Pharm Cancer Fungal Anesthetics

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| By Chachelly
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Quizzes Created: 513 | Total Attempts: 592,897
Questions: 17 | Attempts: 149

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Pharm Cancer Fungal Anesthetics - Quiz

Cancer, &  anesthetics & antifungals


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A 48-year-old woman presented to her physician complaining of pain, abdominal distension, and changes in her bowel habits.  Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound revealed a 10-15cm pelvic mass and her serum CA125 antigen level was significantly elevated.   She was diagnosed with epithelial ovarian cancer, advanced stageIII.  Her tumor was considered too large for initial surgery; systemic rather than intraperitoneal  neoadjuvant chemotherapy was instituted to shrink her tumor prior to debulking surgery.  She received 6 cycles of combination chemotherapy with paclitaxel and carboplatin.  Which of the following statements  correctly describes the mechanisms by which the drug combination sends  a higher proportion of neoplastic cells into apoptotic mode?

    • A.

      Paclitaxel inhibits purine synthesis; carboplatin inhibits microtubular protein polymerization

    • B.

      Paclitaxel blocks thymidylate synthase: carboplatin blocks dihydrofolate reductase

    • C.

      Paclitaxel inhibits telomerases; carboplatin is toxic to topoisomerases

    • D.

      Paclitaxel inhibits microtubule disassembly; carboplatin disrupts DNA

    • E.

      Paclitaxel is toxic to cells in Go phase; carboplatin is specifically toxic to cell in S phase.

    Correct Answer
    D. Paclitaxel inhibits microtubule disassembly; carboplatin disrupts DNA
    Explanation
    PACLITAXEL stabilizes microtubules and as a result, interferes with the normal breakdown of microtubules during cell division
    Paclitaxel is a mitotic inhibitor used in cancer chemotherapy

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  • 2. 

     A 68-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer came to her physician complaining of back pain. 7 years previously she had a lumpectomy in her left breast  followed by localized radiotherapy.  At that time her tumor was documented as positive for both estrogen and progesterone receptors; she received 5 years of daily oral tamoxifen, which finished 2 years ago. As there is now radiographic evidence of bony metastases, it was decided to initiate combination  of  endocrine therapy, together with a bisphosphonate.    Which of the following paired drugs may be identified as representatives of these two classes of therapeutic agents?

    • A.

      Tamoxifen and zoledronic acid

    • B.

      Fulvestrant and pamidronate

    • C.

      Anastrozole and finasteride

    • D.

      Finasteride and trastuzumab

    Correct Answer
    B. Fulvestrant and pamidronate
    Explanation
    FULVESTRANT is a drug treatment of hormone receptor-positive metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women with disease progression following anti-estrogen therapy. It is an ESTROGEN RECEPTOR ANTAGONIST with no agonist effects, which works both by down-regulating and by degrading the estrogen receptor

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  • 3. 

    In 1957 Ethel Longoria was admitted into intensive care bleeding rapidly into the lining of her lungs.  Three years previously she had an ectopic  pregnancy.   Now a tumor had grown out of the placental tissue surrounding the abnormal pregnancy; it had metastasized into her lungs, where the tumor hung in grapelike clusters bleeding profusely. Her oncologist, Min Chiu Li, stabilized her, measured her plasma levels of human chorionic gonadotropin, (hCG) and started treatment with an antifolate drug.  After four cycles of chemotherapy, the lung tumors disappeared, the chest X-ray improved, and the hCG levels diminished but were still measurable.  What is the most likely outcome  if antifolate treatment is continued?

    • A.

      Lung toxicity

    • B.

      Proliferation of micrometastases

    • C.

      Severe anemia

    • D.

      CNS meningeal metastases

    Correct Answer
    B. Proliferation of micrometastases
    Explanation
    Concept: antifolate toxicity versus drug resistance
    METHOTREXATE decreases WBC not RBC, and the rapid development of resistance may lead to micrometastases.

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  • 4. 

    A 26-year-old man, presents with a painless swelling in his left testicle.  On examination an indurated mass was located in the lower pole of the left testicle.  Blood tests show:  alfa fetoprotein (AFP) 300ng/ml (normal<40);  beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) <5 IU/L.   He is referred to an urologist who performs an orchiectomy followed by a retroperitoneal lymph node dissection. The pathologist’s report reveals embryonal carcinoma, and four positive nodes.  A combination chemotherapy regimen was designed. In preparation for this regimen, appropriate baseline tests were done: pulmonary function tests; an audiogram; and a 24h creatinine clearance; and plasma electrolytes, CBC and differential platelet counts. The patient was hydrated with IV sodium chloride, prior to receiving combination chemotherapy.  A 21day cycle of treatment was implemented (x4.) In the light of the tests ordered  to establish baseline functioning of specific organs, what is the most likely combination of drugs used to treat this cancer?

