HEENT & Dental Exam Practice Test

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HEENT & Dental Exam Practice Test - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The visible portion of the auditory system, made up of a cartilaginous framework also known as the pinna:

    • A.

      Auditory Ossicles

    • B.

      Earlobe

    • C.

      Auricle

    • D.

      Hordeolum

    Correct Answer
    C. Auricle
    Explanation
    The visible portion of the auditory system is called the auricle. It is made up of a cartilaginous framework, also known as the pinna. The auricle helps to collect sound waves and direct them into the ear canal. It plays an important role in the process of hearing by capturing and funneling sound towards the middle and inner ear.

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  • 2. 

    The coiled bony structure of the inner ear:

    • A.

      Tympanic Membrane

    • B.

      Cochlea

    • C.

      Auricle

    • D.

      Stapes

    Correct Answer
    B. Cochlea
    Explanation
    The cochlea is the correct answer because it is a coiled bony structure located in the inner ear. It is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. The cochlea contains the sensory cells called hair cells, which are essential for hearing.

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  • 3. 

    Inflammation of the auditory canal and surface of the tympanic membrane:

    • A.

      Otitis Media

    • B.

      Otitis Externa

    • C.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane

    • D.

      Exudate

    Correct Answer
    B. Otitis Externa
    Explanation
    Otitis Externa refers to the inflammation of the auditory canal and surface of the tympanic membrane. This condition is commonly known as swimmer's ear and is usually caused by bacterial or fungal infections. Symptoms of otitis externa include pain, itching, redness, and swelling of the ear canal. It can be treated with antibiotic or antifungal ear drops and by keeping the ear dry.

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  • 4. 

    Produces a black light that causes certain substances to fluoresce. Used primarily to determine the presence of fungi on skin lesions:

    • A.

      Black Light

    • B.

      Fluorescence

    • C.

      Woods Lamp

    • D.

      Fungi Scope

    Correct Answer
    C. Woods Lamp
    Explanation
    A Woods Lamp is a device that produces a black light, which causes certain substances to fluoresce. It is primarily used to determine the presence of fungi on skin lesions. The black light emitted by the Woods Lamp helps to highlight any fungal infections on the skin, making it easier for healthcare professionals to diagnose and treat the condition.

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  • 5. 

    The skull is composed of seven bones (two frontal, three parietal, one temporal and one occipital)

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The skull is not composed of seven bones. In fact, the human skull is made up of 22 bones. These include the two frontal bones, two parietal bones, two temporal bones, one occipital bone, one sphenoid bone, and one ethmoid bone. Additionally, there are 14 facial bones that make up the rest of the skull. Therefore, the statement that the skull is composed of seven bones is incorrect.

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  • 6. 

    The facial muscles are innervated by which two two nerves: 

    • A.

      Bigeminal (CN IIII), Frontal ( CN VII)

    • B.

      Bigeminal (CN II), Frontal (CN VII)

    • C.

      Trigeminal (CN V), Facial (CNVII)

    • D.

      Trigeminal (CN VI), Facial (CN VII)

    Correct Answer
    C. Trigeminal (CN V), Facial (CNVII)
    Explanation
    The facial muscles are innervated by the trigeminal (CN V) and facial (CN VII) nerves. The trigeminal nerve provides sensory information from the face and innervates the muscles of mastication, while the facial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression. Therefore, the correct answer is Trigeminal (CN V), Facial (CN VII).

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  • 7. 

    In which anatomical direction is the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) located in relation to the tragus of the ear:

    • A.

      Posterior

    • B.

      Anterior

    • C.

      Inferior

    • D.

      Superior

    Correct Answer
    B. Anterior
    Explanation
    The temporomandibular joint (TMJ) is located in front of the tragus of the ear. This means that it is positioned anteriorly in relation to the tragus.

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  • 8. 

    The external eye is composed of which of the following structures:

    • A.

      Eyelid, Retina, Eye Muscles, Bony Orbit, Meibomian glands

    • B.

      Eyelid, Conjunctiva, Lacrimal Gland, Eye Muscles, Bony Orbit

    • C.

      Eyelid, Conjunctiva, Cornea, Lacrimal Gland, Eye Muscles, Choroid 

    • D.

