Bio 230 Practice Exam Quiz!

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1. Steroid hormones diffuse across the cell and nuclear membrane into the nucleus, where they bind to hormone receptors that activate genes.

Explanation

Nonsteroid hormones just bind to receptors and cause a cascade of enzyme activation that amplify the original hormone and generate a cellular response.

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About This Quiz
Bio 230 Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz


Are you prepared for your bio 230 practice exam? For the bio 230 practice exam, you must know about how the digestive system works, what is a malignant... see moretumor, what part of the body regulates blood sugar, and the purpose of the gallbladder. Bio 230 involves studying natural science, life, living organisms, which includes their physical structure and chemical processes. This combustible quiz will show you what Bio 230 is all about. see less

2. Sperm pass through all of the following structures EXCEPT the:

Explanation

Sperm pass through the ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, and urethra during ejaculation. However, they do not pass through the urinary bladder. The urinary bladder is responsible for storing urine, while the other structures mentioned are involved in the transport and release of sperm.

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3. Genes determine your traits through the proteins they create.

Explanation

Genes contain the instructions for making proteins, which are essential molecules that carry out various functions in our body. These proteins play a crucial role in determining our traits, such as physical characteristics, behavior, and susceptibility to diseases. Therefore, it is true that genes determine our traits through the proteins they create.

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4. The HPV vaccine (Gardasil) is recommended for the prevention of

Explanation

The HPV vaccine, also known as Gardasil, is recommended for the prevention of cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is primarily caused by the Human Papillomavirus (HPV), and the vaccine helps protect against the most common types of HPV that can lead to cervical cancer. By receiving the vaccine, individuals can reduce their risk of developing cervical cancer and its associated complications. It is important for individuals, especially young girls, to get vaccinated to prevent this type of cancer.

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5. Which of the following is NOT a classic treatment for cancer?

Explanation

Physical therapy is not a classic treatment for cancer because it primarily focuses on improving mobility, function, and quality of life for individuals with physical impairments or disabilities. While physical therapy may be a supportive therapy for cancer patients to manage side effects or improve physical well-being, it is not considered a primary treatment for cancer itself. Classic treatments for cancer include radiation, chemotherapy, and surgery, which directly target and aim to eliminate cancer cells from the body.

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6. The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the small intestine.

Explanation

The pancreas is an important organ involved in digestion. It produces and secretes digestive enzymes such as amylase, lipase, and protease, which help break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins respectively. These enzymes are released into the small intestine to aid in the digestion of food. Additionally, the pancreas also secretes bicarbonate, which helps neutralize the acidity of stomach acid as it enters the small intestine. Therefore, it is true that the pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the small intestine.

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7. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the:

Explanation

The small intestine is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption in the digestive system. It has a large surface area due to its long length and the presence of villi and microvilli, which increase the absorption surface even more. The small intestine contains enzymes and specialized cells that facilitate the breakdown of nutrients into smaller molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which can then be absorbed into the bloodstream. This absorption is crucial for providing the body with essential nutrients for energy production, growth, and repair.

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8. What is hepatitis?

Explanation

Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver.

Diverticulosis is weakness in the intestinal wall.

Colon polyps are non cancerous growths in the colon.

Lactose intolerance is difficulty digesting milk.

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9. Immature egg cells are called:

Explanation

Fimbriae are fingerlike projections at the open end of the oviduct that help move the oocyte into the oviduct.

Corpus luteum are the remains of the ruptured follicle that secretes large amounts of progesterone and estrogen to prepare the uterus for the possible arrival of a fertilized egg.

A follicle is a primary oocyte and its surrounding nourishing granulosa cells.

An Oocyte is an immature egg cell.

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10. Primary oocytes are present in females at birth.

Explanation

Primary oocytes are present in females at birth. These primary oocytes are immature eggs that have not yet undergone meiosis. They are arrested in prophase I of meiosis and remain in this state until puberty. At puberty, a small number of primary oocytes are activated each month to continue meiosis and develop into mature eggs. Therefore, it is true that primary oocytes are present in females at birth.