    • A.

      Leuprolide and finasteride

    • B.

      Bleomycin, vinblastine and cisplatin

    • C.

      Paclitaxel and cyclophosphamide

    • D.

      Cyclophosphamide, methotrexate and 5-fluorouracil

    Correct Answer
    B. Bleomycin, vinblastine and cisplatin
    Explanation
    Concept: Tests for baseline functioning of specific organs to monitor cumulative dose-limiting toxicity of specific drugs

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  • 5. 

    The now 30-year-old male from the previous question came to his doctor complaining of fatigue, easy bruising, bleeding, fever and infection.  The results from blood smears and a marrow biopsy confirm a diagnosis of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia.  His doctor notes that four years previously the patient was successfully treated for testicular cancer using bleomycin, etoposide and cisplatin. A mixture including vinblastine was also employed as a variant regime.  Which of the agents used to treat his testicular cancer most likely caused the development of AML in this patient?

    • A.

      Cisplatin

    • B.

      Vinblastine

    • C.

      Etoposide

    • D.

      Bleomycin

    Correct Answer
    C. Etoposide
    Explanation
    Concept: An antineoplastic drug, toxic to bone marrow, eliminates one cancer, but may precipitate a different cancer

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  • 6. 

    A 73-year-old man presents to his doctor with blood in his urine and complains that his shoulder is hurting.  He had been taking finasteride to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy and his PSA levels had been < 4.5.  His PSA now is 35.7ng/L.  After various tests and evaluations, he is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma, Gleeson score 9 with positive perineural invasion. He has metastatic, androgen-dependent, hormone-sensitive disease, with skeletal metastases involving skull and right shoulder. Which one of the following drugs would be part of a neoadjuvant androgen –deprivation therapy?

    • A.

      Anastrozole

    • B.

      Mifepristone

    • C.

      Flutamide

    • D.

      Oxandrolone

    • E.

      Spironolactone

    Correct Answer
    C. Flutamide
    Explanation
    Concept: Combined antiandrogen therapy is favored in the treatment of advanced metastatic prostate cancer.

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  • 7. 

    A 56-year-old  obese woman went to her doctor with complaints of episodes of long, heavy ,vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On questioning , it was established that she was post menopausal  and she had vaginal bleeding for over 6 months.  After further tests, she was diagnosed with endometrial carcinoma for which she had  an abdominal hysterectomy.  Adjuvant chemotherapy was instituted with doxorubicin and paclitaxel. Unfortunately,  within eight months there was recurrent disease. Which is the most likely explanation for drug therapy failure?

    • A.

      Mutations in beta tubulin isoforms

    • B.

      Overexpression of multidrug resistance gene(MDR1)

    • C.

      Enhanced activity of enzymes which reseal DNA breaks

    • D.

      Changes in receptor affinity characteristics

    • E.

      Increase in the production of drug-inactivating enzymes

    Correct Answer
    B. Overexpression of multidrug resistance gene(MDR1)
    Explanation
    Concept: mechanisms of resistance which minimize chemotherapeutic efficacy

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  • 8. 

    A 37-year-old man complained of anorexia, nausea, enlargement of his breast and impotence. The man, recently diagnosed with pulmonary coccidioidomycosis, has been receiving an antifungal treatment for two weeks. Which of the following drugs most likely caused these adverse effects?

    • A.

      Amphotericin B

    • B.

      Nystatin

    • C.

      Ketoconazole

    • D.

      Flucytosine

    • E.

      Griseofulvin

    • F.

      Terbinafine

    Correct Answer
    C. Ketoconazole
    Explanation
    C is the correct answer. Coccidioides immitis is sensitive to amphotericin B and to antifungal azoles. Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for severe systemic coccidioidomycosis, but antifungal azoles are often preferred in case of mild infection because they are orally active and much less toxic. Ketoconazole is an azole antifungal drug that can inhibit the cytochrome P450 system in mammalian cells. This inhibition blocks the synthesis of adrenal and gonadal steroids in mammalian cells. Therefore, the drug can cause gynecomastia, impotence and infertility in males. The newer azoles appear to have greater affinity for fungal cytochrome enzymes and less interference with mammalian enzymes, so the above mentioned adverse effects are seen less frequently.