      Eyelid, Sclera, Iris, Lens, Retina, Eye Muscles

    Correct Answer
    B. Eyelid, Conjunctiva, Lacrimal Gland, Eye Muscles, Bony Orbit
    Explanation
    The external eye is composed of the eyelid, conjunctiva, lacrimal gland, eye muscles, and bony orbit. The eyelid protects the eye and helps to spread tears. The conjunctiva is a thin membrane that covers the front surface of the eye and inner surface of the eyelids. The lacrimal gland produces tears to keep the eye lubricated. The eye muscles control the movement of the eye. The bony orbit is the socket in the skull that holds the eye.

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  • 9. 

    The major accessible artery of the face passing anterior to the ear is the: 

    • A.

      Carotid

    • B.

      Occipital

    • C.

      Temporal

    • D.

      Maxillary

    Correct Answer
    C. Temporal
    Explanation
    The major accessible artery of the face passing anterior to the ear is the temporal artery. This artery is located on the side of the head and supplies blood to the temples and the surrounding areas of the face. It is easily accessible for procedures such as taking the pulse or administering medication. The carotid artery is a major artery in the neck, the occipital artery is located at the back of the head, and the maxillary artery is located in the deep tissues of the face.

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  • 10. 

    The dense, avascular structure that appears anteriorly as the white of the eye: 

    • A.

      Cornea

    • B.

      Lens

    • C.

      Sclera

    • D.

      Retina

    Correct Answer
    C. Sclera
    Explanation
    The correct answer is sclera. The sclera is the dense, avascular structure that appears anteriorly as the white of the eye. It forms the outermost layer of the eye and provides protection and support to the eyeball. The sclera is composed of tough, fibrous tissue and helps maintain the shape of the eye.

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  • 11. 

    The sensory network of the eye. It transforms light impulses into electrical impulses:

    • A.

      Ciliary Body

    • B.

      Retina

    • C.

      Sclera

    • D.

      Cornea

    Correct Answer
    B. Retina
    Explanation
    The retina is the correct answer because it is the sensory network of the eye that is responsible for transforming light impulses into electrical impulses. It contains specialized cells called photoreceptors that detect light and convert it into electrical signals that can be processed by the brain. The electrical impulses generated by the retina are then transmitted to the brain via the optic nerve, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual information.

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  • 12. 

    Which is the correct order in which sound vibrations travel through the ossicles:

    • A.

      Incus, Stapes, Malleus

    • B.

      Stapes, Incus, Malleus

    • C.

      Malleus, Incus, Stapes

    • D.

      Malles, Stapes, Incus

    Correct Answer
    C. Malleus, Incus, Stapes
    Explanation
    The correct order in which sound vibrations travel through the ossicles is Malleus, Incus, Stapes. The ossicles are three small bones in the middle ear that transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The Malleus, also known as the hammer, is the first bone that receives the vibrations from the eardrum. It then transmits the vibrations to the Incus, or the anvil, which in turn passes them on to the Stapes, or the stirrup. Finally, the Stapes transfers the vibrations to the fluid-filled cochlea in the inner ear, where they are converted into electrical signals that the brain can interpret as sound.

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  • 13. 

    The structures of the inner ear are comprised of: 

    • A.

      Auricle, Cochlea, Auditory Nerve

    • B.

      Cochlea, Malleus, Incus

    • C.

      Semicircular Canals, Auditory, Nerve, Auricle

    • D.

      Cochlea, Semicircular Canals, Auditory Nerve

    Correct Answer
    D. Cochlea, Semicircular Canals, Auditory Nerve
    Explanation
    The structures of the inner ear are comprised of the cochlea, semicircular canals, and auditory nerve. The cochlea is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. The semicircular canals are involved in maintaining balance and detecting head movements. The auditory nerve carries the electrical signals from the cochlea to the brain, where they are processed and interpreted as sound.

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  • 14. 

    The medial wall of each nasal cavity is formed by the: 

    • A.

      Nasal Mucosa

    • B.

      Nasal Cartilage

    • C.

      Nasal Bone

    • D.

      Nasal Septum

    Correct Answer
    D. Nasal Septum
    Explanation
    The medial wall of each nasal cavity is formed by the nasal septum. The nasal septum is a structure made up of bone and cartilage that divides the nasal cavity into two halves. It separates the left and right sides of the nasal cavity, providing support and maintaining the shape of the nose. The nasal septum also plays a role in directing airflow and helping to filter and humidify the air we breathe.