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11. In females, FSH and LH causes a primary follicle to begin to grow and mature.

Explanation

SFH and LH stimulate the development of a follicle and the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovary

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12. What is usually the cause of death from cancer?

Explanation

Metastasis is the correct answer because it refers to the spread of cancer cells from the original site to other parts of the body, leading to the formation of secondary tumors. This process is responsible for the majority of cancer-related deaths, as it allows cancer cells to invade and damage vital organs and tissues. Neoplasms and benign tumors are not the cause of death from cancer, as they can often be successfully treated or removed. T-cell failure, while it can weaken the immune system and increase the risk of cancer, is not the direct cause of death.

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13. You can inherit a susceptibility to cancer because

Explanation

Cancer involves abnormal genes, some of which may be inherited. This means that certain genetic mutations or alterations can increase the risk of developing cancer. These abnormal genes can be passed down from parents to their offspring, resulting in a higher susceptibility to cancer. It is important to note that not all cancers are inherited, but a family history of certain types of cancer can indicate a genetic predisposition to the disease.

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14. An individual who possesses two different alleles for a particular gene is referred to as:

Explanation

Codominance is the pattern of inheritance in which both alleles of a gene are equally expressed even though the phenotypes they specify are different, like blood type.

Polygenic inheritance depends on many genes; it's the traits that are determined by more than one gene (or set of alleles), like eye color.

Homozygous refers to an individual who possesses two IDENTICAL alleles for a given gene.

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15. Food is propelled forward through the GI tract by waves of muscular contraction called:

Explanation

Segmentation refers to muscular contractions that mix the food.
Stretching of muscle will trigger the coordinated muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract, but will not, by itself, move food.
Motility is general movement and does not refer specifically to coordinated contractions that move food forward.

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16. Which of the following hormones reduces the amount of water lost by the kidneys?

Explanation

Aldosterone regulates body water balance by promoting sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion.

Oxytocin induces uterine contractions and induces ejection of milk from the mammary glands.

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) reduces the amount of water lost by the kidneys.

Parathryoid Hormone (PTH) raises blood calcium levels.

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17. Transcription converts a gene's code into mRNA

Explanation

Portions of DNA unwind to allow RNA to make copies of specific genes into a readable transportable code called mRNA.

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18. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

Explanation

The liver also produces bile.

The production of red blood cells is the kidney's job.

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19. Most peptic ulcers are due to a bacterial infection and can be treated with antibiotics.

Explanation

Peptic ulcers are commonly caused by a bacterial infection known as Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium infects the lining of the stomach and small intestine, leading to the development of ulcers. Antibiotics are effective in treating this bacterial infection, eliminating the bacteria and allowing the ulcers to heal. Therefore, the statement that most peptic ulcers are due to a bacterial infection and can be treated with antibiotics is true.

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20. George is very hungry.  He just took a bite of a triple-decker hamburger (with all the fixings).  Put the following in the correct order that the hamburger (and fixings!)would pass through as it moves through the digestive tract.

Explanation

The correct order that the hamburger (and fixings!) would pass through as it moves through the digestive tract is mouth-> esophagus-> stomach-> small intestine-> large intestine-> rectum-> anus.

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21. Insulin levels in the blood would increase when:

Explanation

Glucagon levels in the blood would INCREASE when when glucose levels in the blood DECREASE.

Somatostatin inhibits both glucagon and insulin.

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22. The ____________ is the site of blood filtration and urine production.

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for blood filtration and urine production. It consists of a glomerulus, which filters blood, and a tubule, which reabsorbs water and essential nutrients while excreting waste products. The nephron plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and removing waste from the bloodstream.

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23. “"Ovulation Predictor”" kits can be purchased which test for the appearance of a particular hormone in the urine. This hormone is significantly elevated just prior to ovulation. What hormone is detected?

