Bio 230 Practice Exam Quiz!
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Are you prepared for your bio 230 practice exam? For the bio 230 practice exam, you must know about how the digestive system works, what is a malignant tumor, what part of the body regulates blood sugar, and the purpose of the gallbladder. Bio 230 involves studying natural science, life, living organisms, which includes their physical structure and chemical processes. This combustible quiz will show you what Bio 230 is all about.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the small intestine.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The pancreas is an important organ involved in digestion. It produces and secretes digestive enzymes such as amylase, lipase, and protease, which help break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins respectively. These enzymes are released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of food. Additionally, the pancreas also secretes bicarbonate, which helps neutralize the acidity of stomach acid as it enters the small intestine. Therefore, it is true that the pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the small intestine.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the protein-digesting enzyme that resides in the stomach?
- A.
Gastrin
- B.
Bicarbonate
- C.
Pepsin
- D.
Prolactin
Correct Answer
C. PepsinExplanation
Pepsin is the protein-digesting enzyme that resides in the stomach. It is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach lining and plays a crucial role in breaking down proteins into smaller peptides. Pepsin works best in the highly acidic environment of the stomach, where it is activated from its inactive precursor, pepsinogen. This enzyme is essential for the digestion of dietary proteins and the absorption of amino acids in the small intestine. Gastrin, bicarbonate, and prolactin are not involved in protein digestion in the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Food is propelled forward through the GI tract by waves of muscular contraction called:
- A.
Peristalsis
- B.
Segmentation
- C.
Stretching
- D.
Motility
Correct Answer
A. PeristalsisExplanation
Segmentation refers to muscular contractions that mix the food.
Stretching of muscle will trigger the coordinated muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract, but will not, by itself, move food.
Motility is general movement and does not refer specifically to coordinated contractions that move food forward.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The function of the gallbladder is to:
- A.
Secrete digestive enzymes
- B.
Store pancreatic enzymes
- C.
Produce bile
- D.
Store and release bile
Correct Answer
D. Store and release bileExplanation
The gallbladder's main function is to store and release bile. Bile is a substance produced by the liver that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. When food containing fats enters the small intestine, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the digestive system to aid in the breakdown and absorption of fats. Therefore, the gallbladder acts as a storage organ for bile and releases it when needed during the digestion process.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which organ secretes enzymes that help digest all four major nutrient groups, including carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids?
- A.
Liver
- B.
Stomach
- C.
Salivary glands
- D.
Pancreas
Correct Answer
D. PancreasExplanation
The liver produces bile and performs various functions associated with processing and storing food.
The stomach stores and mixes food, begins chemical digestion of protein by enzymes and acid, and regulates delivery to the small intestine.
The salivary glands help us taste food, moistens food, digests starch and lysozymes that are present inhibits bacteria.
The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine and secretes bicarbonate into the small intestine to neutralize stomach acid.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The large intestine:
- A.
Regulates the production of red blood cells
- B.
Absorbs most of the nutrients in food
- C.
Absorbs water
- D.
Secretes digestive enzymes
Correct Answer
C. Absorbs waterExplanation
The kidneys regulate the production of red blood cells.
The small intestine absorbs most of the nutrient in food.
The large intestine absorbs the last of the water and nutrients.
The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which layer of the digestive tract is in direct contact with the digestive tract contents?
- A.
Serosa
- B.
Muscularis
- C.
Mucosa
- D.
Submucosa
Correct Answer
C. MucosaExplanation
The mucosa is the layer of the digestive tract that is in direct contact with the digestive tract contents. It lines the inner surface of the digestive tract and is responsible for absorbing nutrients and secreting digestive enzymes. The mucosa contains specialized cells and glands that aid in the digestion and absorption of food. It also acts as a protective barrier, preventing harmful substances from entering the bloodstream.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
- A.
Storage of fat-soluble vitamins
- B.
