Biology End Of Course Practice Test #6

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Biology End Of Course Practice Test #6 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A scientist found that the results of an experiment did not support her hypothesis. If she is following proper scientific procedure, what should she do next?

    • A.

      Discard those results and repeat the experiment.

    • B.

      Accept the hypothesis and exclude data that does not fit.

    • C.

      Reject the hypothesis and assume it is incorrect.

    • D.

      Create a new hypothesis and a new experiment to test it.

    Correct Answer
    D. Create a new hypothesis and a new experiment to test it.
    Explanation
    If the scientist's results do not support her hypothesis, it means that her initial assumption was incorrect. In order to continue following proper scientific procedure, she should reject the hypothesis and assume it is incorrect. To further investigate the phenomenon, she should create a new hypothesis based on the new information gathered from the experiment and design a new experiment to test it. This allows the scientist to continue the scientific process by formulating new ideas and conducting further experiments to gain a better understanding of the phenomenon in question.

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  • 2. 

    The graph provides information about the size of 1 rabbit population over 30 generations. What most likely happened shortly after the 10th generation to cause the change in population between Points A and B?

    • A.

      A fatal disease infected the rabbits.

    • B.

      Area farmers set traps for coyotes.

    • C.

      The average temperature decreased by 0.5 oC.

    • D.

      The average monthly rainfall increased by 0.25 in.

    Correct Answer
    A. A fatal disease infected the rabbits.
    Explanation
    Shortly after the 10th generation, there was a significant decrease in the rabbit population. This sudden change is most likely caused by a fatal disease infecting the rabbits. This explanation is supported by the fact that there are no other factors mentioned in the question that could directly cause such a drastic decrease in population. The options about area farmers setting traps for coyotes, the average temperature decreasing, or the average monthly rainfall increasing do not have a direct correlation with the population change between Points A and B. Therefore, the most plausible explanation is that a fatal disease infected the rabbits.

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  • 3. 

    Dr. Hansen performs an experiment testing the effectiveness of different cough syrups. Identify the independent variable in the experiment.

    • A.

      Type of cough syrup

    • B.

      Flavor of the cough syrup

    • C.

      Number of people taking each cough syrup

    • D.

      Number of days people take each cough syrup

    Correct Answer
    A. Type of cough syrup
    Explanation
    The independent variable in this experiment is the type of cough syrup. This is because it is the variable that is intentionally manipulated by Dr. Hansen in order to test its effectiveness. The other variables, such as the flavor of the cough syrup, the number of people taking each cough syrup, and the number of days people take each cough syrup, are not being intentionally manipulated and therefore are not considered independent variables in this experiment.

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  • 4. 

    After learning about viruses in Biology class, Sam decides to have his cat vaccinated against feline leukemia virus. According to cell theory, are viruses, such as feline leukemia, considered living things?

    • A.

      Yes, because they can reproduce.

    • B.

      Yes, because they are composed of cells.

    • C.

      No, because they cannot adapt to their environment.

    • D.

      No, because they are not composed of cells.

    Correct Answer
    D. No, because they are not composed of cells.
    Explanation
    Viruses are not considered living things according to cell theory because they are not composed of cells. Viruses are acellular entities that are made up of genetic material (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat. They cannot carry out essential life processes on their own and require a host cell to reproduce. While they can replicate and evolve, they do not possess the cellular structure and organization that is characteristic of living organisms. Therefore, the correct answer is "No, because they are not composed of cells."

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  • 5. 

    Which sequence is in order from the simplest level of organization to the most complex?

    • A.

      Muscle, erythrocyte, lipid, mitochondrion, carbon

    • B.

      Carbon, lipid, erythrocyte, mitochondrion, muscle

    • C.

      Muscle, mitochondrion, lipid, erythrocyte, carbon

    • D.

      Carbon, lipid, mitochondrion, erythrocyte, muscle

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbon, lipid, mitochondrion, erythrocyte, muscle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is carbon, lipid, mitochondrion, erythrocyte, muscle. This sequence is in order from the simplest level of organization to the most complex. Carbon is a single element, lipid is a type of molecule, mitochondrion is an organelle, erythrocyte is a cell, and muscle is a tissue made up of cells.

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  • 6. 

    This graph illustrates 4 different chemical reactions. Which reaction has the fastest initial reaction rate?

    • A.

      Reaction I

    • B.

      Reaction II

    • C.

      Reaction III

    • D.