Explanation

A surge of LH and FSH results in ovulation.

HCG is secreted from a tissue from the embryo and home-use preganancy test kits work by detecting HCG in urine.

Progesterone is more involed with helping prepare the uterus.

Prolactin stimulates the mammary glands to create milk.

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24. Sperm and eggs are gametes.

Explanation

Gametes are haploid cells because they only contain 23 chromosomes.

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25. Melignant tumors do not spread and are rarely life threatening.

Explanation

Benign tumors do not spread and are rarely life threatening.

Malignant tumors can spread into surrounding tissues called metastasis.

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26. Which form of skin cancer is the deadliest because it can metastasize quickly?

Explanation

Basal cell carcinoma is the least malignant and most common type.

Epithelioma is not a type of skin cancer.

Squamous cell carcinoma is more dangerous than basal, but is still effectively treated.

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27. Which carcinogen is associated with approximately 30% of all cancer deaths?

Explanation

Tobacco is associated with approximately 30% of all cancer deaths. This is because tobacco contains numerous harmful chemicals, including carcinogens, that can damage DNA and lead to the development of cancer. Smoking tobacco is a major risk factor for several types of cancer, including lung, throat, mouth, and bladder cancer. Additionally, secondhand smoke from tobacco can also increase the risk of cancer in non-smokers. Therefore, the association between tobacco and cancer deaths is well-established.

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28. Hormones only affect certain cells.

Explanation

Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by glands in the endocrine system and are released into the bloodstream to target specific cells or tissues. These target cells have specific receptors that are designed to recognize and respond to the hormones. Therefore, hormones only affect certain cells that have the appropriate receptors for that particular hormone.

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29. Today, it is considered unsafe for a living individual to donate a kidney to another person.

Explanation

The statement is false because it is not considered unsafe for a living individual to donate a kidney to another person. In fact, kidney transplantation from living donors is a well-established procedure and is considered a safe and effective treatment for end-stage renal disease. Stringent medical evaluations are conducted to ensure the donor's health and well-being before the transplantation takes place.

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30. Which organ secretes enzymes that help digest all four major nutrient groups, including carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids?

Explanation

The liver produces bile and performs various functions associated with processing and storing food.

The stomach stores and mixes food, begins chemical digestion of protein by enzymes and acid, and regulates delivery to the small intestine.

The salivary glands help us taste food, moistens food, digests starch and lysozymes that are present inhibits bacteria.

The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine and secretes bicarbonate into the small intestine to neutralize stomach acid.

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31. What organ DOES NOT make up the digestive tract?

Explanation

The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile and although it is part of the digestive system, it is not part of the digestive tract.

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32. Men with a sperm count of 500,000 to 1,000,000 per ejaculate are considered infertile.

Explanation

Sperm count below 60 million per ejaculation are considered infertile.

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33. Fertilization occurs in the oviducts.

Explanation

Sperm released in the vagina must swim to the oviducts.

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34. The immune system can help to defend against cancer cells because

Explanation

The immune system can help to defend against cancer cells because cancer cells may stop displaying normal "self" proteins on the cell surface. This is known as immune evasion, where cancer cells can modify their surface proteins to avoid detection by the immune system. By not displaying normal "self" proteins, cancer cells can evade recognition by immune cells such as T cells, allowing them to proliferate and spread. The immune system's ability to recognize and target cells displaying abnormal proteins is crucial in identifying and eliminating cancer cells.

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35. Which of the following is the most common cancer in the United States?

Explanation

Skin cancer is the most common cancer in the United States. It is caused by the abnormal growth of skin cells, usually due to exposure to ultraviolet radiation from the sun or tanning beds. Skin cancer can occur on any part of the body but is most commonly found on areas exposed to the sun, such as the face, neck, arms, and legs. It is important to protect the skin from excessive sun exposure and to regularly check for any changes or abnormalities in moles or skin growths.

