Biology Exam-4 Chapter 27

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Biology Exam Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Between 1980 and 2003, the rate of multiple births in the United States rose by 87%, primarily as a result of

    • A.

      A rise in the quality of prenatal care.

    • B.

      Increased exposure to new sources of radiation.

    • C.

      C) better physical condition of potential mothers.

    • D.

      Increased use of fertility drugs.

    • E.

      Better nutrition available for potential mothers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Increased use of fertility drugs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is increased use of fertility drugs. This is because fertility drugs are known to stimulate the ovaries and increase the chances of multiple eggs being released during ovulation, which can lead to multiple births. The other options, such as the quality of prenatal care, exposure to radiation, physical condition of potential mothers, and better nutrition, may have some impact on pregnancy outcomes, but they are not directly linked to the increase in multiple births as compared to fertility drugs.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following statements best characterizes asexual reproduction?

    • A.

      It allows animals that do not move around to produce offspring without finding mates.

    • B.

      Offspring without finding mates. B) It allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly

    • C.

      It produces genetically uniform populations

    • D.

      It allows a population to expand quickly to exploit available resources.

    • E.

      It saves the time and energy required to produce gametes.

    Correct Answer
    C. It produces genetically uniform populations
    Explanation
    Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction where offspring are produced without the involvement of gametes from two different parents. This means that the offspring are genetically identical or very similar to the parent, resulting in genetically uniform populations. This is in contrast to sexual reproduction, where offspring inherit genetic material from both parents, leading to genetic variation. Therefore, the statement that best characterizes asexual reproduction is that it produces genetically uniform populations.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following statements regarding sexual reproduction is true?

    • A.

      Sexual reproduction allows animals to expand their populations faster than asexual reproduction

    • B.

      Populations of organisms that reproduce through sexual reproduction generally have difficulty adapting to changing environments.

    • C.

      Sexual reproduction produces 2n gametes.

    • D.

      Sexual reproduction generates greater genetic variation than asexual reproduction.

    • E.

      Sexual reproduction creates an individual that is a genetic copy of one parent.

    Correct Answer
    D. Sexual reproduction generates greater genetic variation than asexual reproduction.
    Explanation
    Sexual reproduction generates greater genetic variation than asexual reproduction because it involves the fusion of genetic material from two parents, resulting in offspring with a unique combination of genes. This genetic variation allows for increased adaptability to changing environments and the potential for natural selection to act upon different traits. In contrast, asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetic copies of the parent, limiting genetic diversity and adaptability.

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  • 4. 

    Hermaphrodites are animals that

    • A.

      Must fertilize themselves

    • B.

      Have abnormal reproductive systems

    • C.

      Possess both male and female reproductive systems.

    • D.

      Develop from unfertilized eggs.

    • E.

      Have the gonads of one sex but the external appearance of the other.

    Correct Answer
    C. Possess both male and female reproductive systems.
    Explanation
    Hermaphrodites are animals that possess both male and female reproductive systems. This means that they have the ability to produce both eggs and sperm, allowing them to self-fertilize or mate with other individuals of the same species. This unique characteristic sets them apart from animals with separate sexes, where individuals are either male or female.

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  • 5. 

    Reproductive systems with external fertilization are most common in

    • A.

      Animals that are widely dispersed

    • B.

      Populations with many more females than males.

    • C.

      Populations with many more males than females

    • D.

      Terrestrial animals

    • E.

      Aquatic animals

    Correct Answer
    E. Aquatic animals
    Explanation
    Aquatic animals have reproductive systems with external fertilization because they are often widely dispersed in their habitats. External fertilization allows for the release of gametes (eggs and sperm) into the water, where they can mix and fertilize externally. This method is advantageous for aquatic animals as it increases the chances of successful fertilization in a large and open environment. Additionally, external fertilization is more common in aquatic animals because they typically have a higher number of offspring compared to terrestrial animals, and external fertilization allows for the production of a large number of eggs and sperm.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following statements about the reproductive system of human females is true?

    • A.

      The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which helps maintain the uterine lining during pregnancy

    • B.

      The labia minora are a pair of thick, fatty ridges that protect the entire genital region.

    • C.

      The cervix is an important structure of sexual arousal

    • D.

      In human females, eggs develop within the uterus.

    • E.

      After 9 months of development, an embryo is called a fetus.