      Reaction IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Reaction I
    Explanation
    Based on the graph, Reaction I has the steepest slope at the beginning, indicating a faster initial reaction rate compared to the other reactions. This means that Reaction I is able to quickly convert reactants into products at the start of the reaction, making it the fastest in terms of initial reaction rate.

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  • 7. 

    Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope used to determine the age of ancient objects composed of organic matter. Carbon-12 and carbon-13 are other isotopes of carbon. The number of what subatomic particles varies among these carbon isotopes?

    • A.

      Electrons

    • B.

      Neutrons

    • C.

      Photons

    • D.

      Protons

    Correct Answer
    B. Neutrons
    Explanation
    The number of neutrons varies among carbon isotopes. Carbon-14 has 8 neutrons, carbon-12 has 6 neutrons, and carbon-13 has 7 neutrons. Electrons, photons, and protons are not the subatomic particles that vary in number among carbon isotopes.

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  • 8. 

    As part of an experiment, a student adds 10 mL of 5% hydrochloric acid solution to 100 mL of a non-buffered, colorless solution of sugar. What is the most likely result?

    • A.

      The concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) will increase.

    • B.

      The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) will increase.

    • C.

      The pH will not change.

    • D.

      The pH will increase.

    Correct Answer
    B. The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) will increase.
    Explanation
    When hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to a solution, it dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and chloride ions (Cl-). Since the student adds hydrochloric acid, the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the solution will increase. This will result in a decrease in the pH of the solution, making it more acidic. Therefore, the most likely result is that the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) will increase.

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  • 9. 

    A Paramecium lives in an environment that is hypotonic to its cytoplasm. how does the Paramecium maintain homeostasis under these conditions?

    • A.

      It expels excess water using contractile vacuoles.

    • B.

      It expels excess sodium using the sodium-potassium pump.

    • C.

      It absorbs additional water through osmosis.

    • D.

      It absorbs additional sodium through facilitated diffusion.

    Correct Answer
    A. It expels excess water using contractile vacuoles.
    Explanation
    In a hypotonic environment, the concentration of solutes outside the Paramecium is lower than inside its cytoplasm. This causes water to move into the Paramecium through osmosis, potentially leading to the cell bursting. To maintain homeostasis, the Paramecium expels excess water using contractile vacuoles. These vacuoles collect and pump out the excess water, preventing the cell from swelling and maintaining the balance of water and solutes inside the cell.

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  • 10. 

    After Harrison adds a chemical to cells growing in a test tube, proteins accumulate in the cells' endoplasmic reticula. The chemical prevents movement of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to which organelle?

    • A.

      Golgi apparatus

    • B.

      Lysosome

    • C.

      Mitochondrion

    • D.

      Ribosome

    Correct Answer
    A. Golgi apparatus
    Explanation
    The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins that are synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum. In this scenario, the chemical added by Harrison prevents the movement of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus. This explains why the proteins accumulate in the endoplasmic reticula of the cells.

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  • 11. 

    What is the purpose of mitosis?

    • A.

      To produce 2 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes

    • B.

      To produce 2 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    • C.

      To produce 4 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes

    • D.

      To produce 4 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    Correct Answer
    A. To produce 2 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes
    Explanation
    Mitosis is the process of cell division in which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. The purpose of mitosis is to produce two cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes. This ensures that each daughter cell receives the same genetic information as the parent cell and maintains the correct number of chromosomes. This is essential for growth, repair, and replacement of cells in multicellular organisms.

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  • 12. 

    While investigating yeast respiration, a researcher detects ethanol in the yeast culture. Which molecules does the yeast culture also contain?

    • A.

      Lactic acid and ATP

    • B.

      Oxygen and lactic acid

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide and ATP

    • D.

      Oxygen and carbon dioxide

    Correct Answer
    C. Carbon dioxide and ATP
    Explanation
    During yeast respiration, glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and ethanol. This process, known as fermentation, occurs in the absence of oxygen. Therefore, the yeast culture would contain carbon dioxide, which is a byproduct of fermentation. Additionally, ATP is produced during cellular respiration as a form of energy currency. Therefore, the yeast culture would also contain ATP.

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  • 13. 

    Red blood cells have a salt content of 0.9%. When a microbiologist places red blood cells in pure water, osmosis occurs. What net movement of a substance occurs in this instance of osmosis?

    • A.

      Water molecules move out of the cells.