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  • 15. 

    The principal functions of the nasal cavities include:

    • A.

      Cleansing, Immune, Humidification 

    • B.

      Cleansing, Humidification, Ventilation

    • C.

      Cleansing, Humidification, Temperature Control

    • D.

      Cleansing, Ventilation, Temperature Control

    Correct Answer
    C. Cleansing, Humidification, Temperature Control
    Explanation
    The nasal cavities have several important functions. One of these functions is cleansing, as the nasal hairs and mucus help to trap and remove particles and debris from the air we breathe. Another function is humidification, as the nasal cavities moisten and warm the air before it reaches the lungs. Lastly, the nasal cavities also play a role in temperature control, as the blood vessels in the nasal mucosa help to regulate the temperature of the air we inhale.

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  • 16. 

    Which two sinuses are readily accessible to clinical examination: 

    • A.

      Frontal, Maxillary

    • B.

      Frontal, Sphenoid

    • C.

      Maxillary, Ethmoid

    • D.

      Maxillary, Sphenoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal, Maxillary
    Explanation
    The frontal and maxillary sinuses are readily accessible to clinical examination. The frontal sinus is located in the forehead, above the eyes, and can be examined through the use of a transillumination technique or imaging studies. The maxillary sinus is located in the cheekbones, and can be examined through a physical examination or imaging studies. These sinuses are easily accessible for examination due to their location in the facial bones.

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  • 17. 

    Throbbing, pounding and boring would be under which category of a headache in a history of present illness (HPI):

    • A.

      Associated Symptoms

    • B.

      Location

    • C.

      Character

    • D.

      Duration

    Correct Answer
    C. Character
    Explanation
    In a history of present illness (HPI), the category of a headache that includes throbbing, pounding, and boring would be "Character." This category refers to the specific qualities or sensations experienced during the headache, such as the type of pain or discomfort felt.

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  • 18. 

    Coarse hair is an abnormality associated with what condition:

    • A.

      Hyperthyroidism

    • B.

      Hypothyroidism 

    • C.

      Dandruff

    • D.

      Dry Scalp

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypothyroidism 
    Explanation
    Coarse hair is a common symptom of hypothyroidism. Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to a slower metabolism. This can cause changes in hair texture, including dryness and coarseness. Additionally, hypothyroidism can also cause hair loss and thinning. Therefore, the correct answer is Hypothyroidism.

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  • 19. 

    When testing visual acuity what is the typical eye chart used as well as the appropriate distance:

    • A.

      Jaegar chart, 20 ft

    • B.

      Lea Test, 10 ft

    • C.

      Snellen Eye Chart, 20 ft

    • D.

      Snellen Eye Chart, 15 ft

    Correct Answer
    C. Snellen Eye Chart, 20 ft
    Explanation
    The Snellen Eye Chart is typically used when testing visual acuity. It is designed to measure the sharpness of a person's vision at a distance of 20 feet. The chart consists of letters of different sizes, and the person being tested is asked to read the smallest line of letters that they can see clearly. This test helps determine if a person has normal vision or if they have any visual impairments.

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  • 20. 

    Large pupils are characterized by a value of: 

    • A.

      >3mm

    • B.

      >4mm

    • C.

      >5mm

    • D.

      >6mm

    Correct Answer
    C. >5mm
    Explanation
    Large pupils are characterized by a value of greater than 5mm. Pupils normally dilate and constrict in response to changes in light, but if the pupils remain consistently dilated at a size larger than 5mm, it indicates a condition called mydriasis. Mydriasis can be caused by various factors such as medications, neurological disorders, or eye injuries. It is important to monitor and evaluate large pupils as they can be a sign of an underlying health issue.

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  • 21. 

    Small pupils are characterized by a value of: 

    • A.

      <2mm

    • B.

      <3mm

    • C.

      <4mm

    • D.

      <5mm

    Correct Answer
    B. <3mm
    Explanation
    Small pupils are characterized by a value of less than 3mm. This means that the diameter of the pupil is less than 3mm. Pupil size can vary depending on various factors such as lighting conditions, emotions, and certain medical conditions. A pupil size of less than 3mm may indicate constriction or narrowing of the pupil, which can be a normal response to bright light or a sign of certain medical conditions such as Horner's syndrome or certain types of drug use.