    Correct Answer
    A. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which helps maintain the uterine lining during pregnancy
    Explanation
    The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that forms in the ovary after ovulation. It secretes progesterone, a hormone that helps prepare and maintain the uterine lining for implantation of a fertilized egg. This hormone is essential for supporting early pregnancy and preventing the shedding of the uterine lining. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 7. 

    The human egg is swept through the oviduct toward the uterus by

    • A.

      Rhythmic contractions of the uterus

    • B.

      Rhythmic contractions of the oviduct

    • C.

      The beating of the eggʹs flagella

    • D.

      The beating of the eggʹs cilia

    • E.

      The beating of cilia in the oviduct

    Correct Answer
    E. The beating of cilia in the oviduct
    Explanation
    Cilia are tiny hair-like structures that line the oviduct. These cilia beat in a coordinated manner, creating a wave-like motion that helps to propel the human egg towards the uterus. This movement of the cilia creates a current that sweeps the egg along the oviduct, aiding its journey towards the uterus for potential fertilization. Therefore, the beating of cilia in the oviduct is the correct answer.

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  • 8. 

    Fertilization in the female reproductive tract most often takes place in the

    • A.

      Uterus

    • B.

      Ovary.

    • C.

      Upper third of the oviduct.

    • D.

      Lower third of the oviduct.

    • E.

      Vagina.

    Correct Answer
    C. Upper third of the oviduct.
    Explanation
    Fertilization in the female reproductive tract most often takes place in the upper third of the oviduct. This is because the oviduct, also known as the fallopian tube, is the site where the egg and sperm meet. After ovulation, the egg is released from the ovary and travels through the oviduct. If sperm is present in the oviduct, fertilization can occur here. The upper third of the oviduct is the most common site for fertilization as it is closest to the ovary and provides the optimal environment for the sperm to meet and fertilize the egg.

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  • 9. 

    The embryo implants in the ________ of the uterus

    • A.

      Myometrium

    • B.

      Exometrium

    • C.

      Perimetrium

    • D.

      Endometrium

    • E.

      Epimetrium

    Correct Answer
    D. Endometrium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is endometrium. The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus where the embryo implants and grows during pregnancy. It provides a nourishing environment for the developing embryo and later the fetus.

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  • 10. 

    Human testes are positioned in an external sac rather than in the abdominal cavity

    • A.

      So the testes can be kept away from the urinary bladder

    • B.

      To shorten the distance that semen must travel during ejaculation

    • C.

      To shorten the distance that sperm must swim during insemination

    • D.

      So the testes can enlarge during sexual maturation

    • E.

      So the testes can be kept cooler than the bodyʹs interior

    Correct Answer
    E. So the testes can be kept cooler than the bodyʹs interior
    Explanation
    The testes are positioned in an external sac, called the scrotum, rather than in the abdominal cavity in order to keep them cooler than the body's interior. Sperm production requires a temperature slightly lower than the normal body temperature, and the scrotum's position outside the body allows for better temperature regulation. This helps to maintain the viability and health of the sperm.

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  • 11. 

    Men who take very long, hot baths are likely to

    • A.

      Produce healthier sperm

    • B.

      Produce more sperm

    • C.

      Produce fewer sperm

    • D.

      Produce more sperm and ones that are healthier.

    • E.

      Produce nonfunctional sperm.

    Correct Answer
    E. Produce nonfunctional sperm.
    Explanation
    Taking very long, hot baths can lead to increased testicular temperature, which can negatively affect sperm production and quality. Sperm are sensitive to high temperatures, and prolonged exposure to hot water can damage the sperm cells, making them nonfunctional. This can result in a decrease in both the quantity and quality of sperm produced. Therefore, men who take very long, hot baths are likely to produce nonfunctional sperm.

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  • 12. 

    After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in a structure called the

    • A.

      Epididymis

    • B.

      Seminal vesicle

    • C.

      Vas deferens

    • D.

      Bulbourenthral gland

    • E.

      Prostate

    Correct Answer
    A. Epididymis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is epididymis. After being produced in the testes, sperm mature further in the epididymis. The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle. It is responsible for storing and transporting sperm from the testes to the vas deferens. During their journey through the epididymis, sperm gain the ability to swim and fertilize an egg.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following produces a thick fluid containing fructose, which is used for energy by sperm?

    • A.

      Seminal vesicles

    • B.

      Vas deferens

    • C.

      Bulbourethral gland

    • D.

      Prostate gland

    • E.

