Appleton And Langes Pre Test
Practice test 250 questions
Questions and Answers
- 1.
In an inguinal herniorrhaphy the spermatic cord is
- A.
Ligated with a hemoclip
- B.
Retracted with a Penrose drain
- C.
Incised for ease of access
- D.
Clamped with a Kelly
Correct Answer
B. Retracted with a Penrose drainExplanation
In an inguinal herniorrhaphy, the spermatic cord needs to be retracted to provide better access to the hernia site. This is typically done using a Penrose drain, which is a soft, flexible tube that can be easily placed around the cord to gently retract it. Ligation with a hemoclip, incision for ease of access, or clamping with a Kelly are not appropriate methods for retracting the spermatic cord in this procedure.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Polyglycolic acid sutures are
- A.
Absorbed by an enzyme action
- B.
Absorbed by the process of hydrolysis
- C.
Nonabsorbable
- D.
Encapsulated by body tissue
Correct Answer
B. Absorbed by the process of hydrolysisExplanation
Polyglycolic acid sutures are absorbed by the process of hydrolysis. Hydrolysis is a chemical reaction in which a compound is broken down by the addition of water molecules. In the case of polyglycolic acid sutures, the hydrolysis process breaks down the suture material into smaller molecules, allowing it to be absorbed by the body over time. This is a desirable characteristic for sutures, as it eliminates the need for suture removal and reduces the risk of infection or tissue damage.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The pounds of pressure necessary in a flash steam sterilizer set at 270 degrees F is
- A.
15
- B.
17
- C.
20
- D.
27
Correct Answer
D. 27Explanation
Flash steam sterilizers are used to sterilize medical equipment and instruments. The temperature at which the sterilizer is set determines the pounds of pressure required. In this case, the sterilizer is set at 270 degrees F, which requires a pressure of 27 pounds. This pressure is necessary to ensure that the sterilization process is effective and thorough, killing any bacteria or microorganisms present on the equipment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A patient is having elective surgery. The nurse notes that her white cell count is 14,000 cu mm. This would indicate that
- A.
There may be an inflammation or infection present
- B.
The count is within normal range, and surgery can proceed
- C.
The count is below normal
- D.
There may be an anemic condition present, and surgery should be canceled.
Correct Answer
A. There may be an inflammation or infection presentExplanation
Based on the information provided, a white cell count of 14,000 cu mm indicates that there may be an inflammation or infection present. White blood cells are a part of the body's immune system and their count increases in response to an infection or inflammation. Therefore, this finding suggests that there might be an ongoing infection or inflammation, and it would be important to address this before proceeding with the surgery to minimize the risk of complications.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Distal refers to
- A.
Closer to the body
- B.
Away from the body
- C.
In the center of the body
- D.
Toward the feet
Correct Answer
B. Away from the bodyExplanation
Distal refers to a position or location that is farther away from the body. It is the opposite of proximal, which refers to a position or location that is closer to the body. In medical terms, distal is often used to describe the location of a body part or structure in relation to another body part or structure. For example, the fingers are distal to the wrist, as they are farther away from the body compared to the wrist.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Meckel's diverticulum is found in the
- A.
Esophagus
- B.
Sigmoid colon
- C.
Ileum
- D.
Duodenum
Correct Answer
C. IleumExplanation
Meckel's diverticulum is a small pouch or bulge that forms in the wall of the small intestine, specifically in the ileum. It is a congenital abnormality that occurs during fetal development when a small piece of tissue from the developing digestive tract fails to fully close off. This remnant tissue can then form a diverticulum in the ileum. Meckel's diverticulum can sometimes cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. It is important to be aware of this condition as it can mimic other gastrointestinal disorders and may require surgical intervention if complications arise.Rate this question:
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- 7.
In which case would a Frazier suction be used?
- A.
Eye
- B.
Ear
- C.
Gynecology
- D.
General
Correct Answer
B. EarExplanation
A Frazier suction is a specific type of suction device that is commonly used in ear surgeries. It is designed with a fine, delicate tip that allows for precise suctioning in the small and delicate structures of the ear. Therefore, it is used specifically for procedures and interventions related to the ear, such as removing excess fluid, clearing blockages, or extracting foreign objects.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Airborne contamination is reduced by recirculation of filtered outside air at a rate of
- A.