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  • 22. 

    Fine rhythmic oscillation of the eyes is called:

    • A.

      Nystagmus

    • B.

      Conjugate movements

    • C.

      Extraocular movements

    • D.

      Myopia

    Correct Answer
    A. Nystagmus
    Explanation
    Nystagmus is the correct answer because it refers to the fine rhythmic oscillation of the eyes. This condition causes involuntary eye movements, which can be horizontal, vertical, or rotary in nature. Nystagmus can be present at birth or acquired later in life, and it can be caused by various factors such as neurological disorders, certain medications, or inner ear problems. The oscillation of the eyes in nystagmus can affect vision and may lead to reduced visual acuity or difficulties with depth perception.

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  • 23. 

    The device used to examine the posterior structure of the retina is called:

    • A.

      Otoscope

    • B.

      Opthalmoscope

    • C.

      Hordeolum

    • D.

      Retinascope

    Correct Answer
    B. Opthalmoscope
    Explanation
    The device used to examine the posterior structure of the retina is called an ophthalmoscope. This instrument allows healthcare professionals to view the inside of the eye, including the retina, optic disc, and blood vessels. It consists of a light source and a series of lenses that enable the examiner to see the structures at the back of the eye. By using an ophthalmoscope, doctors can detect various eye conditions and diseases, such as diabetic retinopathy, macular degeneration, and glaucoma.

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  • 24. 

    When inspecting the pharynx, the rise of the soft palate is a test for the: 

    • A.

      Lymph Nodes

    • B.

      Cranial Nerve

    • C.

      Vagal Nerve

    • D.

      Tonsils

    Correct Answer
    C. Vagal Nerve
    Explanation
    The rise of the soft palate is a test for the Vagal Nerve. The Vagal Nerve, also known as the tenth cranial nerve, plays a crucial role in controlling various functions of the body, including swallowing and speech. When inspecting the pharynx, the rise of the soft palate indicates that the Vagal Nerve is functioning properly. This test helps in assessing the integrity of the nerve and can be useful in diagnosing certain conditions or disorders related to the Vagal Nerve.

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  • 25. 

    The lymph nodes characterized by location at the angle of the mandible:

    • A.

      Submandibular

    • B.

      Tonsillar

    • C.

      Submental

    • D.

      Occipital

    Correct Answer
    B. Tonsillar
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Tonsillar because the lymph nodes located at the angle of the mandible are typically associated with the tonsils. These lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system and help filter and trap bacteria, viruses, and other harmful substances that may enter the body through the mouth and throat. The tonsillar lymph nodes play a crucial role in immune response and are commonly examined during medical examinations to check for any signs of infection or inflammation in the tonsils.

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  • 26. 

    A 26 year old patient tells you that they are experiencing photophobia, foreign body sensation with a history of contact lens use and rubbing of the eyes. The most likely assessment would be:

    • A.

      Conjunctivitis 

    • B.

      Conjunctival Foreign Body

    • C.

      Corneal Abrasion and Ulceration

    • D.

      Otitis Externa

    Correct Answer
    C. Corneal Abrasion and Ulceration
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described by the patient, specifically photophobia, foreign body sensation, contact lens use, and rubbing of the eyes, the most likely assessment would be corneal abrasion and ulceration. These symptoms are commonly associated with corneal damage, which can occur from trauma caused by contact lenses or eye rubbing. Conjunctivitis and conjunctival foreign body may cause similar symptoms but are less likely given the patient's history. Otitis externa, an infection of the outer ear, is unrelated to the symptoms described.

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  • 27. 

    You observe in a 35 year old patient red eyes, crusting eyelids, and signs of herpetic vesicles. The most likely assessment would be: 

    • A.

      Corneal Abrasion and Ulceration

    • B.

      Conjunctivitis 

    • C.

      Conjunctival Foreign Body

    • D.

      Epistaxis

    Correct Answer
    B. Conjunctivitis 
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described (red eyes, crusting eyelids, and signs of herpetic vesicles), the most likely assessment would be conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva (the clear tissue covering the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids). It can be caused by various factors including viral or bacterial infections, allergies, or irritants. The presence of herpetic vesicles suggests a viral cause, such as herpes simplex virus (HSV) conjunctivitis.