    • B.

      Water molecules move into the cells.

    • C.

      Salt ions move out of the cells.

    • D.

      Salt ions move into the cells.

    Correct Answer
    B. Water molecules move into the cells.
    Explanation
    In this instance of osmosis, the red blood cells are placed in pure water, which means that the concentration of solutes outside the cells is lower than inside the cells. As a result, water molecules move from an area of higher concentration (outside the cells) to an area of lower concentration (inside the cells) in order to equalize the concentration on both sides of the cell membrane. Therefore, water molecules move into the cells.

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  • 14. 

    Which is the LEAST likely trait of an organic molecule?

    • A.

      The molecules may exist as isomers.

    • B.

      The backbone is linear, cyclic, or branched.

    • C.

      Ionic bonds are present between the atoms.

    • D.

      Functional groups, such as alcohols, are present.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ionic bonds are present between the atoms.
    Explanation
    Ionic bonds are least likely to be present in organic molecules. Organic molecules primarily consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms, which typically form covalent bonds. Ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms of opposite charges, whereas covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons. Since organic molecules are based on covalent bonding, it is unlikely for them to have ionic bonds.

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  • 15. 

    Cosmetics often contain glycerol (C3H8O3), which has three identical functional groups. Which type of bond holds these functional groups together?

    • A.

      Covalent

    • B.

      Hydrogen

    • C.

      Intermolecular

    • D.

      Ionic

    Correct Answer
    A. Covalent
    Explanation
    Glycerol (C3H8O3) contains three identical functional groups, which are held together by covalent bonds. Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms, allowing the atoms to form stable molecules. In the case of glycerol, the three functional groups are attached to the carbon atoms through covalent bonds, ensuring the stability and integrity of the molecule.

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  • 16. 

    What trait of an ATP molecule enables it to store energy for use by cells?

    • A.

      Its small size

    • B.

      Its solubility in water

    • C.

      Its ability to form hydrogen bonds

    • D.

      Its phosphate-phosphate bond

    Correct Answer
    D. Its phosphate-phosphate bond
    Explanation
    The phosphate-phosphate bond in an ATP molecule enables it to store energy for use by cells. When this bond is broken, energy is released, which can be used for various cellular processes. This bond is high in energy due to the negative charges on the phosphate groups and the repulsion between them. The release of this energy allows ATP to provide the necessary energy for cellular activities such as muscle contraction, active transport, and synthesis of macromolecules.

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  • 17. 

    What combine with sugar and a phosphate group to form a nucleotide?

    • A.

      Amino acid

    • B.

      Deoxyribose

    • C.

      Glycerol

    • D.

      Nitrogenous base

    Correct Answer
    D. Nitrogenous base
    Explanation
    Nitrogenous bases combine with sugar and a phosphate group to form a nucleotide. A nucleotide is the basic building block of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA. Nitrogenous bases are organic molecules that contain nitrogen and are classified into two types: purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, and uracil). These bases bond with a sugar molecule (in DNA, it is deoxyribose) and a phosphate group to create a nucleotide.

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  • 18. 

    Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is a sex-linked recessive trait that affects the nervous system. In one family, the father, mother, daughter, and elder son do not have ALD, while the younger son has ALD. Who must be a carrier of the ALD allele?

    • A.

      Father

    • B.

      Mother

    • C.

      Daughter

    • D.

      Elder son

    Correct Answer
    B. Mother
    Explanation
    Since ALD is a sex-linked recessive trait, it is carried on the X chromosome. The father can only pass on a Y chromosome to his sons, so he cannot be a carrier. The elder son does not have ALD, so he cannot be a carrier. The daughter does not have ALD, so she cannot be a carrier. Therefore, the only possibility is that the mother is a carrier and passed on the ALD allele to her younger son.

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  • 19. 

    Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease in which mucus accumulates in the lungs and digestive system of affected individuals. Males and females must inherit 2 alleles with this mutation to have the disease. What is the mode of inheritance of cystic fibrosis?

    • A.

      Autosomal dominant

    • B.

      Autosomal recessive

    • C.

      Sex-linked dominant

    • D.

      Sex-linked recessive

    Correct Answer
    B. Autosomal recessive
    Explanation
    Cystic fibrosis is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This means that both copies of the gene responsible for the disease, known as CFTR, must have the mutation in order for an individual to have cystic fibrosis. Since males and females must inherit two alleles with this mutation to have the disease, it confirms that the mode of inheritance is autosomal recessive.