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  • 9. 

    A 32-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with a 4 days history of perineal pruritus and a non-malodorous, thick, cheesy vaginal discharge. The only medication the woman is taking is an oral contraceptive. A wet preparation of vaginal secretion shows budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae. Which of the following drugs, given locally, would be appropriate for this patient?

    • A.

      Miconazole

    • B.

      Amphotericin B

    • C.

      Fluconazole

    • D.

      Anidulafungin

    • E.

      Griseofulvin

    Correct Answer
    A. Miconazole
    Explanation
    A is the correct answer. The symptoms of the patient and the lab results strongly suggest that she is suffering from genital candidiasis, the most common opportunistic mycosis of genital tract in women taking oral contraceptives. Other predisposing factors include pregnancy, menstruation, diabetes mellitus, and use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressive drugs. Budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae of Candida albicans (the most common candida species causing candidiasis) can be detected by microscopic examination of biologic specimens. Candida albicans is sensitive to most antifungal drugs, but for genital candidiasis a vaginally administered azole derivative is the treatment of choice. B is incorrect because the patient’s condition does not warrant the potential toxicity that can be caused by amphotericin B. C is incorrect because fluconazole is normally administered orally and by IV. D is incorrect because anidulafungin is given by IV. Griseofulvin is not effective against Candida albicans.

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  • 10. 

    A 31-year-old homosexual male with AIDS presents to the emergency room with fever (102.3 °F), headache, confusion, muddled thinking and vomiting. Physical examination reveals nuchal rigidity, diplopia, and loss of vision. An agglutination test of the spinal fluid for capsular polysaccharide antigen is positive suggesting infection with the organism Cryptococcus neoformans. The patient is started on IV amphotericin B in combination with another drug which functions by disrupting fungal nucleic acid synthesis. Which of the following drugs is being used in conjunction with amphotericin B?

    • A.

      Caspofungin

    • B.

      Ciclopirox

    • C.

      Nystatin

    • D.

      Flucytosine

    • E.

      Tolnaftate

    • F.

      Terbinafine

    Correct Answer
    D. Flucytosine
    Explanation
    D is the correct answer. The history, symptoms, and signs of the patient strongly suggest the diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis. In fact after toxoplasmosis, cryptococcosis is the most common CNS infection associated with AIDS. Cryptococcus neoformans is a yeast that is characterized by a thick polysaccharide capsule. During infection the capsular polysaccharide is solubilized in spinal fluid and can be detected by an agglutination test which is diagnostic of cryptococcosis. Cryptococcus neoformans is sensitive to amphotericin B, flucytosine and antifungal azoles. The current treatment recommended for acute cryptococcal meningitis is amphotericin B plus flucytosine. Synergism between the two drugs has been demonstrated in vitro and in vivo. It may be related to enhanced penetration of flucytosine through the amphotericin-damaged fungal cell membrane.

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  • 11. 

    A 37-year-old woman with AIDS has been recently diagnosed with systemic candidiasis due to Candida cruzii, and an IV antifungal treatment has been prescribed. Four days later the following lab results were obtained: serum creatinine 5.9 mg/dL (normal: 0.6-1.5), BUN 53 mg/dL (normal 7-30),  plasma potassium 2.3 mmol/L (normal 3.5-5.3). Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?

    • A.

      Fluconazole

    • B.

      Amphotericin B

    • C.

      Griseofulvin

    • D.

      Flucytosine

    • E.

      Micafungin

    Correct Answer
    B. Amphotericin B
    Explanation
    B is the correct answer. The lab results indicate that the patient is suffering from renal insufficiency. Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for most systemic mycoses, but the drug can cause a serious, dose-dependent renal dysfunction due to direct damage of renal tubules. Azotemia, renal tubular acidosis, and K+ wasting are the most prominent symptoms. These other antifungal drugs do not cause renal toxicity.

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  • 12. 

    A 7-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because she has several small hairless patches in her scalp. Upon close physical examination, the patches look like black dots in the skin surface. Microscopic examination reveals a dense sheath of spores around the hair. Which of the following drugs, given orally, would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

    • A.

      Miconazole

    • B.

      Tolnaftate

    • C.

      Amphotericin B

    • D.

      Flucytosine

    • E.

