Take The Biology Anatomy Trivia Quiz Questions!

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  • 1/40 Questions

    Which glands would only be found in a male?

    • Ovaries
    • Testes
    • Parathyroids
    • Adrenals 
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About This Quiz

Do you know anything about biology anatomy? This quiz can assist you in your quest for knowledge. Anatomy is the field in the biological sciences concerned with the identification and description of body parts. It is also the study of how these parts relate to each other, both spatially and functionally. If you are curious about biology anatomy, allow this quiz to be your guide toward a future in medicine.

Take The Biology Anatomy Trivia Quiz Questions! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Where are the salivary glands located?

    • Mouth

    • Oesophagus

    • Stomach

    • Pancreas 

    Correct Answer
    A. Mouth
    Explanation
    The salivary glands are located in the mouth. These glands produce saliva, which helps in the digestion process by moistening food and breaking it down chemically. Saliva also contains enzymes that begin the process of breaking down carbohydrates.

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  • 3. 

    What joint type has a large movement potential in all directions including rotation?

    • Ball and socket

    • Hinge

    • Gliding

    • Saddle 

    Correct Answer
    A. Ball and socket
    Explanation
    The ball and socket joint type allows for a large movement potential in all directions, including rotation. This is because the rounded end of one bone fits into the cup-shaped socket of another bone, allowing for a wide range of motion. This type of joint is found in the hip and shoulder joints, which require a high degree of mobility.

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  • 4. 

    What is the function of a neuron in the body?

    • Transport of blood

    • Detecting changes in the blood

    • Detecting the changes in the chemical balances in the body

    • Transmitting messages

    Correct Answer
    A. Transmitting messages
    Explanation
    Neurons are specialized cells in the body that play a crucial role in transmitting messages. They are responsible for transmitting electrical signals, known as nerve impulses, between different parts of the body. These messages allow for communication between different cells, tissues, and organs, enabling the coordination of various bodily functions. Neurons are essential for sensory perception, motor control, memory, and overall brain function. They are not involved in the transport of blood or detecting changes in blood or chemical balances in the body.

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  • 5. 

    Plantarflexion is possible at which joint?

    • Knee

    • Wrist

    • Hip

    • Ankle

    Correct Answer
    A. Ankle
    Explanation
    Plantarflexion refers to the movement of pointing the foot downward, as if pressing the gas pedal in a car. This movement is possible at the ankle joint, where the foot articulates with the lower leg bones (tibia and fibula). The ankle joint allows for a hinge-like motion, enabling plantarflexion and dorsiflexion (lifting the foot upward). Therefore, the correct answer is Ankle.

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  • 6. 

    What may be occurring if a client feels moderate pain with no inflammation the day after starting a new increased intensity programme?

    • Delayed onset muscle soreness

    • Blood pooling

    • Lactate build-up

    • Ligament sprain 

    Correct Answer
    A. Delayed onset muscle soreness
    Explanation
    If a client feels moderate pain with no inflammation the day after starting a new increased intensity program, it is likely that they are experiencing delayed onset muscle soreness. This is a common condition that occurs when muscles are subjected to unfamiliar or intense exercise. The pain is typically felt 24 to 48 hours after the exercise and is characterized by muscle stiffness and tenderness. It is not accompanied by inflammation or swelling, which differentiates it from other possible causes such as ligament sprain. Blood pooling and lactate build-up are less likely explanations for the symptoms described.

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  • 7. 

    What does a motor unit consist of?

    • A sensory neuron and muscle fibres

    • A sensory neuron and mechanoreceptors

    • A motor neuron and muscle fibres

    • A motor neuron and mechanoreceptors

    Correct Answer
    A. A motor neuron and muscle fibres
    Explanation
    A motor unit consists of a motor neuron and muscle fibers. Motor neurons are responsible for transmitting signals from the brain or spinal cord to the muscle fibers, which then contract and produce movement. The motor neuron and muscle fibers work together to coordinate muscle contractions and control movement. Sensory neurons and mechanoreceptors are not part of a motor unit as they are involved in sensing and transmitting sensory information to the brain, rather than initiating muscle contractions.

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  • 8. 

    Diets that are high in sugar and fats affect the sensitivity of which hormone?

    • Relaxin

    • Insulin

    • Cortisol

    • Thyroxine

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin
    Explanation
    Diets that are high in sugar and fats affect the sensitivity of insulin. Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When the diet is high in sugar and fats, the body becomes less responsive to insulin, leading to a condition called insulin resistance. This means that the body needs to produce more insulin to achieve the same effect, which can eventually lead to the development of type 2 diabetes.

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  • 9. 