Storage of glycogen
- C.
Metabolism of toxins
- D.
Production of red blood cells
Correct Answer
D. Production of red blood cellsExplanation
The liver also produces bile.
The production of red blood cells is the kidney's job.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:
- A.
Stomach
- B.
Small intestine
- C.
Oral cavity
- D.
Esophagus
Correct Answer
B. Small intestineExplanation
The small intestine is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption in the digestive system. It has a large surface area due to its long length and the presence of villi and microvilli, which increase the absorption surface even more. The small intestine contains enzymes and specialized cells that facilitate the breakdown of nutrients into smaller molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which can then be absorbed into the bloodstream. This absorption is crucial for providing the body with essential nutrients for energy production, growth, and repair.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is NOT part of the structure of the small intestine?
- A.
Microvilli
- B.
Cilia
- C.
Villi
- D.
Lacteal
Correct Answer
B. CiliaExplanation
The small intestine is responsible for the absorption of nutrients from digested food. It is lined with finger-like projections called villi, which increase the surface area for absorption. The surface of the villi is covered with even smaller projections called microvilli, which further increase the surface area. Lacteals are specialized lymphatic vessels found in the small intestine that absorb dietary fats. Cilia, on the other hand, are hair-like structures found in other parts of the body such as the respiratory tract, where they help in moving mucus and debris. Therefore, cilia are not part of the structure of the small intestine.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What organ DOES NOT make up the digestive tract?
- A.
Mouth
- B.
Gallbladder
- C.
Stomach
- D.
Anus
Correct Answer
B. GallbladderExplanation
The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile and although it is part of the digestive system, it is not part of the digestive tract.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What are dental carries?
- A.
Enamel
- B.
Cavities
- C.
Cusp
- D.
Root canal
Correct Answer
B. CavitiesExplanation
Dental carries refer to cavities in the teeth. Cavities are areas of tooth decay that develop when the enamel, the outer protective layer of the teeth, is damaged and bacteria start to erode the tooth. This can result in holes or cavities in the tooth structure. Therefore, "cavities" is the correct answer as it accurately describes dental carries.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The sensation of heart burn is a result of the nerves being confused when acid expands in the stomach
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The sensation of heart burn is a result of the sphincter malfunctioning (not closing) and allowing backflow of acidic stomach fluid into the esophagus.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which structure is NOT part of the large intestine?
- A.
Cecum
- B.
Duodenum
- C.
Appendix
- D.
Colon
Correct Answer
B. DuodenumExplanation
The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine that is connected to the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is hepatitis?
- A.
Inflammation of the liver
- B.
Weakness in the intestinal wall
- C.
Noncancerous growth
- D.
Difficulty digesting milk
Correct Answer
A. Inflammation of the liverExplanation
Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver.
Diverticulosis is weakness in the intestinal wall.
Colon polyps are non cancerous growths in the colon.
Lactose intolerance is difficulty digesting milk.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Most peptic ulcers are due to a bacterial infection and can be treated with antibiotics.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Peptic ulcers are commonly caused by a bacterial infection known as Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium infects the lining of the stomach and small intestine, leading to the development of ulcers. Antibiotics are effective in treating this bacterial infection, eliminating the bacteria and allowing the ulcers to heal. Therefore, the statement that most peptic ulcers are due to a bacterial infection and can be treated with antibiotics is true.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Most animal sources of protein are incomplete whereas most plant sources of protein are complete.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
This statement is false. In fact, it is the opposite. Animal sources of protein, such as meat, eggs, and dairy products, are considered complete proteins because they contain all the essential amino acids that our bodies need. On the other hand, most plant sources of protein, such as legumes, grains, and vegetables, are considered incomplete proteins because they lack one or more essential amino acids. However, by combining different plant-based protein sources, it is possible to obtain all the essential amino acids and create a complete protein.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Chemical digestion of carbohydrates takes place in:
- A.