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  • 20. 

    This molecule is an example of which substance?

    • A.

      Amino acid

    • B.

      Carbohydrate

    • C.

      Fatty Acid

    • D.

      Nucleotide

    Correct Answer
    A. Amino acid
    Explanation
    This molecule is an example of an amino acid. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and contain an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group (-COOH) attached to a central carbon atom. They also have a variable side chain (R-group) that differentiates one amino acid from another.

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  • 21. 

    Which event of meiosis reveals the mechanism for understanding Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment?

    • A.

      Chromosome number is reduced during telophase I so gametes have half the standard number of chromosomes.

    • B.

      The arrangement of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I varies from cell to cell.

    • C.

      Centromeres break apart during anaphase II so that sister chromatids can move to opposite poles of the cell.

    • D.

      DNA is replicated during interphase before chromosomes condense and become attached to kinetochores.

    Correct Answer
    B. The arrangement of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I varies from cell to cell.
    Explanation
    During metaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up in pairs along the equator of the cell. This arrangement is known as independent assortment. It is the random alignment of chromosomes that allows for different combinations of alleles to be passed on to the gametes, leading to genetic variation. This mechanism is crucial for understanding Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment, as it explains how different traits are inherited independently from each other.

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  • 22. 

    During what phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur?

    • A.

      Metaphase I

    • B.

      Anaphase I

    • C.

      Prophase II

    • D.

      Metaphase II

    Correct Answer
    B. Anaphase I
    Explanation
    During Anaphase I of meiosis, the homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles of the cell. Nondisjunction occurs when these chromosomes fail to separate properly, leading to an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the resulting cells. This can result in aneuploidy, where the cells have an abnormal number of chromosomes. Therefore, Anaphase I is the phase of meiosis where nondisjunction is most likely to occur.

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  • 23. 

    Keisha passes a local dairy farm that has many brown cows, but only a few white cows. A dominant allele produces brown hair in cows and a recessive allele produces white hair. Which characteristic of any brown cow can Keisha identify?

    • A.

      The genotype of both of the cow's parents.

    • B.

      The genotype of the cow's hair color.

    • C.

      The phenotype of both of the cow's parents.

    • D.

      The phenotype of the cow's hair color.

    Correct Answer
    D. The phenotype of the cow's hair color.
    Explanation
    Keisha can identify the phenotype of the cow's hair color because the question states that the dominant allele produces brown hair and the recessive allele produces white hair. The phenotype refers to the observable characteristics of an organism, in this case, the hair color. Therefore, by observing the cow's hair color, Keisha can determine whether it has brown or white hair and thus identify the phenotype of the cow's hair color.

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  • 24. 

    What is the RNA sequence for a section of protein composed of Val-Glu-Ser?

    • A.

      GUA-GCC-AGU

    • B.

      GUA-GGG-AGC

    • C.

      GUG-GAC-GGU

    • D.

      GUG-GAG-AGC

    Correct Answer
    D. GUG-GAG-AGC
    Explanation
    The RNA sequence GUG-GAG-AGC corresponds to the section of protein composed of Val-Glu-Ser. In RNA, the nucleotide bases are represented by the letters G, U, A, and C, which stand for guanine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine, respectively. Each three-letter sequence in the RNA represents a specific amino acid in the protein. In this case, GUG corresponds to the amino acid valine (Val), GAG corresponds to glutamic acid (Glu), and AGC corresponds to serine (Ser). Therefore, the given RNA sequence matches the sequence of Val-Glu-Ser.

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  • 25. 

    What process of natural selection favors the extreme phenotypes of a trait and eliminates intermediate phenotypes?

    • A.

      Directional selection

    • B.

      Disruptive selection

    • C.

      Random selection

    • D.

      Stabilizing selection

    Correct Answer
    B. Disruptive selection
    Explanation
    Disruptive selection is the process of natural selection that favors extreme phenotypes of a trait and eliminates intermediate phenotypes. This occurs when individuals with extreme traits have a higher fitness compared to individuals with intermediate traits. Over time, this leads to the divergence of the population into two distinct phenotypic groups.

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  • 26. 

    According to fossil evidence, whales evolved from 4-legged ancestors. The modern baleen whale has forelimbs, but inspection of its skeleton reveals only tiny vestigial hind limbs. What is the best explanation for this loss of hind limbs in the baleen whale?