    Which structure(s) connects muscle to bone?

    • Ligament

    • Tendon 

    • Cartilage

    • Periosteum

    Correct Answer
    A. Tendon 
    Explanation
    Tendons are the structures that connect muscle to bone. They are tough, fibrous connective tissues that transmit the force generated by muscles to the bones, allowing movement to occur. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bone to bone, while cartilage is a flexible connective tissue that provides cushioning and support. Periosteum is a membrane that covers the outer surface of bones.

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  • 10. 

    Which part of the nervous system is responsible for interpreting information and generating appropriate responses?

    • Peripheral

    • Sensory

    • Motor

    • Central 

    Correct Answer
    A. Central 
    Explanation
    The central nervous system is responsible for interpreting information and generating appropriate responses. It consists of the brain and spinal cord, which receive and process sensory information from the peripheral nervous system. The central nervous system then sends out motor commands to the muscles and glands, allowing the body to respond to the information received.

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  • 11. 

    Underproduction of which hormone causes weight gain and lethargy?

    • Calcitonin 

    • Thyroxine

    • Oestrogen

    • Testosterone 

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroxine
    Explanation
    Thyroxine is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that helps regulate metabolism. When there is an underproduction of thyroxine, it can lead to a condition called hypothyroidism. This condition can cause weight gain and lethargy due to a slower metabolism. Therefore, the underproduction of thyroxine is the correct answer for the question.

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  • 12. 

    Which energy system is the fastest to engage?

    • Lactate

    • Creatine phosphate

    • Aerobic glycolysis

    • Aerobic fatty acid oxidation 

    Correct Answer
    A. Creatine phosphate
    Explanation
    Creatine phosphate is the fastest energy system to engage. This is because creatine phosphate is readily available in the muscles and can be quickly broken down to produce ATP, the primary source of energy for muscle contractions. It provides a rapid burst of energy for short-duration, high-intensity activities such as sprinting or weightlifting. Lactate, aerobic glycolysis, and aerobic fatty acid oxidation are other energy systems that are used for longer-duration, lower-intensity activities.

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  • 13. 

    What covers the long axons of the neurons to speed up action potentials?

    • Myelin sheath 

    • Proprioceptors

    • Mechanoreceptors

    • Axon terminals 

    Correct Answer
    A. Myelin sheath 
    Explanation
    The myelin sheath covers the long axons of neurons to speed up action potentials. The myelin sheath is made up of fatty substances and acts as an insulating layer around the axon. This insulation helps to increase the speed at which electrical signals, known as action potentials, can travel along the axon. Without the myelin sheath, the action potentials would be slower, resulting in slower communication between neurons.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following would be a benefit of performing weight-bearing exercise during late adolescence?

    • Increased osteoclast activity

    • Decreased hyaline cartilage

    • Increased peak bone mass

    • Decreased peak loading levels 

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased peak bone mass
    Explanation
    Performing weight-bearing exercise during late adolescence can lead to increased peak bone mass. Weight-bearing exercises, such as running, jumping, and weightlifting, put stress on the bones, which stimulates the activity of osteoblasts, the cells responsible for bone formation. This increased bone formation helps to increase the density and strength of the bones, resulting in a higher peak bone mass. Having a higher peak bone mass is beneficial as it provides a greater buffer against age-related bone loss and reduces the risk of developing osteoporosis later in life.

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  • 15. 

    Which hormone is released in response to stress?

    • Oestrogen

    • Thyroxine 

    • Cortisol

    • Relaxin 

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortisol
    Explanation
    Cortisol is released in response to stress. It is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps the body respond to stress by increasing blood sugar levels, suppressing the immune system, and aiding in metabolism. When a person experiences stress, the adrenal glands release cortisol into the bloodstream, which helps the body cope with the stressor. This hormone plays a crucial role in the body's fight or flight response and helps regulate various bodily functions during stressful situations.

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  • 16. 

    Long distance aerobic training mostly uses which muscle fibre type?

    • Type 1

    • Type 2a

    • Type 2b

    • Fast twitch 

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 1
    Explanation
    Long distance aerobic training mostly uses Type 1 muscle fibers. Type 1 muscle fibers are also known as slow-twitch muscle fibers and are highly resistant to fatigue. They are efficient in using oxygen to produce energy and are therefore well-suited for endurance activities such as long-distance running or cycling. Type 1 muscle fibers are characterized by their ability to sustain contractions for extended periods of time, making them ideal for activities that require prolonged effort.

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  • 17. 

    What is the long-term effect of aerobic exercise on blood pressure for a hypertensive?