      Epididymis

    Correct Answer
    A. Seminal vesicles
    Explanation
    The seminal vesicles produce a thick fluid containing fructose, which serves as an energy source for sperm. This fluid also contains other substances that help nourish and protect the sperm as they travel through the reproductive system. The fructose provides energy for the sperm to swim and survive in the female reproductive tract, increasing their chances of successfully fertilizing an egg.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following statements regarding spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true?

    • A.

      Spermatogenesis begins at birth

    • B.

      Meiosis in spermatogenesis produces two cells from one primary spermatocyte

    • C.

      Oogenesis is not completed without stimulation by estrogen.

    • D.

      Meiosis in oogenesis produces one mature egg from one primary oocyte

    • E.

      Oogenesis begins at puberty

    Correct Answer
    D. Meiosis in oogenesis produces one mature egg from one primary oocyte
    Explanation
    In oogenesis, meiosis produces one mature egg from one primary oocyte. This is true because during oogenesis, the primary oocyte undergoes two rounds of meiosis to produce one mature egg. The first meiotic division produces a secondary oocyte and a polar body, while the second meiotic division produces a mature egg and another polar body. Therefore, only one mature egg is produced from one primary oocyte during oogenesis.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements comparing spermatogenesis and oogenesis is true

    • A.

      During oogenesis, there is a resting period that lasts for about 30 days

    • B.

      Spermatogenesis, but not oogenesis, is an example of gametogenesis

    • C.

      Spermatogenesis and oogenesis rely upon mitosis to produce gametes

    • D.

      Men, but not women, can produce gametes throughout their lives.

    • E.

      During oogenesis, four cells are produced with each sharing equally the cytoplasm from the parent cell.

    Correct Answer
    D. Men, but not women, can produce gametes throughout their lives.
  • 16. 

    Menstruation

    • A.

      Is triggered by HCG

    • B.

      Is triggered by an increase in the levels of estrogen and progesterone.

    • C.

      Is triggered by an LH surge.

    • D.

      Coincides with the postovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle.

    • E.

      Coincides with the beginning of the pre-ovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Is triggered by an increase in the levels of estrogen and progesterone.
    E. Coincides with the beginning of the pre-ovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle.
  • 17. 

    In human females, the ovarian cycle begins when

    • A.

      The level of progesterone drops precipitously

    • B.

      The levels of estrogen reach their maximum

    • C.

      The hypothalamus increases its release of FSH and LH.

    • D.

      The hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH.

    • E.

      The levels of FSH and LH drop precipitously

    Correct Answer
    D. The hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to increase its output of FSH and LH. This is because the ovarian cycle is regulated by a complex interaction between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. The hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). These hormones then act on the ovaries to stimulate the growth and maturation of follicles, leading to the release of an egg during ovulation.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following hormones stimulates the growth of an ovarian follicle

    • A.

      Releasing hormone

    • B.

      FSH

    • C.

      Estrogen

    • D.

      Progesterone

    • E.

      LH

    Correct Answer
    B. FSH
    Explanation
    FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of ovarian follicles in the female reproductive system. It plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle by promoting the maturation of an egg within the follicle. FSH is released by the pituitary gland and acts on the ovaries to stimulate the production of estrogen. This hormone is essential for the proper functioning of the female reproductive system and the preparation of the body for potential fertilization and pregnancy.

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  • 19. 

    A decrease in ________ is followed by the gradual degradation of the corpus luteum

    • A.

      Releasing hormone

    • B.

      Estrogen

    • C.

      Progesterone

    • D.

      FSH

    • E.

      LH

    Correct Answer
    E. LH
    Explanation
    LH stands for luteinizing hormone, which is responsible for triggering ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that develops in the ovary after ovulation and produces progesterone. When LH levels decrease, it signals the end of the menstrual cycle and the gradual degradation of the corpus luteum, leading to a decrease in progesterone production. This decrease in progesterone prepares the uterus for shedding its lining during menstruation.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following types of pathogens cause sexually transmitted diseases that cannot be treated with antibiotics?

    • A.

      Viruses

    • B.

      Syndromes

    • C.

      Spriaochetes

    • D.

      Bacteria

    • E.

      Fungi

    Correct Answer
    A. Viruses
    Explanation
    Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) caused by viruses cannot be treated with antibiotics because antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections. Viruses are different from bacteria and cannot be killed or inhibited by antibiotics. Instead, antiviral medications are used to manage viral infections. Therefore, STDs caused by viruses, such as HIV, herpes, and human papillomavirus (HPV), cannot be cured with antibiotics.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus that can also cause cancer?

    • A.

      Candidiasis

    • B.