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36. Chemotherapy that inhibits cell division acts primarily on cancer cells.

Explanation

Chemotherapy are drugs that kill rapidly dividing cells and they primarily act on cancer cells, but they also damage or kill many normal cells that divide rapidly, like bone marrow cells and cells lining the digestive tract.

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37. PKU is an inherited disease that causes serious mental retardation shortly after birth. PKU

Explanation

PKU is an inherited disease caused by a homozygous recessive condition, meaning that both copies of the gene responsible for the condition are mutated. This condition leads to the accumulation of excessive amounts of the amino acid phenylalanine in the body. This accumulation can cause serious mental retardation shortly after birth. The other options are incorrect: PKU can be treated through dietary restrictions, it can be detected through newborn screening, and it is not more prevalent than cystic fibrosis.

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38. Identical twins form from 2 sperm fertilizing 1 egg.

Explanation

Identical twin form from 1 egg and 1 sperm separating to form 2 babies.

Fraternal twins form from 2 eggs being released and 2 sperm successfully fertilizing each egg.

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39. The large intestine:

Explanation

The kidneys regulate the production of red blood cells.

The small intestine absorbs most of the nutrient in food.

The large intestine absorbs the last of the water and nutrients.

The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine.

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40. Benign tumors

Explanation

The cells of a benign tumor do not break free of the main cell mass.

Benign tumors may never become cancerous, those are melignant tumors.

All tumors arise because of abnormalities in cell division.

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41. What is the largest organ in the body?

Explanation

The liver is the largest organ in the body. It is located in the upper right side of the abdomen and is responsible for many important functions such as detoxification, metabolism of nutrients, production of bile, and storage of vitamins and minerals. It plays a crucial role in maintaining overall health and well-being.

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42. What is the protein-digesting enzyme that resides in the stomach?

Explanation

Pepsin is the protein-digesting enzyme that resides in the stomach. It is secreted by the chief cells in the stomach lining and plays a crucial role in breaking down proteins into smaller peptides. Pepsin works best in the highly acidic environment of the stomach, where it is activated from its inactive precursor, pepsinogen. This enzyme is essential for the digestion of dietary proteins and the absorption of amino acids in the small intestine. Gastrin, bicarbonate, and prolactin are not involved in protein digestion in the stomach.

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43. The function of the gallbladder is to:

Explanation

The gallbladder's main function is to store and release bile. Bile is a substance produced by the liver that helps in the digestion and absorption of fats. When food containing fats enters the small intestine, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the digestive system to aid in the breakdown and absorption of fats. Therefore, the gallbladder acts as a storage organ for bile and releases it when needed during the digestion process.

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44. Which layer of the digestive tract is in direct contact with the digestive tract contents?

Explanation

The mucosa is the layer of the digestive tract that is in direct contact with the digestive tract contents. It lines the inner surface of the digestive tract and is responsible for absorbing nutrients and secreting digestive enzymes. The mucosa contains specialized cells and glands that aid in the digestion and absorption of food. It also acts as a protective barrier, preventing harmful substances from entering the bloodstream.

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45. What are dental carries?

Explanation

Dental carries refer to cavities in the teeth. Cavities are areas of tooth decay that develop when the enamel, the outer protective layer of the teeth, is damaged and bacteria start to erode the tooth. This can result in holes or cavities in the tooth structure. Therefore, "cavities" is the correct answer as it accurately describes dental carries.

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46. The sensation of heart burn is a result of the nerves being confused when acid expands in the stomach

Explanation

The sensation of heart burn is a result of the sphincter malfunctioning (not closing) and allowing backflow of acidic stomach fluid into the esophagus.

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47. When blood calcium levels increase we would expect

Explanation

When there is an increase in calcium levels, most likely Calcitonin would be released to lower calcium levels.

Prolactin affects the mammary glands into stimulating the development of mammary gland cells and the production of milk.