The mouth and large intestine
- B.
The stomach and small intestine
- C.
The mouth and small intestine
- D.
The mouth and the stomach
Correct Answer
C. The mouth and small intestineExplanation
Chemical digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth through the action of salivary amylase, which breaks down complex carbohydrates into smaller molecules. This process continues in the small intestine, where pancreatic amylase is released to further break down carbohydrates into simple sugars. Therefore, the correct answer is "the mouth and small intestine."Rate this question:
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- 19.
George is very hungry. He just took a bite of a triple-decker hamburger (with all the fixings). Put the following in the correct order that the hamburger (and fixings!)would pass through as it moves through the digestive tract.
- A.
Mouth-> esophagus-> stomach-> large intestine-> small intestine-> rectum-> anus
- B.
Mouth-> esophagus-> stomach-> small intestine-> large intestine-> rectum-> anus
- C.
Mouth-> stomach-> esophagus-> large intestine-> small intestine-> rectum-> anus
- D.
Mouth-> esophagus-> stomach-> small intestine-> large intestine-> anus-> rectum
Correct Answer
B. Mouth-> esophagus-> stomach-> small intestine-> large intestine-> rectum-> anusExplanation
The correct order that the hamburger (and fixings!) would pass through as it moves through the digestive tract is mouth-> esophagus-> stomach-> small intestine-> large intestine-> rectum-> anus.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following hormones reduces the amount of water lost by the kidneys?
- A.
Aldosterone
- B.
Oxytocin
- C.
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
- D.
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
Correct Answer
C. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)Explanation
Aldosterone regulates body water balance by promoting sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.
Oxytocin induces uterine contractions and induces ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) reduces the amount of water lost by the kidneys.
Parathryoid Hormone (PTH) raises blood calcium levels.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What effect would a decrease in thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) have on the body?
- A.
An increase amount of water would be lost through the kidneys
- B.
The metabolic rate of cells in the body would be reduced
- C.
Blood calcium levels would decline
- D.
Glucagon, insulin, growth hormone and digestive secretions would be inhibited
Correct Answer
B. The metabolic rate of cells in the body would be reducedExplanation
A reduction in the Antidiuretic hormone would allow more water to be lost through the kidneys.
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) affects the hormones in the thyroid gland. So a reduction in this hormone would cause a reduction in T4 and T5 which affect the regulation of celular metabolism. It also would reduce Calcitonin which is used to lower blood calcium levels; without Calcitonin calcium levels would stay high.
Blood calcium levels are lowered through the hormone Calcitonin.
Somatostatin in the pancreas inhibits the release of glucagon, insulin, growth hormone, and digestive secretions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Insulin levels in the blood would increase when:
- A.
Glucose levels in the blood decrease
- B.
Glucose levels in the blood increase
- C.
Somatostatin is present
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Glucose levels in the blood increaseExplanation
Glucagon levels in the blood would INCREASE when when glucose levels in the blood DECREASE.
Somatostatin inhibits both glucagon and insulin.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Epinephrine & norepinephrine affects the activity of all of the following tissues EXCEPT:
- A.
Kidney
- B.
Liver
- C.
Muscle
- D.
Adipose tissue
Correct Answer
A. KidneyExplanation
Epinephrine and norepinephrine affect the activity of various tissues by binding to adrenergic receptors. These hormones increase heart rate, dilate bronchioles, and stimulate glycogenolysis. However, the kidney is not directly affected by epinephrine and norepinephrine. Instead, the kidney is primarily regulated by other hormones such as aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Therefore, the correct answer is kidney.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When blood calcium levels increase we would expect
- A.
More calcitonin to be released into the blood
- B.
More prolactin in the blood
- C.
The activation of the parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- D.
The release of aldosterone
Correct Answer
A. More calcitonin to be released into the bloodExplanation
When there is an increase in calcium levels, most likely Calcitonin would be released to lower calcium levels.
