trick the switch into forwarding the frames to the targeted VLAN. Double tagging, on the other hand, involves adding an additional VLAN tag to the frame, allowing it to bypass the switch's VLAN enforcement mechanisms and gain access to other VLANs. Both methods exploit vulnerabilities in the switch's handling of VLAN tags to gain unauthorized access to different VLANs.

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89. Which of the following are valid SDM configuration wizards?

Explanation

The valid SDM configuration wizards are Security Audit, VPN, and NAT. SDM (Security Device Manager) is a web-based configuration tool for Cisco routers that simplifies the configuration and management of security features. The Security Audit wizard helps in analyzing the security of the router configuration. The VPN wizard assists in setting up virtual private network connections. The NAT wizard is used to configure Network Address Translation, allowing private IP addresses to be translated to public IP addresses for internet access. Therefore, these three wizards are valid options for SDM configuration.

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90. What is the name of the e-mail traffic monitoring service that underlies that architecture of IronPort?

Explanation

The correct answer is IronPort M-Series. IronPort M-Series is the name of the e-mail traffic monitoring service that underlies the architecture of IronPort.

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91. At what level is LUN masking implemented?

Explanation

LUN masking is implemented at the Host Bus Adapter (HBA) level. The HBA is responsible for connecting the host computer to the storage devices, such as drives and disks. It acts as an interface between the host and the storage devices, allowing the host to access and manage the storage resources. LUN masking is a technique used to control access to logical unit numbers (LUNs) on a storage area network (SAN). By implementing LUN masking at the HBA level, administrators can restrict which LUNs are visible and accessible to specific hosts, improving security and ensuring that only authorized hosts can access certain storage resources.

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92. A LUN is used by which of the following protocols as a way to differentiate the individual disk drives that comprise a target device?

Explanation

A LUN (Logical Unit Number) is used by the SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) protocol as a way to differentiate the individual disk drives that make up a target device. SCSI is a popular protocol used for connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices, such as hard drives. The LUN is a unique identifier assigned to each disk drive within the target device, allowing the SCSI protocol to address and access specific drives as needed.

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93. Which of the following are the two primary port authentication protocols used with VSANs?

Explanation

CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) and DHCHAP (Diffie-Hellman Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) are the two primary port authentication protocols used with VSANs. CHAP is a widely used authentication protocol that verifies the identity of the remote device by challenging it to provide a secret password. DHCHAP is an extension of CHAP that uses the Diffie-Hellman algorithm to establish a shared secret key between the devices, providing enhanced security for authentication. These protocols ensure secure communication and prevent unauthorized access to the VSAN network.

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94. Which 2 of the following statements are true about Cisco IP phones web access feature?

Explanation

The Cisco IP phones web access feature is enabled by default, allowing users to access the phone's web interface without any additional configuration. Additionally, this feature can provide IP address information about other servers on the network, allowing users to gather network information conveniently.

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95. You administer a network that contains analog telephony devices connected to voice gateways.   These voice gateways connect to the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN).  Which of the following best describes the type of network?

Explanation

The correct answer is VoIP. VoIP stands for Voice over Internet Protocol, which is a technology that allows analog voice signals to be converted into digital data packets and transmitted over an IP network. In this scenario, the analog telephony devices are connected to voice gateways, which then convert the analog signals into digital packets and transmit them over the network to the PSTN. This type of network is commonly used for making phone calls over the internet.

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96. You examine you IDS event veiwer and find that IP address 192.168.15.10 keeps appearing.  You determine that your web server is under attack from this IP and would like to resolve this perminately.  What happens if you place this address at the bottom of the ACL?

Explanation

Placing the IP address 192.168.15.10 at the bottom of the ACL will result in attacks from this IP address being blocked because of the line that was added. The ACL is processed from top to bottom, and once a matching condition is found, the corresponding action is taken. By placing the IP address at the bottom, it ensures that any traffic from this specific IP address will be blocked before reaching the permit any statement or any other rules in the ACL. Therefore, attacks from this IP address will be effectively blocked.