12 air exchanges per minute
- B.
12 air exchanges per hour
- C.
20 air exchanges per minute
- D.
25 air exchanges per hour
Correct Answer
D. 25 air exchanges per hourExplanation
The correct answer is 25 air exchanges per hour. This means that the air inside a space is completely replaced with filtered outside air 25 times in one hour. By increasing the rate of air exchanges, airborne contamination is reduced as more fresh air is brought in and circulated, diluting and removing any contaminants present in the indoor air. This helps maintain a healthy and clean environment by reducing the concentration of pollutants and improving air quality.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The purpose of OSHA is to
- A.
Ensure safe and healthful working conditions
- B.
Provide a mechanism for peer review
- C.
Establish quality assurance
- D.
Provide standards of patient care
Correct Answer
A. Ensure safe and healthful working conditionsExplanation
OSHA, which stands for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is responsible for ensuring safe and healthful working conditions for employees in the United States. This means that OSHA's main purpose is to enforce regulations and standards that protect workers from hazards and promote a safe workplace environment. OSHA does not have a role in providing mechanisms for peer review, establishing quality assurance, or setting standards of patient care. Its primary focus is on workplace safety and health.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Body heat in pediatric patients is controlled with all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Wrapping child in plastic materials
- B.
Warming blanket
- C.
Increasing room temperature
- D.
Hot water bottles
Correct Answer
D. Hot water bottlesExplanation
Hot water bottles are not used to control body heat in pediatric patients. Hot water bottles can pose a risk of burns or scalds, especially in young children. Therefore, they are not recommended for regulating body temperature in pediatric patients. Instead, body heat in pediatric patients can be controlled by wrapping the child in plastic materials, using a warming blanket, or increasing the room temperature.Rate this question:
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- 11.
If a family is contacted but cannot come in to sign a permission for emergency surgery, the surgeon should
- A.
Wait until they arrive
- B.
Accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication
- C.
Ask another physician to sign
- D.
Refuse to do the case
Correct Answer
B. Accept permission by phone, telegram, or in written communicationExplanation
In situations where a family is unable to physically come in to sign a permission for emergency surgery, it is crucial for the surgeon to obtain permission through other means. Accepting permission by phone, telegram, or in written communication allows the surgeon to proceed with the necessary surgery without any delay, ensuring that the patient receives the required medical intervention in a timely manner. This approach prioritizes the patient's well-being and ensures that necessary medical procedures are not postponed due to logistical challenges.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Unwrapped instruments are sterilized at 270 degrees F (132 C) for a minimum of
- A.
3 minutes
- B.
5 minutes
- C.
7 minutes
- D.
10 minutes
Correct Answer
A. 3 minutesExplanation
Instruments need to be sterilized at a high temperature to kill any potential bacteria or pathogens. The correct answer of 3 minutes indicates that this is the minimum amount of time required for the instruments to be exposed to the high temperature of 270 degrees F (132 C) in order to effectively sterilize them. This ensures that any harmful microorganisms are eliminated, reducing the risk of infection during medical procedures.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A retention suture passes through all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Mesentery tissue
- B.
Rectus muscle
- C.
Fascial tissue
- D.
Subcutaneous tissue
Correct Answer
A. Mesentery tissueExplanation
A retention suture is a type of suturing technique used to hold tissues together and prevent them from separating. It is commonly used in surgeries to provide additional support and promote wound healing. The retention suture passes through various layers of tissue, including the rectus muscle, fascial tissue, and subcutaneous tissue. However, it does not pass through the mesentery tissue. The mesentery is a fold of tissue that attaches the intestines to the abdominal wall and provides support and blood supply to the intestines. Since the mesentery is not directly involved in the closure or support of the wound, it is not included in the path of the retention suture.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A hernia that passes through the inguinal ring into the inguinal canal is termed
- A.
Direct
- B.
Indirect
- C.
Pantaloon
- D.