Prolactin affects the mammary glands into stimulating the development of mammary gland cells and the production of milk.
The parathyroid hormone (PTH) affects the bone, digestive tract and kidneys into actually RAISING blood calcium levels.
Aldosterone affects the kidneys into regulating body water balance by promoting sodium reabsorption and potassium excretionRate this question:
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- 25.
Type 1 Diabetes is also called:
- A.
Hyperthyroidism
- B.
Hypothyroidism
- C.
Insulin resistance
- D.
Insulin dependent diabetes
Correct Answer
D. Insulin dependent diabetesExplanation
Hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism have nothing to do with blood sugar; they create other problems such as Grave's disease (hypothyroidism) and Cushing's syndrome (hyperthyroidism).
Insulin resistance is associated with diabetes 2.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Steroid hormones diffuse across the cell and nuclear membrane into the nucleus, where they bind to hormone receptors that activate genes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Nonsteroid hormones just bind to receptors and cause a cascade of enzyme activation that amplify the original hormone and generate a cellular response.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The ____________ is the site of blood filtration and urine production.
- A.
Ureter
- B.
Nephron
- C.
Collecting duct
- D.
Cortex
Correct Answer
B. NephronExplanation
The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for blood filtration and urine production. It consists of a glomerulus, which filters blood, and a tubule, which reabsorbs water and essential nutrients while excreting waste products. The nephron plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and removing waste from the bloodstream.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Following delivery, which pair of hormones is most closely associated with lactation?
- A.
Prolactin and oxytocin
- B.
Progesterone and prolactin
- C.
Estrogen and progesterone
- D.
Estrogen and prolactin
Correct Answer
A. Prolactin and oxytocinExplanation
Prolactin is released from the anterior pituitary gland and it affects the mammary glands in stimulating the development of mammary gland cells & milk production
Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary gland and it affects the uterus in to inducing uterine contractions and the mammary glands in inducing ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
Estrogen and progesterone are female sex steroid hormones secreted by the ovaries and are involved in stimulating the menstrual cycle.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Sperm are produced in the:
- A.
Prostate gland.
- B.
Seminiferous tubules.
- C.
Vas deferens.
- D.
Epididymis.
Correct Answer
B. Seminiferous tubules.Explanation
The prostate gland produces high pH clotting factors to reduce the acidity of the vagina for the fluid that is used to create semen.
The site of sperm production are in the tests and more specifically the seminiferous tubules located with the testes.
The vas deferens (ductus deferens) connects the epididymis to the urethra; it's the passage way for the sperm.
The epididymis is where sperm is stored.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Sperm pass through all of the following structures EXCEPT the:
- A.
Ductus deferens
- B.
Ejaculatory duct
- C.
Urethra
- D.
Urinary bladder
Correct Answer
D. Urinary bladderExplanation
Sperm pass through the ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra during ejaculation. However, they do not pass through the urinary bladder. The urinary bladder is responsible for storing urine, while the other structures mentioned are involved in the transport and release of sperm.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which STD causes causes chancre, a hard, dry bacteria -filled sore, at the infection site
- A.
Gonorrhea
- B.
Syphilis
- C.
Chlamydia
- D.
AIDS
Correct Answer
B. SyphilisExplanation
Gonorrhea causes pus from penis and vaginal discharge and causes both painful urination.
Syphilis causes primarily chancre at the infection site.
Chlaymdia causes discharge from penis, vaginal discharge and itching, and causes both burning during urination.
AIDS causes fatigue, fever, chills, night sweats, swollen lymph node or spleen, diarrhea, loss of appetite, weight loss.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What symptoms are associated with Human papillomavirus (HPV)?
- A.
Nausea, fatigue, jaundice, abdominal pain, and arthritis.
- B.
Genital blisters, painful urination, fever, and swollen lymph node in groin.
- C.
Warts on the penis, labia, anus, or in the vagina or cervix.
