A Quiz On Anesthesia Drugs! Test

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  • 1/10 Questions

    A patient develops auditory hallucinations and has a convulsion while you are reducing a nasal fracture and packing the nares.  Spray and mucosal application of cocaine was used as an anesthetic.  Appropriate management is:

    • Call 911 and wait for EMT transport
    • Airway management and IV diazepam
    • Succinylcholine IV
    • Epinephrine IV
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About This Quiz

A quiz on an anesthesia drugs test. Different drugs have different effects depending on the patient and amounts given. There are different types of drugs used by anesthetists. Did you know that Propofol is one of the most commonly used intravenous drugs employed to induce and maintain general anesthesia? What are its side effects? See if you know as much as you think about the different drugs, their effect as well as content by taking this quiz.

A Quiz On Anesthesia Drugs! Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    In ambient conditions, the most important determinant of oxygen content is:

    • Increased pH

    • 2,3 DPG levels

    • Elevated temperature

    • Hemoglobin concentration

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemoglobin concentration
    Explanation
    The most important determinant of oxygen content in ambient conditions is the concentration of hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that binds to oxygen and carries it throughout the body. A higher concentration of hemoglobin means there are more molecules available to bind with oxygen, increasing the oxygen content. pH, 2,3 DPG levels, and temperature can also affect oxygen content, but they are not as significant as hemoglobin concentration.

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  • 3. 

    A contraindication for spinal anesthesia is:

    • Elderly patients

    • Sepsis

    • Infants

    • Diabetics

    Correct Answer
    A. Sepsis
    Explanation
    Sepsis is a contraindication for spinal anesthesia because it is a severe infection that can lead to systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction. Spinal anesthesia involves injecting medication into the spinal canal, which can spread throughout the body. In the presence of sepsis, the immune system is already compromised and the body is fighting off the infection, so the additional stress of spinal anesthesia can further worsen the condition. Therefore, it is not recommended to perform spinal anesthesia in patients with sepsis.

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  • 4. 

    Sodium thiopental 5mL was inadvertently injected into the radial artery at the wrist.  The complication that could be expected is:

    • Vasoconstriction, thrombosis and necrosis

    • Vasodilation and shock

    • Convulsions and coma

    • Cardiac arrhythmia and cardiac arrest

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasoconstriction, thrombosis and necrosis
  • 5. 

    A characteristic of first-order kinetics is:

    • Steady state levels cannot be predicted

    • A loading dose is determined by the desired plasma level

    • The half-life of a drug is equal to the rate of elimination

    • First order kinetics applies to all drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. The half-life of a drug is equal to the rate of elimination
    Explanation
    First-order kinetics refers to a type of drug elimination where the rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration. In this type of kinetics, the half-life of a drug is equal to the rate of elimination. This means that it takes the same amount of time for the drug concentration to decrease by half, regardless of the initial concentration. The other options are incorrect because steady state levels can be predicted in first-order kinetics, the loading dose is determined by the desired plasma level but not necessarily in first-order kinetics, and first-order kinetics does not apply to all drugs.

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  • 6. 

    The non-depolarizing agent that has a predictable rate of metabolism is:

    • Atracurium

    • D-tubocurarine

    • Vecruonium

    • Pancuronium

    Correct Answer
    A. Atracurium
    Explanation
    Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that undergoes spontaneous degradation in the body via Hofmann elimination and ester hydrolysis. This metabolism is independent of liver or kidney function, making it predictable and reliable. In contrast, D-tubocurarine is metabolized by the liver, vecuronium is primarily eliminated by the liver and kidney, and pancuronium is mainly excreted unchanged in the urine. Therefore, atracurium is the correct answer as it has a predictable rate of metabolism.

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  • 7. 

    The best method to determine the proper placement of an endotracheal tube is:

    • Exhaust tube capnography

    • Auscultation of the chest

    • Observation of chest motion with ventilation

    • Visualization of the chords

    Correct Answer
    A. Exhaust tube capnography
    Explanation
    Exhaust tube capnography is the best method to determine the proper placement of an endotracheal tube. Capnography measures the level of carbon dioxide in exhaled breath, and it is a reliable indicator of correct tube placement in the trachea. If the tube is properly placed, exhaled breath will contain a high concentration of carbon dioxide. This method is more accurate and reliable than other options such as auscultation of the chest, observation of chest motion, or visualization of the chords.

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  • 8. 

    The most significant side effect of pancuronium is:

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Renal insufficiency

    • Hyperthermia

    • Sympathetic stimulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathetic stimulation
    Explanation
    Pancuronium is a neuromuscular blocking agent used during surgery to induce muscle relaxation. One of its side effects is sympathetic stimulation, which can lead to an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output. This occurs due to the blockade of muscarinic receptors in the autonomic ganglia, resulting in the dominance of sympathetic activity. Other side effects of pancuronium include tachycardia, increased intraocular pressure, and bronchospasm. Hyperkalemia, renal insufficiency, and hyperthermia are not commonly associated with pancuronium use.

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  • 9. 

    Preoperative preparation of a 70 yr old smoker with a normal EKG should include:

    • Coronary angiography

    • MRI

    • Stress test

    • Pulmonary function tests

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress test
    Explanation
    A stress test is a non-invasive procedure used to assess the heart's response to physical activity. In this case, the patient is a 70-year-old smoker with a normal EKG. The stress test would help evaluate the patient's cardiovascular fitness and identify any potential underlying heart conditions that may pose a risk during surgery. This information would assist in determining the appropriate preoperative management and anesthesia plan for the patient. Coronary angiography, MRI, and pulmonary function tests may be necessary in specific situations, but a stress test is a more general and commonly recommended test for preoperative evaluation.

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  • 10. 

    The risk factor most responsible for increased morbidity and mortality is:

    • Age greater than 70

    • Smoking 20 plus years

    • Diabetes mellitus on insulin

    • Prednisone 20mg for 6 months

    Correct Answer
    A. Prednisone 20mg for 6 months
    Explanation
    The risk factor most responsible for increased morbidity and mortality is prednisone 20mg for 6 months. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that is commonly used to treat various inflammatory conditions. However, long-term use of prednisone can have significant side effects, including increased susceptibility to infections, osteoporosis, diabetes, and cardiovascular diseases. Therefore, taking prednisone for an extended period of time can greatly increase the risk of morbidity (the state of being diseased) and mortality (death).

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 09, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    ABSITE
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