Sliding
Correct Answer
B. IndirectExplanation
An indirect hernia is a type of hernia that passes through the inguinal ring into the inguinal canal. This type of hernia occurs when a portion of the intestine or abdominal tissue pushes through the inguinal ring, which is a weak spot in the abdominal wall. Unlike a direct hernia, which protrudes directly through the abdominal wall, an indirect hernia follows the path of the spermatic cord or round ligament. Therefore, the correct answer is indirect.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Dead space is the space
- A.
That has no blood supply
- B.
Caused by separation of wound edges that have not been closely approximated
- C.
Where the tissue has been approximated with sutures
- D.
Where the suture line has broken down
Correct Answer
B. Caused by separation of wound edges that have not been closely approximatedExplanation
Dead space is the space that occurs when the edges of a wound are not closely brought together. This can happen when there is a separation between the wound edges, leading to a gap or empty space. In such cases, there is no proper blood supply to this area, which can hinder the healing process.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Wrapped tubing can be sterilized at 250 degrees F for a minimum of
- A.
5 minutes
- B.
10 minutes
- C.
20 minutes
- D.
30 minutes
Correct Answer
D. 30 minutesExplanation
The correct answer is 30 minutes because sterilization at 250 degrees Fahrenheit requires a longer duration to ensure complete elimination of microorganisms. Higher temperatures can cause faster sterilization, but it is essential to maintain the sterilization process for a sufficient period to achieve the desired level of sterility. A shorter time may not be enough to kill all the bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens present in the wrapped tubing, thus compromising the effectiveness of sterilization.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Funnel chest is also known as
- A.
Pectus carinatum
- B.
Pectus excavatum
- C.
Atresia
- D.
Ramstedt-Fredet
Correct Answer
B. Pectus excavatumExplanation
Funnel chest, also known as pectus excavatum, is a condition where the breastbone sinks into the chest, creating a concave appearance. This is the correct answer because the other options, pectus carinatum, atresia, and Ramstedt-Fredet, do not refer to the condition of funnel chest. Pectus carinatum is a condition where the breastbone protrudes outwards, atresia refers to the absence or closure of a body opening or passage, and Ramstedt-Fredet is a surgical procedure used to treat pyloric stenosis.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which term denotes low or decrease blood volume?
- A.
Anoxia
- B.
Hypovolemia
- C.
Hypoxia
- D.
Hpocapnia
Correct Answer
B. HypovolemiaExplanation
Hypovolemia refers to a low or decreased blood volume. This condition occurs when there is a loss of blood or fluid from the body, leading to a decrease in the amount of blood circulating within the blood vessels. Hypovolemia can be caused by factors such as bleeding, dehydration, or excessive fluid loss. Symptoms of hypovolemia may include dizziness, rapid heartbeat, low blood pressure, and decreased urine output. Treatment typically involves replacing the lost fluids through intravenous fluids or oral rehydration.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Injection of contrast media into the brachial, carotid, or vertebral artery to study the intracranial vessels is called
- A.
Myelography
- B.
Pneumoencephalography
- C.
Computed axial tomography (CAT) scan
- D.
Angiography
Correct Answer
D. AngiographyExplanation
Angiography is the correct answer because it involves the injection of contrast media into the brachial, carotid, or vertebral artery to study the intracranial vessels. This procedure allows for the visualization of blood vessels and can help diagnose conditions such as aneurysms, blockages, or abnormal blood vessel formations in the brain. Myelography is the injection of contrast media into the spinal canal, pneumoencephalography is the injection of air into the brain to visualize its structure, and computed axial tomography (CAT) scan is a diagnostic imaging technique that uses X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Instruments and other items sterilized together in the flash autoclave require
- A.
3 minutes at 270 F
- B.
53 minutes at 250 F
- C.
10 minutes at 270 F
- D.
30 minutes at 250 F
Correct Answer
C. 10 minutes at 270 FExplanation
Instruments and other items sterilized together in the flash autoclave require 10 minutes at 270 F because this combination of time and temperature is necessary to effectively kill any microorganisms present on the instruments and items. The flash autoclave operates at high temperatures to ensure sterilization, and the 10-minute duration is sufficient to achieve this while minimizing the risk of damage to the instruments and items being sterilized.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Suture material that becomes encapsulated with fibrous tissue during the healing process is
- A.
Nonabsorbable suture
- B.
Absorbable suture
- C.