      Griseofulvin

    Correct Answer
    E. Griseofulvin
    Explanation
    E is the correct answer. The microscopic examination of the hair strongly suggests the diagnosis of ‘black dots’ tinea capitis, a cutaneous mycosis cause by Trichophyton tonsurans. Cutaneous mycoses are caused by fungi (mainly dermatophytes) that infect only the superficial keratinized tissues. Dermatophytes are sensitive to griseofulvin, terbinafine, antifungal azoles and amphotericin B, but the first two agents are the drugs of choice in cutaneous mycoses since they are deposited in newly forming skin where they bind to keratin, so protecting the skin from the infection. Oral itraconazole, not miconazole, is the antifungal azole of choice for tinea capitis. Tolnaftate is not taken orally and is generally not used for tinea capitis. Amphotericin B is given only topically in cutaneous mycoses. Flucytosine is a systemic antifungal drug, but is not effective against dermatophytes.

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  • 13. 

    A 32-year-old woman undergoing a minor gynecological surgical procedure undergoes spinal anesthesia by administration of bupivacaine. If the final level of motor anesthesia achieved by bupivacaine in this patient is at the T10 dermatome, what would most likely be the final level of sensory and sympathetic anesthesia achieved in this patient by this drug?

    • A.

      U

    • B.

      V

    • C.

      W

    • D.

      X

    • E.

      Y

    • F.

      Z

    Correct Answer
    B. V
    Explanation
    B is the correct answer. Typically in spinal anesthesia, the final level of motor anesthesia will average two dermatomal levels below the final level of sensory anesthesia, while the final level of sympathetic anesthesia will average two dermatomal levels above the final sensory levels.

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  • 14. 

    A 26-year-old man undergoes local anesthesia with lidocaine for a minimally invasive medical procedure. Which of the following bio-macromolecules that is the primary drug receptor for lidocaine has the lowest affinity for this drug?

    • A.

      Resting Na+ channels

    • B.

      Inactivated Na+ channels

    • C.

      Activated K+ channels

    • D.

      Activated Na+ channels

    • E.

      Inactivated K+ channels

    • F.

      Na+/K+ ATPase

    Correct Answer
    A. Resting Na+ channels
    Explanation
    A is the correct answer. The primary drug receptor for local anesthetics are voltage-gated Na+ channels. Of the three possible states of these channels, the state with the lowest affinity for the local anesthetics is the resting state.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following types of nerve fibers would most likely be the least sensitive to administration of a local anesthetic such as lidocaine?

    • A.

      Type A delta fibers

    • B.

      Type C sympathetic fibers

    • C.

      Type B fibers

    • D.

      Type C dorsal root fibers

    • E.

      Type A alpha fibers

    Correct Answer
    E. Type A alpha fibers
    Explanation
    E is the correct answer. Of the nerve fiber types listed in this question, Type A alpha fibers have the largest diameter. While several characteristics determine how sensitive a nerve fiber is to blockade by local anesthetics, the diameter of the fiber is probably the characteristic with the most influence on this effect.

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  • 16. 

    A 34-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-inch laceration on her left forearm caused by an accident while cleaning her yard. The physician injects lidocaine in several places within the lacerated tissue before proceeding to stitch up the wound. Which of the following terms most correctly identifies this specific clinical utilization of lidocaine?

    • A.

      Surface anesthesia

    • B.

      Epidural anesthesia

    • C.

      Local infiltration

    • D.

      Peripheral nerve block

    • E.

      Topical anesthesia

    • F.

      Central neuraxial block

    Correct Answer
    C. Local infiltration
    Explanation
    C is the correct answer. Local infiltration is the extravascular injection of a local anesthetic in order to create a limited area of anesthesia in and around the area where the agent is injected.

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  • 17. 

    A 46-year-old man complains of dizziness, blurred vision, a pounding headache, perioral tingling, and a metallic taste. The patient is currently undergoing a surgical procedure on his shoulder that required administration lidocaine to induce a brachial plexus block. Which of the following is the most likely reason why lidocaine is inducing these adverse effects in this patient?

    • A.

      Lidocaine was injected directly into a nerve

    • B.

      Lidocaine was rapidly broken down

    • C.

      Lidocaine was injected intravascularly

    • D.

      Lidocaine was administered together with epinephrine

    • E.

      Lidocaine was inappropriately used as a regional anesthetic

    Correct Answer
    C. Lidocaine was injected intravascularly
    Explanation
    C is the correct answer. The two most common causes of lidocaine CNS toxicity is inadvertent intravascular administration and administration of an excessive dose.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 09, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Chachelly

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