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  • 28. 

    You observe in an assessment of a 40 year old patient conjunctiva and sclera injection, visible foreign bodies and blurred vision. The most likely assessment would be: 

    • A.

      Corneal Abrasion and Ulceration

    • B.

      Blepharospasm

    • C.

      Conjunctivitis

    • D.

      Conjunctival Foreign Body

    Correct Answer
    D. Conjunctival Foreign Body
    Explanation
    The most likely assessment for a 40-year-old patient with conjunctiva and sclera injection, visible foreign bodies, and blurred vision would be Conjunctival Foreign Body. Conjunctival foreign bodies can cause redness and irritation of the conjunctiva and sclera, as well as blurred vision. The presence of visible foreign bodies supports this assessment. Corneal abrasion and ulceration may also cause similar symptoms, but the presence of visible foreign bodies suggests a conjunctival foreign body rather than corneal involvement. Blepharospasm refers to involuntary eyelid closure and is not likely to cause the specific symptoms described. Conjunctivitis may cause redness and blurred vision, but the presence of visible foreign bodies makes Conjunctival Foreign Body a more likely assessment.

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  • 29. 

    You observe in a 50 year old patient decreased ear drum mobility and a bulging tympanic membrane. The most likely assessment would be: 

    • A.

      Otitis Media

    • B.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane

    • C.

      Otitis Externa 

    • D.

      Epistaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Otitis Media
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as decreased ear drum mobility and a bulging tympanic membrane, the most likely assessment would be Otitis Media. Otitis Media refers to an infection or inflammation of the middle ear, which can cause these symptoms. The other options, such as Perforated Tympanic Membrane, Otitis Externa, and Epistaxis, do not match the given symptoms and are less likely to be the correct assessment in this case.

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  • 30. 

    You observe in a 55 year old patient a trismus clenched jaw, hot potato voice and halitosis. The most likely assessment would be: 

    • A.

      Pharyngitis Strep- Throat

    • B.

      Pertonsillar Abscess

    • C.

      Tonsillitis 

    • D.

      Pneumonia

    Correct Answer
    B. Pertonsillar Abscess
    Explanation
    The given symptoms of trismus clenched jaw, hot potato voice, and halitosis are indicative of a peritonsillar abscess. Trismus refers to difficulty in opening the mouth, which can be caused by the abscess pressing on the jaw muscles. The hot potato voice is a muffled or hoarse voice caused by the abscess obstructing the airway. Halitosis, or bad breath, can occur due to the infection in the abscess. These symptoms are characteristic of a peritonsillar abscess rather than other conditions such as pharyngitis, strep throat, tonsillitis, or pneumonia.

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  • 31. 

    Which point range indicates a positive predictive value for group A streptococcal infection:

    • A.

      1-2

    • B.

      0-1

    • C.

      4-5

    • D.

      2-3

    Correct Answer
    C. 4-5
    Explanation
    A positive predictive value indicates the probability that a positive test result accurately predicts the presence of a specific condition or infection. In this case, a point range of 4-5 indicates a high probability of group A streptococcal infection. This means that if a patient falls within this point range, there is a strong likelihood that they have the infection.

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  • 32. 

    Pain and inflammation resulting from exposed bone associated with disturbance of a blood clot after extraction of a tooth is referred to as: 

    • A.

      Apthous Ulcer

    • B.

      Apical Foramen

    • C.

      Alveolitis 

    • D.

      Calculus

    Correct Answer
    C. Alveolitis 
    Explanation
    Alveolitis refers to the pain and inflammation that occurs when the bone is exposed after a tooth extraction. This condition occurs when the blood clot that forms to protect the extraction site becomes dislodged or dissolves too soon, leaving the bone exposed to air, food, and bacteria. This can cause severe pain and discomfort and may require further treatment to alleviate symptoms and promote healing.

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  • 33. 

    A superficial infection caused by a yeast like fungus also known as thrush: 

    • A.

      Gingiva

    • B.

      Candidiasis

    • C.

      Abscess

    • D.