The parathyroid hormone (PTH) affects the bone, digestive tract and kidneys into actually RAISING blood calcium levels.

Aldosterone affects the kidneys into regulating body water balance by promoting sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion

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48. Which STD causes causes chancre, a hard, dry bacteria -filled sore, at the infection site

Explanation

Gonorrhea causes pus from penis and vaginal discharge and causes both painful urination.

Syphilis causes primarily chancre at the infection site.

Chlaymdia causes discharge from penis, vaginal discharge and itching, and causes both burning during urination.

AIDS causes fatigue, fever, chills, night sweats, swollen lymph node or spleen, diarrhea, loss of appetite, weight loss.

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49. Which phase of the cell cycle includes G1, S, and G2?

Explanation

Mitotic phase is the entire process of the nucleus and then the cytoplasm dividing.

Prophase is the first phase of mitosis. (During prophase the chromosomes condense and thicken, the pairs of centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell, and the mitotic spindle forms which is the structure that causes the two identical strands of DNA to divide.)

Cytokinesis is when the cytoplasm divides and two new cells (called daughter cells) are formed.

Interphase is the long growth period that is divided into the above three subphases.

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50. Cytokinesis is defined as

Explanation

Meiosis produces gametes.

Mitosis is the division of the cells nucleus

DNA replication duplicates the cell's DNA.

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51. Each of the following is an example of a way to detect cancer EXCEPT:

Explanation

Magnetism is a form of treatment in which there is injecting of metallic beads, coated with a chemotherapy drug, into the patients bloodstream and placing a powerful magnet at the cancer site to localize the drug.

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52. Malignant tumors

Explanation

Benign tumors have the other characteristics.

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53. Which of the following indicates the progressive stages of cancer development in the correct order?

Explanation

Remember metastasis is the last stage of true cancer development and they can only come from a malignant tumor. Benign tumors only go throw hyperplasia (cell dividing more rapidly than normal), but never become dysplasia (cells changing form).

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54. Metastasis is the process of

Explanation

Dysplasia is structural changes in a cell.

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55. Which is a reproductive hormone?

Explanation

Prolactin stimulates the production of breast milk

Oxytocin causes labor contractions

The luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone in males and progesterone and ovulation in females.

The growth hormone stimulates the growth in bones, muscles and most organs.

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56. What does the parathryroid hormones (PTH) do?

Explanation

PTH's target tissues are bone, kidney, and intestines.

Bone: increase osteoclast activity

Kidney: increased reabsorption of calcium and production of Vit. D

Intestines: increases calcium uptake

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57. Which alternative method of reproduction takes the sperm and egg to create fertilization in a test tube, then places the fertilized egg in the uterus?

Explanation

Artificial Insemination- donated sperm or concentrated sperm from a husband with low sperm count are placed in the vagina by a physician.

In Vitro Fertilization-sperm and egg are mixed in a test tube and the fertilized egg is placed in the female's uterus.

GIFT- eggs and sperm are immediately injected into the fallopian tubes.

ZIFT-egg is fertilized then placed in the fallopian tube to allow the natural process of it finding it's way to the uterus.

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58. What is NOT one of the three stages of urine production?

Explanation

Urine is PRODUCED, but it is not one of the three stages. The PRODUCTION of urine encompasses the three stages.

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59. The lens of the eye becomes opaque (not able to see through) with:

Explanation

Myopia is nearsightedness

Color blindness usually due to now having one type of cone.

Glucoma is increased pressure inside the eyes.

Cataracts are when proteins cloud the lens.

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60. Most animal sources of protein are incomplete whereas most plant sources of protein are complete.

Explanation

This statement is false. In fact, it is the opposite. Animal sources of protein, such as meat, eggs, and dairy products, are considered complete proteins because they contain all the essential amino acids that our bodies need. On the other hand, most plant sources of protein, such as legumes, grains, and vegetables, are considered incomplete proteins because they lack one or more essential amino acids. However, by combining different plant-based protein sources, it is possible to obtain all the essential amino acids and create a complete protein.