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97. What EAP type usually leverages MS-CHAPv2 as its authentication protocol?

Explanation

PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) usually leverages MS-CHAPv2 as its authentication protocol. PEAP is a secure authentication method that provides an encrypted tunnel for authentication between the client and the server. MS-CHAPv2 (Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2) is a widely used authentication protocol that provides mutual authentication and secure password-based authentication. Together, PEAP and MS-CHAPv2 offer a strong and secure authentication mechanism for wireless networks.

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98. Application inspection firewalls are aware of the state of which layers?

Explanation

Application inspection firewalls are aware of the state of layer 3, layer 4, and layer 5 connections. Layer 3 refers to the network layer, which deals with IP addressing and routing. Layer 4 refers to the transport layer, which manages the transmission of data between end systems. Layer 5 refers to the session layer, which establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions. By being aware of the state of these layers, application inspection firewalls can effectively analyze and control network traffic, ensuring security and proper functioning of the network.

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99. Which of the following are valid responses that the TACACS+ daemon might provide the NAS during the authentication process?

Explanation

The TACACS+ daemon is a network protocol that is used for authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services. During the authentication process, the TACACS+ daemon can provide the NAS (Network Access Server) with various responses. "Accept" indicates that the authentication was successful and the user is granted access. "Reject" means that the authentication was not successful and access is denied. "Continue" suggests that further authentication steps are required. "Approved" and "Failed" are not valid responses that the TACACS+ daemon might provide during the authentication process.

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100. To view the satus of your turbo  ACLs which command would you use?

Explanation

The correct answer is "sho access-list compiled". This command is used to view the status of turbo ACLs.

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101. Which of the following are true of the Turbo AC feature?

Explanation

The Turbo ACL feature processes ACLs into lookup tables for greater efficiency, which means that it organizes the access control lists into tables that can be quickly referenced, improving the overall performance of the system. Additionally, the Turbo ACL feature leads to reduced latency because the time it takes to match the packet is fixed and consistent, meaning that the system can quickly determine the appropriate action for a packet without causing delays.

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102. What are the 5 phases of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?  choose 5

Explanation

The correct answer includes the phases of the system development life cycle (SDLC) which are Operations and Maintenance, Acquisition and development, Initiation and implementation, and Disposition. These phases represent the different stages involved in the development and management of a system, from its initial planning and design to its eventual retirement or replacement.

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103. Which of the following browsers are supported for use with Cisco Secure ACS?

Explanation

The supported browsers for use with Cisco Secure ACS are Microsoft Internet Explorer 6 with SP1, Netscape 7.1, and Netscape 7.2. These browsers have been tested and confirmed to be compatible with Cisco Secure ACS. Opera 9.2 and Firefox 2.0 are not listed as supported browsers, so they may not work properly or have not been tested for compatibility.

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104. Which of the following statements correctly describes Fiber channell zoning?

Explanation

Fiber Channel zoning refers to the process of partitioning a Fiber Channel fabric into smaller subnets. This allows for the isolation and separation of devices within the fabric, providing enhanced security and performance. By creating smaller subnets, administrators can control access and communication between different devices, improving overall network efficiency. This ensures that only authorized devices can communicate with each other, preventing unauthorized access and potential disruptions.

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105. Which of the following are features provided by Cisco Secure ACS 4.0 for windows?

Explanation

Cisco Secure ACS 4.0 for Windows provides several features. One of the features is Cisco NAC support, which allows the ACS to integrate with Cisco Network Admission Control for network access control. Another feature is network access profiles, which are used to define access policies for different types of users or devices. Additionally, machine access restrictions are provided, allowing administrators to restrict access based on the characteristics of the connecting machine.

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106. Which of the following is not a limitation of a stateful firewall?