- D.
Discharge from penis and painful urination in men and vaginal pain. inflammation, and cheesy discharge in women.
Correct Answer
B. Genital blisters, painful urination, fever, and swollen lymph node in groin.Explanation
Hepatitis B causes nausea, fatigue, jaundice, abdominal pain, and arthritis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital blisters, painful urination, fever, and swollen lymph node in groin.
Genital warts cause warts on the penis, labia, anus, or in the vagina or cervix.
Yeast infections cause discharge from penis and painful urination in men and vaginal pain. inflammation, and cheesy discharge in women.
Trichomoniasis is similar to yeast infections, but the book says specifically is causes discharge from inflamed penis and in women a frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Haploid cells:
- A.
Are produced by mitosis.
- B.
Will undergo a meiotic division to give rise to sperm and egg cells.
- C.
Contain 46 chromosomes.
- D.
Contain 23 chromosomes.
Correct Answer
D. Contain 23 chromosomes.Explanation
Mitosis is the division of a diploid cell to create two daughter cells with 46 chromosomes each identical to the parent or in other words it creates to more diploid cells.
Haploid cells are already primed to become a sperm or egg cell; they need no division because they already have 23 chromosomes.
Diploid cells have 46 chromosomes.
Haploid cells have 46 chromosomesRate this question:
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- 34.
Based on a 28-day menstrual cycle, with menstruation beginning on Day 1, at which of the following times is ovulation most likely to occur?
- A.
Day 1
- B.
Day 7 - Day 28
- C.
Day 13 - Day 14
- D.
Day 7 - Day 9
Correct Answer
C. Day 13 - Day 14Explanation
Day 1-5: MENSTRUAL PERIOD-if the woman is not fertilized then the endometrium is sloughed off (the "period" stage)
Day 6-13: PROLIFERATIVE PHASE- endometrium thickens and prepares for pregnancy caused by the hormones estrogen and progesterone.
DAY: 14 OVULATION
DAYS: 15-28 SECRETORY PHASE- endometrium continues to thicken and secretion increase which provide nutrients to fertalize the eggs.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Immature egg cells are called:
- A.
Fimbriae
- B.
Corpus luteum
- C.
Follicles
- D.
Oocytes
Correct Answer
D. OocytesExplanation
Fimbriae are fingerlike projections at the open end of the oviduct that help move the oocyte into the oviduct.
Corpus luteum are the remains of the ruptured follicle that secretes large amounts of progesterone and estrogen to prepare the uterus for the possible arrival of a fertilized egg.
A follicle is a primary oocyte and its surrounding nourishing granulosa cells.
An Oocyte is an immature egg cell.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The uterine cycle includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Disintegration of the endometrial lining.
- B.
Proliferation of the endometrial lining.
- C.
Growth and release of an oocyte.
- D.
Increased vascularization of the endometrial lining.
Correct Answer
C. Growth and release of an oocyte.Explanation
The growth and release of an oocyte is part of the Ovarian Cycle.Rate this question:
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- 37.
“"Ovulation Predictor”" kits can be purchased which test for the appearance of a particular hormone in the urine. This hormone is significantly elevated just prior to ovulation. What hormone is detected?
- A.
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
- B.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
- C.
Progesterone
- D.
Prolactin
Correct Answer
A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)Explanation
A surge of LH and FSH results in ovulation.
HCG is secreted from a tissue from the embryo and home-use preganancy test kits work by detecting HCG in urine.
Progesterone is more involed with helping prepare the uterus.