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61. What effect would a decrease in thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) have on the body?

Explanation

A reduction in the Antidiuretic hormone would allow more water to be lost through the kidneys.

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) affects the hormones in the thyroid gland. So a reduction in this hormone would cause a reduction in T4 and T5 which affect the regulation of celular metabolism. It also would reduce Calcitonin which is used to lower blood calcium levels; without Calcitonin calcium levels would stay high.

Blood calcium levels are lowered through the hormone Calcitonin.

Somatostatin in the pancreas inhibits the release of glucagon, insulin, growth hormone, and digestive secretions.

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62. Following delivery, which pair of hormones is most closely associated with lactation?

Explanation

Prolactin is released from the anterior pituitary gland and it affects the mammary glands in stimulating the development of mammary gland cells & milk production
Oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary gland and it affects the uterus in to inducing uterine contractions and the mammary glands in inducing ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
Estrogen and progesterone are female sex steroid hormones secreted by the ovaries and are involved in stimulating the menstrual cycle.

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63. Based on a 28-day menstrual cycle, with menstruation beginning on Day 1, at which of the following times is ovulation most likely to occur?

Explanation

Day 1-5: MENSTRUAL PERIOD-if the woman is not fertilized then the endometrium is sloughed off (the "period" stage)

Day 6-13: PROLIFERATIVE PHASE- endometrium thickens and prepares for pregnancy caused by the hormones estrogen and progesterone.

DAY: 14 OVULATION

DAYS: 15-28 SECRETORY PHASE- endometrium continues to thicken and secretion increase which provide nutrients to fertalize the eggs.

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64. The uterine cycle includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The growth and release of an oocyte is part of the Ovarian Cycle.

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65. A short segment of DNA that represents the code for a single protein is a

Explanation

Chromosomes are pairs of DNA that are packed onto 46 separate structures.

Chromatids are a collection of chromosomes seen during the interphase as a diffuse grainy substance.

Nucleotides are the structural units of DNA and RNA.

A gene is a short segment of DNA that represents the code for a single protein.

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66. The purpose of meiosis is

Explanation

The other answers Mitosis is responsible for.

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67. Which of the following are abnormal masses of cells:

Explanation

Tumors and neoplasms are abnormal masses of cells. Tumors refer to a swelling or lump formed by an abnormal growth of cells, which can be either benign or malignant. Neoplasms, on the other hand, are abnormal and uncontrolled growths of cells that can be benign or malignant. Metastasis, however, refers to the spread of cancer cells from one part of the body to another and is not considered an abnormal mass of cells. Therefore, the correct answer is a & c.

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68. Sex-linked inheritance refers to

Explanation

Sex-linked inheritance refers to the inheritance of genes located on a sex chromosome. This means that these genes are specifically found on either the X or Y chromosome and are passed down from one generation to the next through the sex chromosomes. This type of inheritance can result in certain traits or disorders being more commonly observed in one gender than the other, as the presence or absence of the gene on the sex chromosome can determine the expression of these traits.

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69. Which is NOT one of the hormones associated with the Anterior Pituitary Gland?

Explanation

The antidiuretic hormone is associated with the POSTERIOR pituitary gland.

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70. Which kind of receptors are found in the ear and detect sound, head position, acceleration, and rotational movement?

Explanation

Mechanoreceptors are the type of receptors found in the ear that detect sound, head position, acceleration, and rotational movement. These receptors are responsible for our ability to hear and maintain balance. Photoreceptors are involved in vision, thermoreceptors sense temperature, and chemoreceptors are responsible for taste and smell.

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71. The four different taste qualities are each located in a separate region of the tongue.

Explanation

Sweet, Sour, Bitter, Salty, Umami

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72. Which structure is NOT part of the large intestine?

Explanation

The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine that is connected to the stomach.

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73. Which of the following is NOT part of the structure of the small intestine?