Explanation

Stateful firewalls are designed to monitor and track the state of network connections. They keep track of the context and state of each connection, allowing only authorized traffic to pass through. However, they may not work well with applications that open multiple connections. This is because stateful firewalls may have difficulty keeping track of and managing multiple connections from the same application, potentially causing performance issues or blocking legitimate traffic.

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107. Which of the following arconcidered IOS security features?

Explanation

The correct answer includes stateful firewall, IPS, VRF-aware firewall, and VPN as considered IOS security features. A stateful firewall is a security device that monitors and controls network traffic based on the state of the connection. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is a security technology that actively monitors network traffic to detect and prevent potential threats. VRF-aware firewall is a feature that allows the firewall to operate in a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) environment, providing enhanced security for virtual networks. VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a secure network connection that allows users to access private networks over a public network, such as the internet.

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108. Hardening your application software involves what?

Explanation

Hardening your application software involves applying patches and security fixes. Patches are updates released by software vendors to fix vulnerabilities and improve the functionality of their applications. Applying these patches ensures that your application is up to date and protected against known security vulnerabilities. Similarly, applying security fixes involves implementing measures to address any security flaws or weaknesses in the software. This helps in strengthening the security of the application and reducing the risk of unauthorized access or attacks. Upgrading firmware, on the other hand, refers to updating the software that controls the hardware devices, which is not directly related to hardening the application software.

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109. Which of the following are justifications for migrating from traditional telephony network to a VoIP network?

Explanation

Migrating from a traditional telephony network to a VoIP network offers several advantages. Firstly, it reduces recurring expenses as VoIP calls are typically cheaper than traditional phone calls, especially for long-distance or international calls. Secondly, a VoIP network provides advanced functionality such as call forwarding, voicemail, and video conferencing, which enhances communication capabilities. Lastly, VoIP networks offer adaptability as they can be easily integrated with other communication systems and devices, allowing for seamless connectivity across different platforms.

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110. Which 2 protocols can be used to carry voice d=media packets?

Explanation

RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol) and SRTP (Secure Real-time Transport Protocol) are the two protocols that can be used to carry voice media packets. RTP is commonly used for transmitting audio and video over IP networks, providing end-to-end delivery services for real-time data. SRTP, on the other hand, is an extension of RTP that adds encryption, authentication, and integrity features, making it suitable for secure communication of voice packets. Both protocols are widely used in Voice over IP (VoIP) applications to ensure reliable and secure transmission of voice data.

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111. What 2 Cisco Catalyst features can be used to mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks?

Explanation

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) and DHCP snooping are two Cisco Catalyst features that can be used to mitigate man-in-the-middle attacks. DAI helps prevent ARP spoofing attacks by validating ARP packets and ensuring that the IP addresses in the ARP packets match the MAC addresses. DHCP snooping, on the other hand, protects against rogue DHCP servers by inspecting DHCP messages and only allowing trusted DHCP servers to provide IP addresses to clients. By implementing these features, network administrators can enhance the security of their network and prevent unauthorized access and interception of network traffic.

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112. Which of the following are features provided by the Cisco NAC device to help secure enterprise and endpoint systems?

Explanation

The Cisco NAC device provides features such as authentication and authorization, which help ensure that only authorized users gain access to the enterprise and endpoint systems. It also offers quarantining of noncompliant applications, which helps isolate and restrict access to applications that do not meet the security requirements.

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113. Network containment is provided by which of the following Cisco Self-Defending Network elements?

Explanation

Network containment is provided by IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) and NAC (Network Admission Control) elements of Cisco Self-Defending Network. IPS helps in detecting and preventing network attacks by monitoring and analyzing network traffic. NAC ensures that only authorized and compliant devices can access the network, thereby containing any potential threats.

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114. What does the Cisco Security Agent do when an operating system call to the kernel by an application violates the security policy?

Explanation

When an operating system call to the kernel by an application violates the security policy, the Cisco Security Agent generates an alert and sends it to the Management Center for Cisco Security Agent. Additionally, an appropriate error message is passed back to the application to inform it about the violation.