      Gonorrhea

    • C.

      Syphilis

    • D.

      Trichomoniasis

    • E.

      Genital warts

    Correct Answer
    E. Genital warts
    Explanation
    Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a virus that can also cause cancer. HPV infections can lead to the development of certain types of cancers, including cervical, vaginal, vulvar, penile, anal, and throat cancers. Therefore, genital warts are the correct answer as they are caused by a virus that can also cause cancer.

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  • 22. 

    The only totally effective way to prevent the spread of STDs is through

    • A.

      Using birth control pills

    • B.

      Using a diaphragm and spermicide

    • C.

      Using condoms.

    • D.

      Abstaining from sexual intercourse

    • E.

      Using condoms and spermicides

    Correct Answer
    D. Abstaining from sexual intercourse
    Explanation
    Abstaining from sexual intercourse is the only totally effective way to prevent the spread of STDs because it eliminates the risk of coming into contact with infected bodily fluids. While birth control pills, diaphragms and spermicides, and condoms can help reduce the risk of pregnancy and some STDs, they are not 100% effective in preventing the transmission of all STDs. Therefore, abstaining from sexual intercourse is the most reliable method for preventing the spread of STDs.

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  • 23. 

    Sterilization, in which the sperm is surgically prevented from reaching the egg, is accomplished by

    • A.

      MAPs.

    • B.

      Cervical capping

    • C.

      Vasectomy.

    • D.

      Mifepristone.

    • E.

      The rhythm method.

    Correct Answer
    C. Vasectomy.
    Explanation
    Sterilization is a permanent method of contraception that prevents pregnancy by surgically blocking the sperm from reaching the egg. Among the given options, vasectomy is the only method that involves surgical intervention to block the vas deferens, the tubes that carry sperm from the testicles. This procedure is commonly performed on males and is considered a highly effective form of contraception. The other options, such as MAPs, cervical capping, mifepristone, and the rhythm method, do not involve surgical intervention to block the sperm and are not specifically aimed at sterilization.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following statements regarding birth control is true?

    • A.

      Natural family planning is generally reliable.

    • B.

      Morning-after pills taken within three days of unprotected intercourse prevent fertilization or implantation about 75% of the time.

    • C.

      Birth control pills work primarily by preventing fertilization and implantation.

    • D.

      Spermicides used alone are generally reliable.

    • E.

      The most widely used birth control pills contain a combination of FSH and LH

    Correct Answer
    B. Morning-after pills taken within three days of unprotected intercourse prevent fertilization or implantation about 75% of the time.
    Explanation
    Morning-after pills taken within three days of unprotected intercourse prevent fertilization or implantation about 75% of the time. This statement is true because morning-after pills, also known as emergency contraception, contain hormones that can prevent pregnancy by delaying or inhibiting ovulation, preventing fertilization, or interfering with implantation of a fertilized egg. It is important to note that emergency contraception is not 100% effective and should not be used as a regular form of birth control.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following generates the ATP that is required for movement of the spermʹs tail?

    • A.

      Mitochondria in the sperm tail

    • B.

      The sperm plasma membrane

    • C.

      Mitochondria in the sperm head

    • D.

      Mitochondria in the neck and middle piece

    • E.

      The acrosome

    Correct Answer
    D. Mitochondria in the neck and middle piece
    Explanation
    The mitochondria in the neck and middle piece of the sperm generate the ATP required for movement of the sperm's tail. Mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell that produce ATP through cellular respiration. In the case of sperm, the mitochondria are located in the neck and middle piece, which provide energy for the tail to move and propel the sperm forward. The other options mentioned, such as the mitochondria in the sperm head or the acrosome, do not play a direct role in generating ATP for sperm movement.

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  • 26. 

    Fertilization

    • A.

      Activates development in the egg.

    • B.

      Joins two diploid sets of chromosomes and activates development in the egg

    • C.

      Joins two diploid sets of chromosomes

    • D.

      Joins two haploid sets of chromosomes

    • E.

      Joins two haploid sets of chromosomes and activates development in the egg.

    Correct Answer
    E. Joins two haploid sets of chromosomes and activates development in the egg.
    Explanation
    Fertilization is the process by which the sperm and egg combine to form a zygote. In this process, the sperm, which carries a haploid set of chromosomes, fuses with the egg, which also carries a haploid set of chromosomes. This results in the formation of a diploid zygote with two sets of chromosomes. Additionally, fertilization triggers the activation of development in the egg, initiating the process of embryogenesis. Therefore, the correct answer is that fertilization joins two haploid sets of chromosomes and activates development in the egg.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following events occurs first during embryonic development

    • A.