    • A.

      The hind limbs adapted into flippers to help the whale swim faster.

    • B.

      Random chance and genetic drift led to the reduction in size of hind limbs.

    • C.

      Whales with shorter hind limbs swam faster than those with longer hind limbs.

    • D.

      Some whales lost longer hind limbs to predators and passed that trait to their offspring.

    Correct Answer
    C. Whales with shorter hind limbs swam faster than those with longer hind limbs.
    Explanation
    The best explanation for the loss of hind limbs in the baleen whale is that whales with shorter hind limbs swam faster than those with longer hind limbs. This suggests that natural selection favored individuals with shorter hind limbs, as they had a selective advantage in terms of speed and maneuverability in the water. Over time, this led to the reduction and eventual loss of hind limbs in the baleen whale population.

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  • 27. 

    Which criterion is NOT necessarily true of a trait that has evolved through natural selection?

    • A.

      It is heritable.

    • B.

      It varies among individuals.

    • C.

      It increases individuals' life spans.

    • D.

      It influences individuals' reproductive success.

    Correct Answer
    C. It increases individuals' life spans.
    Explanation
    A trait that has evolved through natural selection does not necessarily increase individuals' life spans. Natural selection favors traits that enhance an individual's reproductive success, not necessarily their longevity. While some traits may indirectly contribute to longer life spans, such as traits that improve resistance to diseases or increase overall fitness, the primary focus of natural selection is on traits that increase an individual's chances of successfully reproducing and passing on their genes to the next generation.

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  • 28. 

    What accounts for genetic biodiversity existing in modern multicellular organisms?

    • A.

      Mutations in gametes are passed to offspring.

    • B.

      Protein mutations cause DNA changes, creating new species.

    • C.

      Genetic mutations form when similar species mate and reproduce.

    • D.

      Somatic cell DNA mutations create new phenotypes in the population.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mutations in gametes are passed to offspring.
    Explanation
    Mutations in gametes are passed to offspring. This is because gametes, such as eggs and sperm, contain the genetic material that is passed on to the next generation. Mutations, which are changes in the DNA sequence, can occur in gametes and be inherited by offspring. These mutations can lead to genetic diversity in modern multicellular organisms as each individual may have different variations in their genetic makeup. This genetic diversity is important for the survival and adaptation of species in changing environments.

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  • 29. 

    Lazzaro Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur both performed experiments hoping to disprove spontaneous generation. What conditions existed in Pasteur's experiment that did not exist in Spallanzani's?

    • A.

      Air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter.

    • B.

      No air could enter the flasks, but microorganisms could enter.

    • C.

      Neither air nor microorganisms could enter the flasks.

    • D.

      Both air and microorganisms could enter the flasks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter.
    Explanation
    In Pasteur's experiment, air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter. This is different from Spallanzani's experiment, where neither air nor microorganisms could enter the flasks. The presence of air in Pasteur's experiment allowed for the possibility of spontaneous generation, as some believed that air was necessary for the creation of life. However, by using a curved-neck flask that prevented microorganisms from entering, Pasteur was able to show that spontaneous generation did not occur.

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  • 30. 

    In pea plants, purple flowers are dominant to white flowers and tall stems are dominant to short stems. If two heterozygotes for both height and flower color are crossed, what is the probability of having short stemmed pea plants with purple flowers?

    • A.

      9/16

    • B.

      1/4

    • C.

      3/16

    • D.

      1/16

    Correct Answer
    C. 3/16
    Explanation
    When two heterozygotes for both height and flower color are crossed, the possible genotypes of their offspring are PPSS, PPSs, PPss, PpSS, PpSs, Ppss, ppSS, ppSs, and ppss. Out of these nine possible genotypes, only one genotype (ppss) corresponds to short stemmed pea plants with purple flowers. Therefore, the probability of having short stemmed pea plants with purple flowers is 1 out of 9, which simplifies to 1/16.

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  • 31. 

    Despite the diversity of nature, most organisms contain the same 4 DNA bases. This table shows the DNA composition of 3 organisms as reported in a classic 1950s experiment. Based on this study, what did scientists conclude about the DNA composition of all organisms?

    • A.

      A, G, T, and C occur in equal percentages.

    • B.

      A and G occur in equal percentages, and T and C occur in equal percentages.

    • C.

      A and T occur in equal percentages, and G and C occur in equal percentages.