      Leukoplakia

    Correct Answer
    B. Candidiasis
    Explanation
    Candidiasis is a superficial infection caused by a yeast-like fungus. It is also commonly known as thrush. This infection can occur in various parts of the body, including the mouth, throat, and genital area. In the context of the given question, candidiasis is the correct answer as it specifically refers to the yeast-like fungus causing the infection, which matches the description provided.

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  • 34. 

    Inflammation of the gingiva around a partially erupted tooth: 

    • A.

      Gingivitis

    • B.

      Pericoronitis

    • C.

      Periodontal Disease

    • D.

      Periodontal Abscess

    Correct Answer
    B. Pericoronitis
    Explanation
    Pericoronitis is the inflammation of the gingiva (gums) around a partially erupted tooth. This condition commonly occurs when the wisdom teeth are erupting and the gum tissue becomes irritated and infected due to food debris and bacteria getting trapped between the tooth and the gum flap. Symptoms of pericoronitis include pain, swelling, redness, and difficulty in opening the mouth. Treatment usually involves maintaining good oral hygiene, rinsing with warm saltwater, and in severe cases, the removal of the flap of gum tissue or the tooth itself.

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  • 35. 

    Permanent teeth are characterized by how many teeth:

    • A.

      32

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      28

    • D.

      34

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    Permanent teeth are characterized by 32 teeth because the permanent dentition consists of 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 premolars, and 12 molars (including 4 third molars or wisdom teeth). This totals to 32 teeth in the permanent dentition, which replace the primary or baby teeth.

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  • 36. 

    Primary teeth are lettered by:

    • A.

      A-H

    • B.

      A-U

    • C.

      A-T

    • D.

      A-Z

    Correct Answer
    C. A-T
    Explanation
    Primary teeth are lettered by using the letters A-T. This is a common method used in dentistry to identify and refer to specific primary teeth. Each letter corresponds to a specific tooth, with A representing the central incisor and T representing the second primary molar. This lettering system helps dental professionals communicate and keep track of primary teeth during examinations, treatments, and discussions.

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  • 37. 

    A general term to denote the inflammation of the oral mucosa: 

    • A.

      Gingivitis

    • B.

      Pericoronitis

    • C.

      Stomatitis

    • D.

      Peridontitis

    Correct Answer
    C. Stomatitis
    Explanation
    Stomatitis is a general term used to describe the inflammation of the oral mucosa. It can be caused by various factors such as infections, allergies, or irritants. This condition can result in painful sores or ulcers in the mouth, making it difficult to eat or speak comfortably. Treatment for stomatitis depends on the underlying cause and may involve medications to reduce inflammation, pain relief, and maintaining good oral hygiene. Gingivitis, pericoronitis, and periodontitis are specific terms used to describe inflammation or infection of the gums and surrounding tissues, whereas stomatitis is a broader term encompassing inflammation of the entire oral mucosa.

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  • 38. 

    The 3 main types of oral mucosa are: 

    • A.

      Gustatory, Masticatory, General

    • B.

      Gustatory, Lining, General

    • C.

      Masticatory, Gustatory, Specialized

    • D.

      Masticatory, Lining, Specialized

    Correct Answer
    D. Masticatory, Lining, Specialized
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Masticatory, Lining, Specialized. Oral mucosa refers to the lining of the oral cavity. Masticatory mucosa is found in areas that are subjected to more mechanical stress, such as the gingiva and hard palate. Lining mucosa is found in areas that are less stressed, such as the buccal mucosa and floor of the mouth. Specialized mucosa refers to specific areas with unique characteristics, such as the taste buds on the tongue.

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  • 39. 

    The Gingiva protect the alveolar process and periodontal ligament from:

    • A.

      Viral invasion

    • B.

      Bacterial invasion

    • C.

      Fungal invasion

    • D.

      Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    B. Bacterial invasion
    Explanation
    The gingiva, also known as the gums, act as a protective barrier for the underlying structures such as the alveolar process and periodontal ligament. One of the main threats that the gingiva protects against is bacterial invasion. Bacteria can cause infections and inflammation in the oral cavity, leading to gum disease and potential damage to the alveolar process and periodontal ligament. Therefore, the gingiva plays a crucial role in preventing bacterial invasion and maintaining the health of the supporting structures of the teeth.

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  • 40. 

    The dental arch not capable of movement:

    • A.

      Mandible

    • B.