Synthetic absorbable suture
- D.
Gut suture
Correct Answer
A. Nonabsorbable sutureExplanation
Nonabsorbable sutures are made from materials that are not broken down by the body and remain in place indefinitely. These sutures do not dissolve or get absorbed by the body during the healing process. Instead, they become encapsulated with fibrous tissue, which helps to hold the wound together and promote healing. This makes nonabsorbable sutures ideal for long-term wound closure, as they provide lasting support and strength.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A right hemicolectomy is performed to remove pathology of the
- A.
Descending colon
- B.
Ascending colon
- C.
Sigmoid colon
- D.
Mesocolon
Correct Answer
B. Ascending colonExplanation
A right hemicolectomy is a surgical procedure performed to remove pathology in the ascending colon. The ascending colon is the portion of the large intestine that extends from the cecum (the first part of the colon) to the transverse colon. This procedure may be necessary to treat conditions such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, or Crohn's disease that affect the ascending colon. During the surgery, the affected portion of the ascending colon is removed, and the remaining healthy parts of the colon are reconnected.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Dacryo refers to
- A.
Eyelid
- B.
Eyeball
- C.
Cornea
- D.
Lacrimal gland
Correct Answer
D. Lacrimal glandExplanation
Dacryo refers to the lacrimal gland. The lacrimal gland is responsible for producing tears, which keep the eye lubricated and help to flush out any foreign particles or irritants. Tears are important for maintaining the health and function of the eye.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When transporting a patient, drainage systems should be placed
- A.
At stretcher level
- B.
Below stretcher level
- C.
Above strethcher level
- D.
Optionally
Correct Answer
B. Below stretcher levelExplanation
When transporting a patient, drainage systems should be placed below stretcher level. This is because gravity will help the drainage system function properly and prevent any backflow or pooling of fluids. Placing the drainage system below the stretcher level ensures that any fluids or waste will flow downward and away from the patient, minimizing the risk of contamination or infection.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The maximum size of a linen pack must not exceed
- A.
8x10x16 inches
- B.
10x14x18 inches
- C.
12x12x20 inches
- D.
14x16x36 inches
Correct Answer
C. 12x12x20 inchesExplanation
The maximum size of a linen pack must not exceed 12x12x20 inches. This means that the dimensions of the pack should not exceed 12 inches in width, 12 inches in height, and 20 inches in length. Any pack that is larger than these dimensions would be considered too big and would not meet the requirements.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Another name for a stay suture is a (n)
- A.
Tension suture
- B.
Retention suture
- C.
Interrupted suture
- D.
Buried suture
Correct Answer
B. Retention sutureExplanation
A stay suture is a type of suture that is used to temporarily hold tissues in place during surgery or a medical procedure. It is typically used to provide tension or support to the tissues being operated on. The term "retention suture" is another name for a stay suture, as it accurately describes its purpose of retaining or holding the tissues together.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which two anatomic structures are ligated and divided to effect a cholecystectomy?
- A.
Common hepatic duct, common bile duct
- B.
Cystic duct, cystic artery
- C.
Common bile duct, cystic artery
- D.
Cystic duct, hepatic artery
Correct Answer
B. Cystic duct, cystic arteryExplanation
During a cholecystectomy, the cystic duct and cystic artery are ligated and divided. The cystic duct is the tube that connects the gallbladder to the common bile duct, and it is cut to remove the gallbladder. The cystic artery supplies blood to the gallbladder, and it is also ligated and divided to ensure proper blood flow control during the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Adeno means
- A.
Lymph
- B.
Gland
- C.
Joint
- D.
Bone
Correct Answer
B. GlandExplanation
Adeno- is a prefix that is commonly used in medical terminology to refer to a gland. It is derived from the Greek word "aden" which means gland. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is gland.Rate this question:
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- 29.
When the patient is being transferred from the OR table after surgery, the action should be
- A.
Swift but cautious in order to get the patient to the recovery room as quickly as possible
- B.
Performed with comfort of the patient as the prime concern
- C.
Gentle and rapid so that the patient does not wake up
- D.