    • D.

      A and C occur in equal percentages, and T and G occur in equal percentages.

    Correct Answer
    C. A and T occur in equal percentages, and G and C occur in equal percentages.
    Explanation
    Scientists concluded that in all organisms, the percentages of A and T are equal, and the percentages of G and C are also equal.

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  • 32. 

    In addition to the reproductive system, which body system is most directly essential to the production of gametes and offspring?

    • A.

      Circulatory

    • B.

      Endocrine

    • C.

      Immune

    • D.

      Nervous

    Correct Answer
    B. Endocrine
    Explanation
    Endocrine system produces hormones that are needed to produce gametes (ex: testosterone & estrogen).

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  • 33. 

    Plant cells contain both a cell wall land a cell membrane. What is the composition of the cell wall and where is it located in relation to the cell membrane?

    • A.

      Cellulose, inside the cell membrane

    • B.

      Cellulose, outside the cell membrane

    • C.

      Glucose, inside the cell membrane

    • D.

      Glucose, outside the cell membrane

    Correct Answer
    B. Cellulose, outside the cell membrane
    Explanation
    Plant cells have a cell wall composed of cellulose, which is located outside the cell membrane. The cell wall provides structural support and protection to the cell, preventing it from bursting or collapsing under pressure. The cell membrane, on the other hand, is a selectively permeable barrier that controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell. The cellulose cell wall acts as an additional layer of protection and support, surrounding the cell membrane.

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  • 34. 

    Thylkoid membranes within chloroplasts contain chlorophyll. The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasts. How are the processes occurring within the Calvin cycle and the thylakoid membrane connected?

    • A.

      The Calvin cycle uses high-energy molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to convert carbon dioxide into sugar molecules.

    • B.

      The Calvin cycle uses sugar molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to generate high-energy molecules.

    • C.

      The processes in the thylakoid membrane use high-energy molecules formed during the Calvin cycle to convert carbon dioxide into sugar molecules.

    • D.

      The processes in the thylakoid membrane use sugar molecules formed during the Calvin cycle to generate high-energy molecules.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Calvin cycle uses high-energy molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to convert carbon dioxide into sugar molecules.
    Explanation
    The Calvin cycle and the processes occurring within the thylakoid membrane are connected through the use of high-energy molecules. The high-energy molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis are used by the Calvin cycle to convert carbon dioxide into sugar molecules. This connection allows for the transfer of energy and the production of glucose, which is essential for the overall process of photosynthesis.

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  • 35. 

    Hummingbirds transfer pollen from one flower to another while feeding. What plant structure contains the pollen?

    • A.

      Carpel

    • B.

      Petal

    • C.

      Sepal

    • D.

      Stamen

    Correct Answer
    D. Stamen
    Explanation
    Pistil = female part which produces the ovum
    Stamen = male part which produces the sperm contained in pollen

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  • 36. 

    Which group(s) contain organsims that can be classified as primary producers?

    • A.

      Monerans only

    • B.

      Protists only

    • C.

      Monerans and protists

    • D.

      Viruses and monerans

    Correct Answer
    C. Monerans and protists
    Explanation
    In addition to plants, algae (protists) and some bacteria (monerans) are autotrophs (a.k.a. producers).

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  • 37. 

    The presence of what cellular structure distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell?

    • A.

      Cell membrane

    • B.

      Chloroplast

    • C.

      Mitochondrion

    • D.

      Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    B. Chloroplast
    Explanation
    Chloroplast is the correct answer because it is a unique cellular structure found only in plant cells. It is responsible for photosynthesis, the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, a green pigment that gives plants their color and allows them to absorb sunlight. Animal cells do not have chloroplasts, which is why they are unable to carry out photosynthesis. Therefore, the presence of chloroplasts distinguishes plant cells from animal cells.

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  • 38. 

    In a classic study of population growth, G.F. Gause obtained data on growth rates of 2 species of Paramecium, a common ciliate protozoan. The 2 species grew in separate cultures. The graph shows his results. According to these data, which is the most accurate comparison of the 2 species' growth rates.

    • A.

      Both show exponential growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase.

    • B.

      Both show logistic growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase.

    • C.

      P. caudatum shows exponential growth, but P. bursaria shows logistic growth.

    • D.