    • Increase

    • Normalise

    • Random fluctuation

    • No change 

    Correct Answer
    A. Normalise
    Explanation
    Aerobic exercise has been shown to have a positive long-term effect on blood pressure for hypertensive individuals. Regular aerobic exercise helps to strengthen the heart and improve cardiovascular health, which can lead to a decrease in blood pressure over time. This normalization of blood pressure is due to the improved efficiency of the heart in pumping blood and the relaxation of blood vessels. Therefore, the correct answer is "Normalise."

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  • 18. 

    Which part of the digestive system stores faeces?

    • Rectum

    • Anus

    • Large intensive

    • Small intensive 

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectum
    Explanation
    The rectum is the part of the digestive system that stores feces. It is located between the colon and the anus. Once food has been digested and nutrients have been absorbed, waste material, known as feces, is moved into the rectum where it is stored until it is ready to be eliminated from the body through the anus.

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  • 19. 

    What does thoracic hyperkyphosis most commonly cause?

    • Reduced hip flexion

    • Increased hip flexion

    • Increased shoulder flexion

    • Decreased shoulder flexion 

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased shoulder flexion 
    Explanation
    Thoracic hyperkyphosis refers to an excessive forward curvature of the upper back, leading to a rounded or hunched posture. This condition commonly causes decreased shoulder flexion. The excessive curvature in the upper back restricts the movement of the shoulders, making it difficult to raise the arms overhead or perform movements that require shoulder flexion. Therefore, individuals with thoracic hyperkyphosis often experience a decrease in their shoulder flexion range of motion.

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  • 20. 

    Which gland, responsible for metabolism, can develop an enlargement called a goitre if it is abnormally productive?

    • Pancreas

    • Thyroid

    • Adrenal 

    • Pituitary 

    Correct Answer
    A. Thyroid
    Explanation
    The thyroid gland is responsible for regulating metabolism in the body. If the gland becomes abnormally productive, it can lead to an enlargement called a goitre. This condition occurs when the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, causing the gland to swell. The goitre can cause symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, hoarseness, and a visible swelling in the neck area. Treatment for a goitre may include medication to regulate hormone levels or, in severe cases, surgery to remove part or all of the thyroid gland.

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  • 21. 

    Flexion and extension of the cervical vertebrae involves movement in which plane?

    • Sagittal

    • Coronal 

    • Frontal

    • Transverse

    Correct Answer
    A. Sagittal
    Explanation
    Flexion and extension of the cervical vertebrae involves movement in the sagittal plane. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves and is perpendicular to the ground. Flexion refers to the movement of bringing the chin towards the chest, while extension refers to the movement of tilting the head backward. Both of these movements occur along the sagittal plane.

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  • 22. 

    Which muscle fibres contain the highest number of mitochondria?

    • Type 1

    • Type 2a

    • Type 2b

    • Fast twitch 

    Correct Answer
    A. Type 1
    Explanation
    Type 1 muscle fibers contain the highest number of mitochondria. Mitochondria are responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP, and type 1 fibers, also known as slow twitch fibers, are specialized for endurance activities. These fibers have a high oxidative capacity and rely heavily on aerobic metabolism, which requires a large number of mitochondria to generate ATP efficiently. Type 2a and type 2b fibers, on the other hand, are fast twitch fibers and are better suited for short bursts of intense activity, relying more on anaerobic metabolism.

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  • 23. 

    What name is given to an interneuron that stops an action potential in a connected neuron?

    • Excitatory

    • Inhibitory

    • Sensory

    • Motor 

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibitory
    Explanation
    An inhibitory interneuron is a type of interneuron that stops or inhibits an action potential in a connected neuron. When activated, it prevents the generation of an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron, thereby reducing or inhibiting neuronal activity. This is in contrast to excitatory interneurons, which promote the generation of action potentials in the connected neuron. Sensory and motor neurons, on the other hand, are not directly involved in stopping or inhibiting action potentials in connected neurons.

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  • 24. 

    Which hormone is produced in the pancreas?

    • Glucagon

    • Calcitonin 

    • Adrenalin

    • Thyroxine 

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucagon
    Explanation
    Glucagon is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is produced in the pancreas. It is released by the alpha cells of the pancreas and plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. Glucagon acts in opposition to insulin, another hormone produced in the pancreas, by stimulating the liver to release glucose into the bloodstream. This helps to increase blood sugar levels when they are too low, such as during periods of fasting or intense exercise.

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  • 25. 

    What is the blood pressure threshold that contraindicates exercise, even under medical supervision?