Gentle and slow in order to prevent circulatory depression
Correct Answer
D. Gentle and slow in order to prevent circulatory depressionExplanation
The correct answer is gentle and slow in order to prevent circulatory depression. When a patient is being transferred from the OR table after surgery, it is important to handle them with care and avoid any sudden movements or jostling. Moving the patient gently and slowly helps to prevent circulatory depression, which is a condition characterized by a decrease in blood circulation. This is important because circulatory depression can lead to complications such as decreased oxygen supply to vital organs and tissues. Therefore, the priority is to ensure the patient's safety and well-being during the transfer process.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In steam sterilization, the function of pressure is to
- A.
Destroy microorganisms
- B.
Increase the temperature of the steam
- C.
Lower the exposure time
- D.
Create condensation
Correct Answer
B. Increase the temperature of the steamExplanation
The function of pressure in steam sterilization is to increase the temperature of the steam. When pressure is applied to steam, it raises its temperature, allowing it to reach higher levels of heat. This increased temperature is necessary to effectively kill microorganisms and ensure proper sterilization. By increasing the temperature of the steam, pressure helps to create an environment that is lethal to microorganisms, making the sterilization process more effective.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following suture materials is not generally used in the presence of infection?
- A.
Silk
- B.
Surgical gut
- C.
Polypropylene
- D.
Stainless steal
Correct Answer
A. SilkExplanation
Silk is not generally used in the presence of infection because it is a non-absorbable suture material. Non-absorbable sutures like silk can serve as a potential source of infection as they cannot be broken down by the body and may harbor bacteria, leading to an increased risk of infection. In contrast, absorbable sutures like surgical gut are broken down by the body over time, reducing the risk of infection. Polypropylene and stainless steel are also non-absorbable sutures, but they are more commonly used in the presence of infection due to their inert nature and resistance to bacterial colonization.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Radical surgery done for lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy is a (n)
- A.
Wertheim's procedure
- B.
Abdominal perineal resection
- C.
Whipple procedure
- D.
Pelvic exenteration
Correct Answer
B. Abdominal perineal resectionExplanation
Abdominal perineal resection is the correct answer for radical surgery done for lower sigmoid or rectal malignancy. This procedure involves the removal of the lower part of the sigmoid colon and the rectum, along with the creation of a permanent colostomy. It is typically performed for cancers located in the lower part of the rectum or in cases where the tumor is too close to the anal sphincter to preserve sphincter function. The procedure helps to completely remove the tumor and prevent its spread to nearby tissues and organs.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The term for fluid or water in the ventricles of the brain is
- A.
Hydrophobia
- B.
Hydrocephalus
- C.
Hydrocele
- D.
Hydronephrosis
Correct Answer
B. HydrocephalusExplanation
Hydrocephalus is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of fluid in the ventricles of the brain. This condition can occur due to an imbalance in the production and absorption of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to an increase in intracranial pressure. Symptoms of hydrocephalus can include headaches, nausea, vomiting, and cognitive impairment. Treatment options may include the insertion of a shunt to drain the excess fluid and relieve the pressure on the brain.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The patient may be left on the transport stretcher unattended
- A.
Under no cicumstances
- B.
If he or she is alert and responsible
- C.
If he or she is sound asleep
- D.
If he or she can be observed by passing personnel
Correct Answer
A. Under no cicumstancesExplanation
Under no circumstances should the patient be left on the transport stretcher unattended. This means that regardless of the situation, it is never acceptable to leave the patient alone on the stretcher. This is important because it ensures the safety and well-being of the patient. It is crucial to have someone present to monitor the patient's condition and respond to any emergencies or changes in their health. Leaving the patient unattended could lead to potential risks or complications that could have been prevented with proper supervision.Rate this question:
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- 35.
212 degrees F is equivalent to
- A.
32 degrees C
- B.
98.6 degrees C
- C.
100 degrees C
- D.
175 degrees C
Correct Answer
C. 100 degrees CExplanation
212 degrees Fahrenheit is the boiling point of water at sea level. In Celsius, water boils at 100 degrees. Therefore, 212 degrees Fahrenheit is equivalent to 100 degrees Celsius.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An anti-inflammatory drug whose effect is useful in reversing early rejection of organ transplants is
- A.
Cycloporine
- B.
Polyclonal
- C.