Explanation

The small intestine is responsible for the absorption of nutrients from digested food. It is lined with finger-like projections called villi, which increase the surface area for absorption. The surface of the villi is covered with even smaller projections called microvilli, which further increase the surface area. Lacteals are specialized lymphatic vessels found in the small intestine that absorb dietary fats. Cilia, on the other hand, are hair-like structures found in other parts of the body such as the respiratory tract, where they help in moving mucus and debris. Therefore, cilia are not part of the structure of the small intestine.

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74. Chemical digestion of carbohydrates takes place in:

Explanation

Chemical digestion of carbohydrates begins in the mouth through the action of salivary amylase, which breaks down complex carbohydrates into smaller molecules. This process continues in the small intestine, where pancreatic amylase is released to further break down carbohydrates into simple sugars. Therefore, the correct answer is "the mouth and small intestine."

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75. Type 1 Diabetes is also called:

Explanation

Hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism have nothing to do with blood sugar; they create other problems such as Grave's disease (hypothyroidism) and Cushing's syndrome (hyperthyroidism).

Insulin resistance is associated with diabetes 2.

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76. Sperm are produced in the:

Explanation

The prostate gland produces high pH clotting factors to reduce the acidity of the vagina for the fluid that is used to create semen.
The site of sperm production are in the tests and more specifically the seminiferous tubules located with the testes.
The vas deferens (ductus deferens) connects the epididymis to the urethra; it's the passage way for the sperm.
The epididymis is where sperm is stored.

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77. Haploid cells:

Explanation

Mitosis is the division of a diploid cell to create two daughter cells with 46 chromosomes each identical to the parent or in other words it creates to more diploid cells.

Haploid cells are already primed to become a sperm or egg cell; they need no division because they already have 23 chromosomes.

Diploid cells have 46 chromosomes.

Haploid cells have 46 chromosomes

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78. The oviduct carries an egg from the uterus to the cervix.

Explanation

The oviduct carries an egg from the ovary to the uterus.

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79. All of the following are directly involved in translation EXCEPT:

Explanation

mRNA is the template that is used to translate or convert.

Ribosomes connect the mRNA and tRNA together

tRNAs capture single amino acids and then bring them to the appropriate spot on the mRNA chain.

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80. Tay-Sachs disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive disease. A couple has learned that they are both heterozygous carriers of the Tay-Sachs recessive gene. What is the probability that they will have a child with Tay-Sachs disease?

Explanation

Punnet square analysis shows that the probability of two heterozygotes having a child who is homozygous recessive for this trait is 25%.

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81. The inheritance of phenotypic traits that depend on many genes is called

Explanation

Dominante inheritance is the dominant allele supressing it's complementary allele.

Incomplete inheritance is when the heterozygous has an intermediate phenotype between either homozygote, like inheriting wavy hair from a curly haired mom and a straight haired dad.

Codominant inheritance is when the product of both allele are expressed equally, like blood type.

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82. All of the following disorders are due to the inheritance of recessive alleles EXCEPT

Explanation

Turner syndrome is not caused by the inheritance of recessive alleles. It is a genetic disorder that occurs due to the absence or incomplete presence of one of the sex chromosomes, typically the X chromosome. This condition affects females and can result in various physical and developmental abnormalities. Unlike the other disorders listed, Turner syndrome is not caused by the inheritance of recessive alleles, but rather by a chromosomal abnormality.

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83. Where do kidney stones develop?

Explanation

Minerals in the urine crystallize in the renal pelvis and form solid masses.

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84. Rotational movement of the head is sensed by the:

Explanation

The middle ear is more involved with controlling the intensity of the sound; it amplifies the sound.

The cochlea senses balance, body position, and head position and it also is involved in interpreting sound.

The vestibule senses the position of the head and linear acceleration.

Semicircular canals ALSO sense balance and body position.