    • 120/80

    • 140/90

    • 160/100

    • 180/110

    Correct Answer
    A. 180/110
    Explanation
    A blood pressure reading of 180/110 contraindicates exercise, even under medical supervision. This is because it indicates severe hypertension, which can put excessive strain on the heart and blood vessels during physical activity. Exercise at this level of blood pressure could potentially lead to complications such as heart attack or stroke. Therefore, it is important to monitor and control blood pressure levels before engaging in any exercise regimen.

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  • 26. 

    Which structure is formed from the fascia that surrounds muscle fibres when they converge and extend to attach the muscle to bone?

    • Ligament

    • Cartilage

    • Periosteum

    • Tendon 

    Correct Answer
    A. Tendon 
    Explanation
    A tendon is formed from the fascia that surrounds muscle fibers when they converge and extend to attach the muscle to bone. Tendons are tough and flexible bands of fibrous connective tissue that transmit the force generated by the muscle to the bone, allowing movement to occur. They are responsible for connecting muscles to bones and are essential for proper movement and functioning of the body.

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  • 27. 

    What is a Golgi tendon organ able to detect changes in?

    • Length

    • Tension

    • Strength 

    • Endurance 

    Correct Answer
    A. Tension
    Explanation
    A Golgi tendon organ is a sensory receptor located in the tendons that connects muscle to bone. It is able to detect changes in tension or force applied to the tendon. When the tension in the tendon increases, the Golgi tendon organ sends signals to the brain, which in turn causes the muscle to relax and prevent excessive force or injury. Therefore, the Golgi tendon organ is specifically able to detect changes in tension.

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  • 28. 

    What is the role of saliva in digestion?

    • Vitamin breakdown 

    • Carbohydrate breakdown

    • Protein breakdown

    • Mineral breakdown 

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbohydrate breakdown
    Explanation
    Saliva plays a crucial role in the digestion of carbohydrates. It contains an enzyme called amylase, which helps break down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars like glucose. This process begins in the mouth, where the amylase in saliva starts breaking down starches into smaller molecules. As the food travels through the digestive system, the breakdown of carbohydrates continues in the small intestine with the help of other enzymes. Ultimately, this breakdown allows the body to absorb and utilize the carbohydrates for energy production.

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  • 29. 

    What detects changes in muscle length?

    • Muscle spindles

    • Golgi tendon organs

    • Motor neurons 

    • Motor units 

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle spindles
    Explanation
    Muscle spindles are sensory receptors located within the muscle fibers that detect changes in muscle length. They are responsible for providing information to the central nervous system about the position and movement of our muscles. When a muscle is stretched, the muscle spindles are activated and send signals to the brain, which then initiates a reflex response to adjust the muscle length and maintain balance and coordination.

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  • 30. 

    Where are the semilunar valves found?

    • Between the ventricles and the arteries

    • In the vena cava

    • In the pulmonary vein

    • Between the atria and ventricles 

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the ventricles and the arteries
    Explanation
    The semilunar valves are found between the ventricles and the arteries. These valves prevent the backflow of blood from the arteries into the ventricles during ventricular relaxation. They consist of three cusps that open and close to allow blood to flow out of the heart and prevent it from flowing back into the ventricles.

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  • 31. 

    What would be the length of sprint interval that would help to improve the body's lactic acid tolerance?

    • 60 seconds

    • 30 seconds

    • 15 seconds

    • 10 seconds 

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 seconds
    Explanation
    A sprint interval of 60 seconds would help improve the body's lactic acid tolerance. Lactic acid is produced during intense exercise when the body's oxygen supply is limited. By performing sprint intervals lasting 60 seconds, the body is pushed to its limits and adapts to better tolerate and clear lactic acid. This type of training can improve endurance and performance in activities that rely on anaerobic energy systems, such as sprinting or high-intensity interval training.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following would significantly increase systolic and diastolic blood pressure?

    • Isometric contractions

    • Walking

    • Swimming 

    • Circuit weight training 

    Correct Answer
    A. Isometric contractions
    Explanation
    Isometric contractions involve the contraction of muscles without any movement in the joints. During isometric contractions, the muscles are contracted against an immovable object or against each other. This type of contraction leads to an increase in blood pressure as it creates resistance in the blood vessels, making it harder for blood to flow. This increased resistance results in an increase in systolic and diastolic blood pressure. Walking, swimming, and circuit weight training do not involve the same level of resistance and therefore would not significantly increase blood pressure.

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  • 33. 

    What movement of the foot-ankle complex is commonly associated with sprains and strains?