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115. Which of the following represent SAN transport technologies?

Explanation

Fiber Channel, SCSI, and iSCSI are all examples of SAN (Storage Area Network) transport technologies. Fiber Channel is a high-speed network technology that allows for the transfer of data between servers and storage devices. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a set of standards for connecting and transferring data between computers and peripheral devices, including storage devices. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface) is a protocol that enables the transmission of SCSI commands over IP networks, making it possible to connect to remote storage devices over a network. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a data storage virtualization technology that combines multiple physical disk drives into a single logical unit for improved performance, reliability, or both.

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116. Which of the following are classes of SAN attacks?

Explanation

The correct answer is Snooping, Spoofing, and DoS. These three options are all classes of SAN (Storage Area Network) attacks. Snooping refers to unauthorized access to data on the network, while Spoofing involves impersonating another entity to gain access. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks aim to overwhelm a system or network, rendering it unavailable to users. Viruses and worms, although they can cause harm, are not specifically classified as SAN attacks.

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117. Which of the following are advantages of an application layer firewall?

Explanation

An application layer firewall has the advantage of authenticating individuals, not just devices. This means that it can verify the identity of the user accessing the network, adding an extra layer of security. Additionally, an application layer firewall makes it more challenging to spoof and carry out Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. By analyzing the application layer of network traffic, it can detect and prevent malicious activities, reducing the risk of such attacks.

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118. Which of the following are network evaluation techniques?

Explanation

The given answer is correct because it includes three network evaluation techniques. Using Cisco SDM to perform a network posture validation is a technique that assesses the security posture of a network. Using password-cracking utilities is a technique used to test the strength of passwords in a network. Performing virus scans is a technique used to detect and remove any viruses or malware present in a network. These techniques help in evaluating the security and performance of a network.