Prolactin stimulates the mammary glands to create milk.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Men with a sperm count of 500,000 to 1,000,000 per ejaculate are considered infertile.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Sperm count below 60 million per ejaculation are considered infertile.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Primary oocytes are present in females at birth.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Primary oocytes are present in females at birth. These primary oocytes are immature eggs that have not yet undergone meiosis. They are arrested in prophase I of meiosis and remain in this state until puberty. At puberty, a small number of primary oocytes are activated each month to continue meiosis and develop into mature eggs. Therefore, it is true that primary oocytes are present in females at birth.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Sperm and eggs are gametes.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Gametes are haploid cells because they only contain 23 chromosomes.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Genital herpes is one of the most common bacterial sexually transmitted diseases.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Genital herpes is caused by a VIRUS and currently there is no cure.
Chlamydia is one of the most common bacterial sexually transmitted diseases.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The oviduct carries an egg from the uterus to the cervix.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The oviduct carries an egg from the ovary to the uterus.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Fertilization occurs in the oviducts.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Sperm released in the vagina must swim to the oviducts.Rate this question:
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- 44.
In females, FSH and LH causes a primary follicle to begin to grow and mature.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
SFH and LH stimulate the development of a follicle and the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaryRate this question:
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- 45.
All these are viral STDs, EXCEPT:
- A.
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
- B.
Genital herpes
- C.
Hepatitis B
- D.
Gonorrhea
Correct Answer
D. GonorrheaExplanation
Gonorrhea, syphilis, and chlamydia are bacterial STDs and all can be treated with antibiotics.Rate this question:
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- 46.
During which phase of the cell cycle is cell division completed?
- A.
Mitotic phase
- B.
G2 of interphase
- C.
G1 of interphase
- D.
S phase of interphase
Correct Answer
A. Mitotic phaseExplanation
Mitotic phase also include the nucleus dividion called mitosis and later the cell divides called cytokinsis.
G1: Primary growth period of the cell.
S: DNA is duplicated and growth continues slowly.
G2: Cell prepares for division and growth continues slowly.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A short segment of DNA that represents the code for a single protein is a
- A.
Chromosome.
- B.
Chromatid
- C.
Nucleotide.
- D.
Gene.
Correct Answer
D. Gene.Explanation
Chromosomes are pairs of DNA that are packed onto 46 separate structures.
Chromatids are a collection of chromosomes seen during the interphase as a diffuse grainy substance.
Nucleotides are the structural units of DNA and RNA.
A gene is a short segment of DNA that represents the code for a single protein.Rate this question:
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- 48.
All of the following are directly involved in translation EXCEPT:
- A.
MRNA
- B.
Ribosomes
- C.
DNA
- D.
TRNA
Correct Answer
C. DNAExplanation
mRNA is the template that is used to translate or convert.
Ribosomes connect the mRNA and tRNA together
tRNAs capture single amino acids and then bring them to the appropriate spot on the mRNA chain.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following events occurs during anaphase of mitosis?Order these and give the name for extra credit.
- A.
Formation of new nuclear membranes
- B.
The mitotic spindle forms
- C.
Separation of the duplicate DNA molecules
- D.
The chromosomes align in the center of the cell
Correct Answer
C. Separation of the duplicate DNA moleculesExplanation
This all occurs in the Mitotic phase. Steps 1-3 are in Mitosis and step 4 is Cytokinesis
1) Prophase is when the mitotic spindle forms.
2) Metaphase is when the chromosomes align in the center of the cell.
3) Anaphase occurs when duplicate DNA molecules separate.
4) Telophase is the formation of new nuclear membranes.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which phase of the cell cycle includes G1, S, and G2?
- A.
Mitotic phase
- B.
Prophase
- C.
Cytokinesis
- D.
Interphase
Correct Answer
D. InterphaseExplanation
Mitotic phase is the entire process of the nucleus and then the cytoplasm dividing.
Prophase is the first phase of mitosis. (During prophase the chromosomes condense and thicken, the pairs of centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell, and the mitotic spindle forms which is the structure that causes the two identical strands of DNA to divide.)
Cytokinesis is when the cytoplasm divides and two new cells (called daughter cells) are formed.
Interphase is the long growth period that is divided into the above three subphases.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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