    • Plantarflexion

    • Dorsiflexion

    • Iversion

    • Eversion 

    Correct Answer
    A. Iversion
    Explanation
    Inversion is the movement of the foot-ankle complex where the sole of the foot turns inward. This movement is commonly associated with sprains and strains because it puts stress on the ligaments and tendons on the outer side of the ankle. When the foot is inverted forcefully or beyond its normal range of motion, it can cause these structures to stretch or tear, leading to sprains and strains.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following muscles would be in a lengthened position in an upper crossed syndrome posture?

    • Lower trapezius

    • Anterior deltoids

    • Pectoralis major

    • Latissimus dorsi 

    Correct Answer
    A. Lower trapezius
    Explanation
    In an upper crossed syndrome posture, the muscles that are typically in a lengthened position are the ones that are weak or inhibited. The lower trapezius is one such muscle that is often weak in individuals with this posture. The upper crossed syndrome is characterized by a forward head posture, rounded shoulders, and a hunched upper back. In this posture, the lower trapezius, which is responsible for stabilizing and retracting the scapulae, is lengthened and weakened. This can lead to imbalances and postural issues.

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  • 35. 

    What is a risk of chronic high blood pressure?

    • Blindless

    • Deafness

    • Vertigo

    • Nausea

    Correct Answer
    A. Blindless
    Explanation
    Chronic high blood pressure can lead to damage in the blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the eyes. This can result in a condition called hypertensive retinopathy, which can cause vision problems and eventually lead to blindness if left untreated. Therefore, blindness is a risk associated with chronic high blood pressure.

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  • 36. 

    What is the 'all-or-none' law?

    • All muscles in a group contract together

    • All muscle fibres in a muscle contract together

    • All muscle fibres of a motor unit contract together

    • ​​​​​​​All motor units of the same type contract together

    Correct Answer
    A. All muscle fibres of a motor unit contract together
    Explanation
    The 'all-or-none' law states that when a motor unit is stimulated, all of the muscle fibers within that motor unit will contract together. This means that either all of the muscle fibers contract or none of them do, there is no in-between. This law applies to the individual motor units within a muscle, not the entire muscle group or all the muscle fibers in a muscle.

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  • 37. 

    Diets that are too high or low in fibre affect what aspect of digestion?

    • Motility through the tract 

    • Production of bile

    • Regularity of peristalsis 

    • Secretion of enzymes 

    Correct Answer
    A. Motility through the tract 
    Explanation
    Diets that are too high or low in fiber can affect the motility through the digestive tract. Fiber adds bulk to the stool, which helps to stimulate regular bowel movements and prevent constipation. It also helps to regulate the speed at which food moves through the digestive system, promoting healthy digestion. Therefore, if the diet lacks fiber, it can lead to slower motility and difficulties in passing stool, while a high fiber diet can increase motility and promote regular bowel movements.

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  • 38. 

    What receptors initiate the inverse stretch reflex?

    • Golgi tendon organs

    • Baroreceptors

    • Chemoreceptors

    • Muscle spindles 

    Correct Answer
    A. Golgi tendon organs
    Explanation
    Golgi tendon organs are the receptors that initiate the inverse stretch reflex. These sensory receptors are located in the tendons of muscles and are sensitive to changes in muscle tension. When the tension in a muscle increases, Golgi tendon organs are activated and send inhibitory signals to the muscle, causing it to relax. This reflex helps to protect the muscle from excessive force and potential damage. Baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and muscle spindles are not involved in the initiation of the inverse stretch reflex.

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  • 39. 

    When performing a dynamic stretch for the pectoralis major, in what plane does most movement occur?

    • Sagittal

    • Transverse

    • Frontal

    • Coronal 

    Correct Answer
    A. Transverse
    Explanation
    During a dynamic stretch for the pectoralis major, the most movement occurs in the transverse plane. The pectoralis major is a large muscle located in the chest area, and dynamic stretching involves moving the muscle through its full range of motion. In this case, the transverse plane refers to movements that occur in a horizontal direction, such as twisting or rotating the upper body. Therefore, when performing a dynamic stretch for the pectoralis major, the primary movement will occur in the transverse plane.

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  • 40. 

    What term is used to describe the process where an agonist muscle is relaxed as a result of tension becoming excessive?

    • Reciprocal inhibition

    • Autogenic inhibition

    • Myogenic inhibition 

    • Isometric inhibition 

    Correct Answer
    A. Autogenic inhibition
    Explanation
    Autogenic inhibition is the term used to describe the process where an agonist muscle is relaxed as a result of tension becoming excessive. This occurs when the muscle's own sensory receptors, called Golgi tendon organs, detect high levels of tension and send inhibitory signals to the muscle fibers, causing them to relax. This mechanism helps prevent injury by preventing excessive force generation in the muscle.

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  • Jan 23, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 07, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Hodgesd
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