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Which of the following commands is used in global configuration mode...
What type of hacker attempts to hack telephony systems?
What Cisco IOS feature provides a graphical user interface for...
What are the three primary goals of network security?
Which of the following is a weakness in an information system that an...
What security design philosophy uses a layered approach to eliminate...
Which of the following best describes a smurf attack?
Which of the following is a method of gaining access to a system that...
Which of the following offers a variety of security solutions...
An IOS router's privileged mode, which you can access by entering the...
In the banner motd # command, what does # represent?
What management topology keeps management traffic isolated from...
Where do most attacks on an organization's computer resources...
What line configuration mode command would you enter to prevent a line...
What STP protection mechanism disables a switch port if the port...
To protect a routers image and configuration against a attackers...
Information about a managed device's resources and activity is defined...
The enable secret password appears as an M5 hash in a router's...
When SSH is configured, what is the Cisco minimumrecomended modulus...
If you click the configure button along the top of Ciscos SDM's GUI,...
The U.S government places classified data into which classes?
How do you define the authentication methos that will be used with...
A Cisco Catalyst switch stores port MAC address assignments in what...
What kind of MAC address is dynamicly learned by a switch port and...
Which of the following is a continually changing document that...
Which of the following makes the end-user community concious of...
How is a CLI view different from a privilege level?
Each Cisco ACL ends with which of the following?
What are 2 types of IP spoffing attacks?
When you configure Cisco IOS login enhancements for virtual...
Which of the following best describes vishing?
What Cisco Catalyst switch feature can isolate ports from one another,...
Which security policy component contains mandatory practices ( as...
Which of the following are authentication methods that may be used...
Which of the following router services can best help administrators...
If a switch is running in the fail-open mode, what happens when ...
What are 3 potential responses of a switch port to a security...
Which 3 individuals are most likely to be intimately involved with the...
What are 2 automated approaches for hardening the security of a Cisco...
Which of the following is the basisof all major SAN transport...
All of the following are common elements of a network design. ...
What are  two options for running Cisco SDM?
Which of the following ports are used with RADIUS authentication and...
The great majority of software vulnerabilities that have been...
What term refers to the electromagnetic interference (EMI) that can...
What are 3 characteristics of a Cisco Self-Defending Network?
When is a Cisco Catalyst switch port placed in a restricted VLAN?
Which of the following attacks against VoIP network attemps to deplete...
VoIP spam is also known by which of the following acronyms?
What kind of intergrity attack is a collection of small attacks the...
To configure accounting in AAA, from which mode should the aaa...
If you need to use SNMP on your network, what version does Cisco...
Which of the following is not a phase in a worm attack?
Which of the following is not a reasonfor an organization to...
Which of the following VoIP components can permit or deny a call...
What type of firewall is required to open appropiate UDP ports...
Which of the following are Cisco best practice recommendations for...
What Cisco Catalyst switch feature can be used in an Intrusion...
Some ISRs include a USB port, into which a flash drive can...
What happens to a client that successfully authenticates with a Cisco...
Which type of law typically involves the enforcement of regulations by...
To enable AAA through the SDM, you choose which of the following?
Litigators typicall require 3 of the following elements to present an...
Which of the following attemps to ensure that no one employee becomes...
What level syslog logging is associated with warnings?
Which of the following Cisco Catalyst switch mechanisms can be used to...
The following formula can be used to calculate annualized loss...
What type of threat combines worm, virus and trojan horse...
What is an IOS router's default response to multiple failed login...
A RADIUS server acts as which component in a 802.1x deployment?
Spoofing represents an attack against data ______?
A static packet-filtering firewall does which of the following?
During the probe phase of a worm attack, which of the following might...
What are 3 phases of disaster recovery?
In an IEEE 802.1x deployment, EAPOL messages typically are sent...
Which RADIUS message type contains AV pairs for username and password?
What type of message might an attacker send to a host to convince the...
Which of the following is perceived as a drawback of implementing...
The Dynamic Vector Streaming (DVS) engine is a scanning technology...
Which Cisco security agent Interceptor is responsible for intercepting...
Cisco defines 3 catagories of security controls: administrative,...
Which command configures a Cisco Catalyst switch port to operate in...
When creating an extended ACL, which of the following number ranges...
Which command should be used to enable AAA authetication to determine...
A Cisco IP phone can send traffic from an attached PC in a data VLAN...
Which of the following firewall best practices can help mitigate worm...
What does the aaa authentication login console-in local command do?
What are the 2 approaches for launching a VLAN hopping attack?
Which of the following are valid SDM configuration wizards?
What is the name of the e-mail traffic monitoring service that...
At what level is LUN masking implemented?
A LUN is used by which of the following protocols as a way to...
Which of the following are the two primary port authentication...
Which 2 of the following statements are true about Cisco IP phones web...
You administer a network that contains analog telephony devices...
You examine you IDS event veiwer and find that IP address...
What EAP type usually leverages MS-CHAPv2 as its authentication...
Application inspection firewalls are aware of the state of which...
Which of the following are valid responses that the TACACS+ daemon...
To view the satus of your turbo  ACLs which command would you...
Which of the following are true of the Turbo AC feature?
What are the 5 phases of the system development life cycle...
Which of the following browsers are supported for use with Cisco...
Which of the following statements correctly describes Fiber channell...
Which of the following are features provided by Cisco Secure ACS 4.0...
Which of the following is not a limitation of a stateful firewall?
Which of the following arconcidered IOS security features?
Hardening your application software involves what?
Which of the following are justifications for migrating from...
Which 2 protocols can be used to carry voice d=media packets?
What 2 Cisco Catalyst features can be used to mitigate...
Which of the following are features provided by the Cisco NAC device...
Network containment is provided by which of the following Cisco...
What does the Cisco Security Agent do when an operating system call to...
Which of the following represent SAN transport technologies?
Which of the following are classes of SAN attacks?
Which of the following are advantages of an application layer...
Which of the following are network evaluation techniques?
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