      Frontal

    • C.

      Maxillary

    • D.

      Hard Palate

    Correct Answer
    C. Maxillary
    Explanation
    The dental arch that is not capable of movement is the maxillary arch. The maxillary arch refers to the upper jaw, which is fixed in place and does not have the ability to move. The mandible, on the other hand, is the lower jaw and is capable of movement for activities such as chewing and speaking. The frontal bone is part of the skull and is not directly involved in dental arch movement. The hard palate is the bony structure that forms the roof of the mouth and is also not capable of movement.

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  • 41. 

    The part of the crown exposed in the mouth:

    • A.

      Clinical

    • B.

      Anatomical

    • C.

      Biological

    • D.

      Visible

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical
    Explanation
    The term "clinical" refers to anything related to the examination, diagnosis, and treatment of patients. In this context, the part of the crown that is exposed in the mouth is often referred to as the "clinical" part because it is the part that can be visually observed and assessed during a dental examination. It is the part that dentists work on and treat when necessary.

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  • 42. 

    The following dental classifications are considered worldwide deployable:

    • A.

      Class1, Class 3

    • B.

      Class 2, Class 4

    • C.

      Class 1, Class 2

    • D.

      Class 2, Class 3

    Correct Answer
    C. Class 1, Class 2
    Explanation
    The dental classifications that are considered worldwide deployable are Class 1 and Class 2.

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  • 43. 

    The surface of the mandibular and maxillary teeth which is closest to the tongue:

    • A.

      Occlusal

    • B.

      Buccal

    • C.

      Lingual

    • D.

      Facial

    Correct Answer
    C. Lingual
    Explanation
    The lingual surface refers to the surface of the teeth that is closest to the tongue. This surface is typically smooth and is involved in the process of chewing and speaking. It is important for maintaining proper oral hygiene as it can easily accumulate plaque and bacteria.

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  • 44. 

    The anatomical position of the Incisors and Canines is:

    • A.

      Superior

    • B.

      Anterior

    • C.

      Inferior

    • D.

      Posterior

    Correct Answer
    B. Anterior
    Explanation
    The anatomical position of the incisors and canines is anterior. Anterior refers to the front or forward-facing position in the body. In the case of the teeth, the incisors and canines are located at the front of the mouth, towards the front of the dental arch. They are responsible for cutting and tearing food, and their position at the front allows for effective biting and chewing.

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  • 45. 

    During the process of aspiration in which blood, pus and salvia is removed the most appropriate device to use would be a: 

    • A.

      Saliva Ejector

    • B.

      Leur Syringe

    • C.

      Vacuum Suction

    • D.

      Adjunct

    Correct Answer
    A. Saliva Ejector
    Explanation
    During the process of aspiration, the most appropriate device to use would be a saliva ejector. A saliva ejector is a small, handheld device that uses suction to remove saliva, blood, and other fluids from the mouth. It is specifically designed for use in dental procedures to keep the mouth clear and dry. The other options, Leur Syringe and Vacuum Suction, may not be as suitable for this purpose. An adjunct refers to any additional tool or device used to aid in a procedure, but it does not specifically address the removal of blood, pus, and saliva.

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  • 46. 

    To ensure dental infection control guidelines are followed training is required:

    • A.

      Biannually

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Annually

    • D.

      Bimonthly

    Correct Answer
    C. Annually
    Explanation
    Training is required annually to ensure dental infection control guidelines are followed. This means that dental professionals need to undergo training once every year to stay updated on the latest infection control protocols and procedures. By receiving regular training, dental staff can maintain a high standard of infection control practices, which is crucial for the safety and well-being of both patients and staff. It allows them to stay informed about any new guidelines or best practices in the field and ensures that they are consistently implementing effective infection control measures in their daily work.

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  • 47. 

    A fracture involving the enamel and the dentin layers with no pulp exposed:

    • A.

      Type II

    • B.

      Type III

    • C.

      Type I

    • D.

      Type IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Type II
    Explanation
    Type II fractures involve the enamel and dentin layers but do not expose the pulp. This means that the outer protective layer (enamel) and the inner layer (dentin) of the tooth are damaged, but the innermost layer (pulp) is still intact. This type of fracture typically results from trauma or injury to the tooth.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 14, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Alfredhook3
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