Prednisone
- D.
Orthoclone
Correct Answer
C. PrednisoneExplanation
Prednisone is an anti-inflammatory drug that is commonly used to suppress the immune system and prevent rejection of organ transplants. It works by reducing inflammation and suppressing the activity of the immune system, which helps to reverse the early stages of organ rejection. This drug is often prescribed in combination with other immunosuppressive medications to ensure the success of the transplant.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A congenital abnormality of the musculature between the stomach and the duodenum is called
- A.
Esophageal atresia
- B.
Pyloric stenosis
- C.
Intestinal atresia
- D.
Duodenal atresia
Correct Answer
B. Pyloric stenosisExplanation
Pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, known as the pylorus. This narrowing can lead to blockage and prevent food from passing through, causing symptoms such as projectile vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration. It is a congenital abnormality that typically presents in the first few weeks of life. Esophageal atresia, intestinal atresia, and duodenal atresia are all different conditions that involve abnormal development or closure of other parts of the digestive system.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A fossa is a
- A.
Ridge
- B.
Basin-like depression
- C.
Projection
- D.
Seam
Correct Answer
B. Basin-like depressionExplanation
A fossa is a basin-like depression. A basin-like depression refers to a low-lying area or hollow in the ground, resembling a basin or bowl shape. In the context of a fossa, it is a term used in anatomy to describe a shallow depression or groove in a bone or organ. The term "basin-like depression" accurately describes the anatomical structure of a fossa, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A procedure performed to treat myasthenia gravis is a (n)
- A.
Adrenalectomy
- B.
Splenectomy
- C.
Thymectomy
- D.
Parathyroidectomy
Correct Answer
C. ThymectomyExplanation
A thymectomy is a surgical procedure performed to treat myasthenia gravis. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the muscles and causes weakness and fatigue. The thymus gland, located in the chest, is believed to play a role in the development of this condition. Removing the thymus gland through a thymectomy can help alleviate the symptoms of myasthenia gravis and improve the patient's quality of life.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The purpose of lidocaine installation during a tracheotomy is to
- A.
Extend anesthesia
- B.
Decrease coughing
- C.
Decrease gag reflex
- D.
Reduce edema
Correct Answer
B. Decrease coughingExplanation
Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that is commonly used during medical procedures to numb a specific area. In the case of a tracheotomy, lidocaine is instilled to decrease coughing. This is because the insertion of a tracheostomy tube can irritate the airway and trigger coughing. By reducing coughing, lidocaine helps to maintain a clear airway and facilitate the procedure. It does not extend anesthesia, decrease gag reflex, or reduce edema.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A procedure that is done to give the bowel a rest when there is advanced inflammation is
- A.
Abdominoperineal resection (APR)
- B.
Right hemicolectomy
- C.
Anterior sigmoid resection
- D.
Temporary colostomy
Correct Answer
D. Temporary colostomyExplanation
A temporary colostomy is a procedure that is done to give the bowel a rest when there is advanced inflammation. It involves creating an opening in the abdominal wall and connecting a portion of the colon to a stoma on the surface of the abdomen. This allows stool to bypass the inflamed or blocked portion of the colon, giving it time to heal. It is a temporary measure and can be reversed once the inflammation subsides.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A forceps used to grasp lung tissue is a (n)
- A.
Crile
- B.
Adson
- C.
Duval
- D.
Walton
Correct Answer
C. DuvalExplanation
Duval forceps are specifically designed for grasping lung tissue during surgical procedures. They have a delicate and curved design that allows for precise and controlled manipulation of the tissue. Crile forceps are commonly used for general tissue grasping, Adson forceps are used for delicate tissue manipulation, and Walton forceps are used for bone and tissue manipulation. However, only Duval forceps are specifically designed for lung tissue grasping.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Heat-sensitive items that can be completely immersed can be processed via the ____________ in 30 minutes.
- A.
Ethylene oxide (ETO) sterilizer
- B.
Endoflush
- C.
Gravity displacement sterilizer
- D.