      Neurulation

    • B.

      Cleavage

    • C.

      Aggregation

    • D.

      Implantation

    • E.

      Gastrulation

    Correct Answer
    B. Cleavage
    Explanation
    Cleavage is the first event that occurs during embryonic development. It is the process of rapid cell division without growth, resulting in the formation of a blastula. This process allows the zygote to divide into multiple cells and form a solid ball of cells. Neurulation, aggregation, implantation, and gastrulation occur after cleavage and play important roles in further development and differentiation of the embryo.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following results from cleavage

    • A.

      Formation of more cells

    • B.

      Formation of the nervous system

    • C.

      Segmentation

    • D.

      Formation of the digestive system

    • E.

      Formation of the notochord

    Correct Answer
    A. Formation of more cells
    Explanation
    Cleavage is the process of cell division in the early stages of embryonic development. It results in the formation of more cells, which is crucial for the growth and development of the organism. These cells will eventually differentiate and specialize into different tissues and organs, including the nervous system, digestive system, and notochord. Cleavage is the initial step in creating a multicellular organism with specialized cell types and organ systems.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following processes is most similar to the process of cleavage?

    • A.

      Slicing up a pie into eight pieces

    • B.

      Inflating a balloon

    • C.

      Stringing beads onto a string

    • D.

      Stretching a rubber band

    • E.

      Melting a stick of butter in a hot pan

    Correct Answer
    A. Slicing up a pie into eight pieces
    Explanation
    Cleavage is the process of dividing a cell or organism into smaller, separate parts. Slicing up a pie into eight pieces is the most similar process because it involves dividing a whole into smaller, separate parts. The other options do not involve the act of dividing or separating something into smaller parts. Inflating a balloon involves expanding, not dividing. Stringing beads onto a string involves assembling, not dividing. Stretching a rubber band involves stretching, not dividing. Melting a stick of butter involves changing the state, not dividing.

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  • 30. 

    Two important contributions that cleavage makes to development are to

    • A.

      Establish the basic tissues of the body and define the future digestive tract

    • B.

      Create a multicellular embryo and establish the basic tissues of the body.

    • C.

      Create a multicellular embryo and partition the embryo into developmental regions

    • D.

      Establish the basic tissues of the body and define the future nervous system

    • E.

      Establish the basic body plan and determine the location of the mouth and anus.

    Correct Answer
    C. Create a multicellular embryo and partition the embryo into developmental regions
    Explanation
    Cleavage is the process of cell division that occurs after fertilization. It plays a crucial role in the early stages of development by creating a multicellular embryo and partitioning it into different regions. This process helps in the formation of different tissues and organs in the body. It is responsible for establishing the basic body plan and determining the location of important structures like the mouth and anus.

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  • 31. 

    The ectoderm is one of the embryonic tissue layers produced during gastrulation that forms the

    • A.

      Embryonic nervous system.

    • B.

      Space between the ectoderm and endoderm

    • C.

      Brain.

    • D.

      Outer layer of the gastrula

    • E.

      Embryonic digestive tract.

    Correct Answer
    D. Outer layer of the gastrula
    Explanation
    During gastrulation, the ectoderm is formed as one of the embryonic tissue layers. This layer develops into the outer layer of the gastrula, which is the early stage of embryonic development. The ectoderm gives rise to various structures, including the embryonic nervous system. Therefore, the correct answer is the outer layer of the gastrula.

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  • 32. 

    What occurs during gastrulation

    • A.

      A solid embryo is changed into a hollow morula.

    • B.

      A hollow blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers

    • C.

      A notochord is created by invagination of the ectoderm.

    • D.

      A solid blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has four tissue layers

    • E.

      A neural tube is created by invagination of the ectoderm

    Correct Answer
    B. A hollow blastula is changed into a hollow embryo that has three tissue layers
    Explanation
    During gastrulation, a hollow blastula is transformed into a hollow embryo that consists of three tissue layers. This process involves the inward movement and rearrangement of cells, leading to the formation of the ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm. The ectoderm gives rise to the outermost layer of the embryo, which will develop into the nervous system, skin, and other external structures. The endoderm forms the innermost layer and gives rise to the digestive and respiratory systems. The mesoderm, located between the ectoderm and endoderm, develops into various tissues such as muscle, bone, and blood vessels.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 12, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Akjohnson8363
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