      P. bursaria shows exponential growth, but P. caudatum shows logistic growth.

    Correct Answer
    B. Both show logistic growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase.
    Explanation
    Both species of Paramecium show logistic growth, which is evident from the S-shaped curve in the graph. Logistic growth occurs when a population initially grows exponentially but then levels off as it reaches the carrying capacity of its environment. In this case, both species show a similar pattern of growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase, as indicated by its steeper slope on the graph. This means that P. caudatum is able to reproduce and increase its population size at a faster rate compared to P. bursaria.

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  • 39. 

    A flagellated protozoan lives within the intestines of a termite and helps it digest wood. What type of relationship most likely exists between the protozoan and the termite?

    • A.

      Competitive

    • B.

      Mutualistic

    • C.

      Parasitic

    • D.

      Predatory

    Correct Answer
    B. Mutualistic
    Explanation
    The relationship between the flagellated protozoan and the termite is most likely mutualistic. This is because the protozoan helps the termite digest wood, which is a benefit for the termite. In return, the protozoan gets a stable environment and a source of food. Both organisms benefit from this interaction, indicating a mutualistic relationship.

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  • 40. 

    If a football field in the taiga is abandoned, which group of organisms will most likely be part of the resulting climax community?

    • A.

      Apple tree, deer, and wolf

    • B.

      Cactus, snake, and hawk

    • C.

      Grass, mouse, and coyote

    • D.

      Pine tree, moose, and bear

    Correct Answer
    D. Pine tree, moose, and bear
    Explanation
    In the taiga, which is a cold and coniferous forest biome, the climax community is typically dominated by pine trees. Moose and bears are also commonly found in this biome. The pine trees provide habitat and food for the moose, while the bears feed on both the moose and the pine nuts. This group of organisms forms a balanced and stable ecosystem in the taiga, making them the most likely to be part of the resulting climax community in an abandoned football field in the taiga.

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  • 41. 

    When a new volcanic island forms, the pioneer species is the first species to successfully inhabit the island. Which organism is the most likely candidate for a pioneer species?

    • A.

      A seagull hatched from an egg laid on the island

    • B.

      A palm tree grown from a coconut that washed onto shore

    • C.

      Lichen spores deposited on rocks by the wind

    • D.

      Insect larvae carried on a piece of driftwood

    Correct Answer
    C. Lichen spores deposited on rocks by the wind
    Explanation
    Lichen spores deposited on rocks by the wind are the most likely candidate for a pioneer species because lichens are known to be one of the first organisms to colonize barren or newly formed land. Lichens are a symbiotic combination of fungi and algae, and they can survive in harsh conditions with minimal nutrients. Their ability to grow on rocks and obtain nutrients from the air makes them well-suited for colonizing volcanic islands where the soil is initially lacking in nutrients. Therefore, lichen spores carried by the wind and deposited on rocks would be able to establish themselves and begin the process of primary succession on the island.

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  • 42. 

    In the following food chain, assuming that the producer contains 180,000 J of energy, how much energy would be able to be transferred to the tertiary consumer? Plant --> Mouse --> Snake --> Owl --> Fungus

    • A.

      180 J

    • B.

      18, 000 J

    • C.

      1, 800 J

    • D.

      18 J

    Correct Answer
    A. 180 J
    Explanation
    In a food chain, energy is transferred from one organism to another. The energy transfer is not 100% efficient, and only a portion of the energy is passed on to the next trophic level. In this case, the energy is being transferred from the producer (plant) to the tertiary consumer (fungus) through multiple trophic levels (mouse, snake, owl). Each trophic level only receives a fraction of the energy from the previous level. Therefore, the amount of energy that would be able to be transferred to the tertiary consumer (fungus) would be the same as the initial amount of energy from the producer, which is 180 J.

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  • 43. 

    Lions and tigers both belong to genus Panthera., Cheetahs belong to the genus Achinonyx. Scientists group these 3 types of cats together at the next taxonomic level. What is the most specific taxonomic level that lions, cheetahs, and tigers share?

    • A.

      Class

    • B.

      Family

    • C.

      Kingdom

    • D.

      Order

    Correct Answer
    B. Family
    Explanation
    Lions, cheetahs, and tigers share the most specific taxonomic level of "Family." Taxonomic levels are hierarchical categories used to classify organisms based on their characteristics and evolutionary relationships. At the family level, organisms that share common characteristics and are closely related are grouped together. In this case, lions, cheetahs, and tigers are all part of the Felidae family, which includes all the big cats.

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