STERIS
Correct Answer
D. STERISExplanation
The correct answer is STERIS because STERIS is a company that provides various sterilization solutions, including ethylene oxide (ETO) sterilizers. ETO sterilizers are commonly used for heat-sensitive items that can be completely immersed, and the STERIS ETO sterilizer is capable of processing these items in 30 minutes. Therefore, STERIS is the appropriate choice for processing such items.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The maximum recommended dosage of local anesthetic drug per hour is
- A.
10 mL of 1% solution
- B.
50 Ml of 1% solution
- C.
150 mL of 1% solution
- D.
200 mL of 1% solution
Correct Answer
B. 50 Ml of 1% solutionExplanation
The maximum recommended dosage of a local anesthetic drug per hour is 50 mL of a 1% solution. This means that the maximum amount of the drug that should be administered in one hour is 50 mL, and the concentration of the drug in the solution should be 1%. This dosage limit is likely determined based on factors such as the drug's efficacy, safety profile, and potential side effects.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Ischemia can be defined as
- A.
Excessive blood supply to a part
- B.
Deficient blood supply to a part
- C.
Abnormal condition of the hipbone
- D.
Abnormal condition of the ischium and the anus
Correct Answer
B. Deficient blood supply to a partExplanation
Ischemia is a medical term that refers to a condition where there is a deficient blood supply to a specific part of the body. This can occur due to various reasons such as blockage or narrowing of blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient supply to the affected area. This lack of blood flow can result in tissue damage and potentially lead to various complications depending on the location and severity of the ischemia.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The person transporting the patient on a stretcher should
- A.
Push the strtcher from the head
- B.
Pull the stretcher by the foot
- C.
Guide the stretcher from either side
- D.
Guide the stretcher from any position that is comfortable
Correct Answer
A. Push the strtcher from the headExplanation
The person transporting the patient on a stretcher should push the stretcher from the head because it provides better control and maneuverability. Pushing from the head allows the person to have a clear view of the path ahead and easily navigate through obstacles. It also ensures that the patient's body remains stable and secure on the stretcher during transportation. Additionally, pushing from the head allows for better coordination with other team members who may be assisting in guiding the stretcher.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Activated glutaraldehyde
- A.
Is corrosive to instruments
- B.
Causes damage to lenses or the cement on lensed instruments
- C.
Is absorbed by rubber and plastic
- D.
Can be reused
Correct Answer
D. Can be reusedExplanation
Activated glutaraldehyde can be reused because it is a disinfectant that has the ability to kill microorganisms. After use, it can be filtered and replenished with fresh glutaraldehyde to maintain its effectiveness. This makes it a cost-effective option for disinfecting instruments and equipment in healthcare settings. However, it is important to follow proper guidelines and regulations for reusing activated glutaraldehyde to ensure its efficacy and safety.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A Weitlaner is a
- A.
Dissector
- B.
Grasper
- C.
Forceps
- D.
Retractor
Correct Answer
D. RetractorExplanation
A Weitlaner is a type of retractor commonly used in surgical procedures. Retractors are instruments used to hold back tissues or organs in order to provide better visibility and access to the surgical site. Weitlaner retractors have self-retaining blades that can be adjusted to different widths, allowing them to securely hold tissues apart during the procedure. This helps the surgeon to have a clear view and work more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which part of the pancreas is the most common site of malignant tumors?
- A.
Head
- B.
Body
- C.
Tail
- D.
Splenic portion
Correct Answer
A. HeadExplanation
The head of the pancreas is the most common site of malignant tumors. This is because the head of the pancreas is the largest and most accessible part of the organ, making it more prone to the development of tumors. Additionally, the head of the pancreas is in close proximity to the bile duct and duodenum, which can contribute to the spread of malignant cells.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The purpose of the two-way stopcock on a Verres needle is
- A.
To deflate pneumoperitoneum
- B.
To control gas flow
- C.
To release excess gas
- D.
To permit passage of accessory items
Correct Answer
B. To control gas flowExplanation
The two-way stopcock on a Verres needle is used to control the flow of gas. This allows the medical professional to regulate the amount of gas being introduced or released during a procedure. It provides the ability to adjust the gas flow as needed, ensuring precise control and accuracy in maintaining the desired pneumoperitoneum pressure. Additionally, the stopcock can be used to stop the flow of gas altogether if necessary.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 28, 2012Quiz Created by
Tigger28384
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