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85. Epinephrine & norepinephrine affects the activity of all of the following tissues EXCEPT:

Explanation

Epinephrine and norepinephrine affect the activity of various tissues by binding to adrenergic receptors. These hormones increase heart rate, dilate bronchioles, and stimulate glycogenolysis. However, the kidney is not directly affected by epinephrine and norepinephrine. Instead, the kidney is primarily regulated by other hormones such as aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Therefore, the correct answer is kidney.

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86. What symptoms are associated with Human papillomavirus (HPV)?

Explanation

Hepatitis B causes nausea, fatigue, jaundice, abdominal pain, and arthritis.

Human papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital blisters, painful urination, fever, and swollen lymph node in groin.

Genital warts cause warts on the penis, labia, anus, or in the vagina or cervix.

Yeast infections cause discharge from penis and painful urination in men and vaginal pain. inflammation, and cheesy discharge in women.

Trichomoniasis is similar to yeast infections, but the book says specifically is causes discharge from inflamed penis and in women a frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge.

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87. All these are viral STDs, EXCEPT:

Explanation

Gonorrhea, syphilis, and chlamydia are bacterial STDs and all can be treated with antibiotics.

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88. During which phase of the cell cycle is cell division completed?

Explanation

Mitotic phase also include the nucleus dividion called mitosis and later the cell divides called cytokinsis.
G1: Primary growth period of the cell.
S: DNA is duplicated and growth continues slowly.
G2: Cell prepares for division and growth continues slowly.

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89. Which of the following events occurs during anaphase of mitosis?

Order these and give the name for extra credit.

Explanation

This all occurs in the Mitotic phase. Steps 1-3 are in Mitosis and step 4 is Cytokinesis

1) Prophase is when the mitotic spindle forms.

2) Metaphase is when the chromosomes align in the center of the cell.

3) Anaphase occurs when duplicate DNA molecules separate.

4) Telophase is the formation of new nuclear membranes.

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90. Embryo splitting creates an exact copy of the animal providing the body cell.

Explanation

Somatic cell nuclear transfer creates an exact copy of the animal providing the body cell.

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91. When a heterozygous genotype results in a phenotype that is intermediate between the two homozygous conditions, this type of inheritance is referred to as

Explanation

When a heterozygous genotype results in a phenotype that is intermediate between the two homozygous conditions, it indicates incomplete dominance. In this type of inheritance, neither allele is completely dominant or recessive, and the phenotype is a blend or mixture of the two alleles. This is different from complete dominance, where one allele is completely dominant over the other, and codominance, where both alleles are expressed equally.

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92. Which part of the sperm cell contains the mitochondria

Explanation

HEAD- nucleus and acrosome (sac of digestive enzymes that can penetrate the egg)

MIDDLE PIECE-contains the mitochondria (energy to fuel the flagellum)

TAIL- flagellum for mobility

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93. Myopia may occur when the eyeball is too short.

Explanation

Hyeropia occurs when the eyeball is too short and is causes farsightedness.

Myopia occurs when the eyeball is too long and causes nearsightedness.

Astigmatism is caused by an abnormal curvature of either the cornea or the lens.

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94. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. A daughter can be afflicted with hemophilia if she inherits

Explanation

Remember an individual must inherit both recessive links for the recessive gene to be present.

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95. What is the purpose of the auditory tube?

Explanation

JUST A THOUGHT:: Otitis media is a disorder caused by viruses that lead up the auditory tube and cause inflammation.

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96. Genital herpes is one of the most common bacterial sexually transmitted diseases.

Explanation

Genital herpes is caused by a VIRUS and currently there is no cure.

Chlamydia is one of the most common bacterial sexually transmitted diseases.

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97. As food enters the small intestine from the stomach, what is it mixed with?

Explanation

Bile and pancreatic juice are mixed with food when it enters the small intestine from the stomach.

Pepsin is the digestive enzyme that exists in the stomach.

Flatus is just gas in the stomach or intestines.

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